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MS2 FINAL
MS2 FINAL
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Final study guide for MS2! we will pass this class in the name of Jesus amen.
Flashcards
91 cards
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Practice quiz
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Host live
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Questions
91
Answers
1
Which precautions should be implemented for a patient with neutropenia?
Practice strict hand hygiene
Place in protective (reverse) isolation if severe
Give live vaccines as ordered
Monitor for fever and report >100.4°F
Avoid fresh flowers and raw fruits/vegetables
2
A complication of SLE is Lupous Nephritis
False
True
3
AVOID ASPIRIN IN THE FOLLOWING : SATA
HEMORRHAGIC CVA
GOUT
HIT
Ischemic CVA
4
Acute HIV symptoms start as Flu-Like- fever, rash, night sweats, increased viral load
True
False
5
Which of the following best describes a Normal Sinus Rhythm (NSR)?
Absent electrical activity
Regular rhythm, HR 60–100 bpm, P wave before every QRS
Irregular rhythm, no P waves
Wide QRS, HR >150 bpm
6
SLE is an autoimmune disease that can lead to multi-organ damage, including the kidneys.
False
True
7
Desmopressin is the drug of choice for DI
False
True
8
Which are common signs of chemotherapy-induced peripheral neuropathy? SATA
Numbness or decreased sensation
Hypertension
Tingling or burning in hands/feet
Difficulty with fine motor skills
Increased deep tendon reflexes
9
Warfarin is used in A-fib to decrease the risk of clots
False
True
10
Which position is best to reduce ICP in a head-injured patient?
Trendelenburg
Supine with head flat
Head of bed elevated 30 degrees
Prone with knees flexed
11
True or False: Pulmonary edema can cause pink, frothy sputum and severe shortness of breath
True
False
12
Which features are commonly seen in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy? SATA
Thickened interventricular septum
Reduced muscle mass
Sudden death in young athletes
Dilated ventricles
Diastolic dysfunction
STIFF ventricles
13
True or False: Hepatitis A is primarily transmitted through the fecal-oral route and often resolves on its own.
True
False
14
What are key nursing actions during an active seizure? SATA
Turn patient to their side
Restrain the patient
NPO
Protect airway and head
Note the duration and type of movements
Place a tongue blade in the mouth
15
After a tonic-clonic seizure, it is normal for the patient to enter a postictal phase with confusion and fatigue.
False
True
16
Which nursing interventions help prevent infection in burn patients?
Use sterile technique during dressing changes
Administer tetanus prophylaxis
Isolate the patient if extensive burns are present
Avoid antibiotic use until sepsis is confirmed
Monitor WBC count and temperature
17
Which type of dysfunction is most associated with dilated cardiomyopathy?
Pericardial tamponade
Systolic dysfunction
Diastolic dysfunction
Obstructive flow
18
Cool, clammy skin and lactic acidosis are hallmark findings in hypovolemic shock due to decreased tissue perfusion.
False
True
19
CIRRHOSIS LABS: ASL/ALT - Decreased albumin- decreased platelets
True
False
20
True or False: When assessing an AV fistula, you should feel a thrill and hear a bruit.
False
True
21
A patient has a MAP (mean arterial pressure) of 58 mmHg. What does this indicate?
Patient is well perfused
Blood pressure is too high
Tissue perfusion is inadequate -- Cerebral blood flow
MAP is normal
22
Which statements are true about Hepatitis C? SATA
It may be cured with antiviral medications
It is primarily transmitted via blood
It often leads to chronic liver disease
fecal - oral route transmission
There is an effective vaccine
It is usually self-limiting
23
A patient weighing 70 kg with 40% (TBSA) burns should receive how much fluid in the first 24 hours using the PKF
3,500 mL
11,200 mL
8,400 mL
5,600 mL
24
In the TNM system, a designation of T0 means no evidence of a primary tumor.
True
False
25
Cloudy dialysis outflow and abdominal pain may be signs of peritonitis in a patient receiving peritoneal dialysis
False
True
26
Which actions are priorities in the initial care of a burn patient? SATA
Remove clothing and jewelry near burned area
Start fluid resuscitation promptly
Apply ice directly to burned skin
Assess airway and breathing
Insert Foley catheter to monitor output
27
Use MORPHINE in the following: SATA
Pulmonary edema
Cancer - Hospice
BURNS
Pancreatitis
28
What does continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of a chest tube indicate?
An air leak in the system
Normal function of the system
The lung is fully expanded
The need to clamp the tube
29
Pancreatitis LABS: Lipase is more important than Amylase
False
True
30
Most common cause of PE is : DVT
True
False
31
True or False: Esophageal varices are dilated veins that can rupture due to increased portal pressure in cirrhosis.
False
True
32
After a liver biopsy, what is the correct patient position to reduce bleeding?
Trendelenburg
Supine
Left side-lying
Right side-lying
33
Which of the following are clinical features of DIC? SATA
High platelet count
Organ dysfunction due to microclots
Elevated D-dimer
Low fibrinogen
Prolonged PT and aPTT
Bleeding and clotting simultaneously
34
In ARDS, what is the key feature that distinguishes it from other respiratory disorders?
Hypoxemia that improves with oxygen therapy
Hypoxemia that does not improve despite high-flow oxygen
Increased lung compliance
Wheezing not relieved by bronchodilators
35
Which of the following are goals of palliative care? SATA
Coordinate care across settings
Improve quality of life
Cure the underlying disease
Manage pain and symptoms
Provide emotional and spiritual support
36
Patient with an Acute GOUT attack can still consume alcohol
False
True
37
A hallmark of a left-sided CVA is:
Impulsiveness and poor judgment
Spatial-perceptual deficits
Left-sided weakness
Aphasia and language deficits
38
After a lumbar puncture the patient has to remain in bed flat / supine for an 1hr
True
False
39
What is the immediate priority when a patient is found in asystole?
Synchronized cardioversion
Start CPR and give epinephrine
Defibrillation
Administer adenosine
40
Increased ammonia in CIRRHOSIS can cause encephalopathy ? lactulose can decrease ammonia ?
False
True
41
True or False: Cardiac arrest always presents with a shockable rhythm.
True
False
42
Diagnostic test for PE- SATA
CT- Angiography
D-dimer
V/Q SCAN
X-Ray
43
What is a hallmark sign of basilar skull fracture?
Pinpoint pupils
Hypertension and bradycardia
Battle’s sign and raccoon eyes
Seizures
44
If benzos don't work for a seizure you can use LEVETIRACERAM (KEPPRA) FOR STATUS EPILEPTICUS and prevention of seizures
False
True
45
LABS to diagnostic SLE: Positive ANA- decreased C3-C4 increased ESR- Proteinuria
False
True
46
Which ABG result is most consistent with acute respiratory failure?
pH 7.31, PaCO₂ 55, PaO₂ 58 Hypoxemic or hypercapnic- V/Q mistmatch
pH 7.45, PaCO₂ 38, PaO₂ 95
pH 7.50, PaCO₂ 30, PaO₂ 100
pH 7.38, PaCO₂ 40, PaO₂ 80
47
A patient with SIADH will likely present with which of the following?
Hypernatremia and polyuria
Hyponatremia and fluid retention
Excessive urination and dry mucous membranes
High serum osmolality and high sodium
48
Which of the following symptoms is most characteristic of a pulmonary embolism?
High fever and green sputum
Gradual increase in productive cough
Crackles heard in both lung bases
Sudden shortness of breath and chest pain- Feelings of impending Doom
49
A hallmark of AIDS is a CD4+ T-cell count less than 200 cells/mm³.
True
False
50
True or False: Jaundice, ascites, and asterixis are hallmark findings in advanced cirrhosis.
True
False
51
What is the classic hallmark sign of an acute gout attack?
Generalized edema
Butterfly rash
Red, hot, swollen joint—commonly the great toe
Muscle cramps
52
ITP involves autoimmune destruction of platelets, leading to an increased bleeding risk.
False
True
53
In the Parkland formula, half of the total fluid volume is given in the first 8 hours from the time of injury.
False
True
54
Most common cause of ARDS is SEPSIS
True
False
55
Which are hallmark features of SLE? SATA
Joint pain and stiffness
Weakness- Pain
Elevated potassium
High uric acid levels
Butterfly rash on the face
Photosensitivity
56
A patient with a right-sided stroke is more likely to have left-sided hemiplegia and neglect.
False
True
57
Which of the following is a hallmark difference between DKA and HHS?
Both DKA and HHS always present with fruity breath
HHS is associated with metabolic acidosis and ketones
DKA presents with extremely high blood glucose (>1000 mg/dL)
DKA causes ketones and Kussmaul respirations, while HHS does not
58
True or False: Restrictive cardiomyopathy leads to impaired ventricular filling due to rigid heart muscle.
True
False
59
Hospice care is specifically for patients who:
Want to pursue aggressive curative treatments
Are actively receiving chemotherapy
Have a life expectancy of more than 12 months
Have a prognosis of 6 months or less and want comfort care only
60
Which physical exam finding is most associated with atelectasis?
Decreased or absent breath sounds in affected lobe
Crackles throughout all lung fields
Loud wheezing on inspiration
Hyperresonance to percussion
61
True or False: V-Tach is characterized by a rapid, bizarre wide QRS complex and can lead to cardiac arrest
False
True
62
What is typically the
first
intervention for a patient in hypovolemic shock?
Administer vasopressors
Start CPR
Begin rapid fluid resuscitation
Give antibiotics
63
Which of the following is true about Hepatitis B management?
Supportive care and rest are key because there is no definitive cure
It is spread only through food
The vaccine is not effective
It can be cured with antibiotics
64
What is the hallmark sign of cardiogenic shock?
Bradycardia with hypertension
Bounding pulses and flushed skin
High cardiac output with low blood pressure
Decreased cardiac output and signs of poor perfusion-pump failure CCS
65
Which of the following is a common complication of cirrhosis?
Portal hypertension
Decreased ammonia levels
Gallstone formation
Hyperglycemia
66
A patient with a tension pneumothorax may present with which critical sign?
Tracheal deviation away from the affected side
Productive cough
Bradycardia
Bilateral crackles
67
Patients with neutropenia are at high risk for infection even with a low-grade fever.
False
True
68
Alteplase is the Drug of choice for A ischemic Stroke
False
True
69
Infection is a leading cause of death in burn patients.
False
True
70
Which signs indicate fluid overload?
Bounding pulses
Edema
Hypotension
Crackles in lungs
Jugular vein distention (JVD)
Bradycardia
71
Palliative care can begin at diagnosis and be given alongside curative treatment.
True
False
72
In the TNM staging system, what does the "M" stand for?
Metastasis
Malignancy
Margins
Molecular type
73
If pH is normal when calculating a ABG interpretation: It means is FULLY COMPENSATED
True
False
74
What is a hallmark sign of acute pancreatitis?
Bradycardia and hypotension
Epigastric pain radiating to the back- LUQ - Keep NPO
Hyperactive bowel sounds
Left upper quadrant pain relieved by food
75
True or False: Patients with chronic kidney disease are at risk for hyperkalemia due to decreased potassium excretion
True
False
76
Using the Rule of Nines, what percentage is assigned to the entire left leg in an adult?
27%
4.5%
9%
18%
77
What is the hallmark clinical sign of flail chest?
Chest pain relieved by inspiration
Crepitus over the fractured area
Paradoxical chest wall movement during breathing
Tracheal deviation toward the injured side
78
Diabetes insipidus causes dilute urine, high serum sodium, and increased thirst. And you give Desmopressin
False
True
79
Cullen's & Turner's Signs are indicative of pancreatitis ?
False
True
80
Gout is caused by the accumulation of uric acid crystals in the joints.
True
False
81
Which are characteristics of atrial fibrillation? SATA
No discernible P waves
Ventricular rate always under 60 bpm
Wide QRS complex
A. Irregularly irregular rhythm
Risk for PE
Risk of embolic stroke
82
Which are expected in a patient with DI (Diabetes Insipidus)?
Low serum osmolality
Hypernatremia
Increased thirst
Not enough ADH
Fluid overload
Polyuria
83
Clear drainage from the nose or ears after a head injury may indicate a CSF leak.
False
True
84
What is the hallmark of HIT?
Decreased bleeding with increased platelets
Petechiae only
Sudden drop in platelets after heparin exposure
increased platelet count with heparin
85
True or False: Acute kidney injury is always irreversible and leads to end-stage renal disease.
True
False
86
Select all hallmark findings of DKA:
Positive ketones in urine
Hypoglycemia
Severely altered mental status always present
Kussmaul breathing
Fruity-scented breath
250 Glucose - type 1 - Metabolic acidosis
87
GOUT Diet teaching : SATA
No organ meats
Increase alcohol - beer
No selfish
Low purine foods
88
What is the priority action if a neutropenic patient presents with a fever of 101°F (38.3°C)?
Administer antipyretic and reassess
Lower room temperature
Encourage fluids
Notify provider immediately
89
Which of the following are signs of increased intracranial pressure?
Widening pulse pressure
Bradycardia
Decreased level of consciousness
Posturing - decorticate - decrebrate
Tachycardia
Vomiting without nausea
90
Which of the following is a common opportunistic infection in patients with AIDS?
Hepatitis A
Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (PJP)
C. difficile
E. coli UTI
91
HHS typically occurs in type 2 and with severe dehydration and blood glucose >600, but without significant acidosis
False
True
