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*Human Physiology 2 Body System* Blood immunology - Compilation Flashcards | StudBud
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*Human Physiology 2 Body System* Blood immunology - Compilation
*Human Physiology 2 Body System* Blood immunology - Compilation
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Answers
1
The main function of leucocytes is
To destroy bacteria
Protection against parasites
To destroy viruses
Protection against infection
2
The two major markers of blood antigens are?
ABO blood group antigens and Gh antigens
AB blood group antigens and Rh antigens
ABO blood group antigens and Rh antigens
AB blood group antigens and Gh antigens
3
Immune response can be innateor acquired/adaptive
True
False
4
Aggregation of platelets in haemostasis can also be described as the
escape of platelets from the artery
escape of collagen from the blood vessel
escape of collagen from the artery
escape of platelets from the blood vessel
5
Bilirubin taken up by the liver is converted to 1._____ bilirubin which is 2.____
1. Unconjugated 2. Lipid soluble
1. Conjugated 2. Water soluble
1. Unconjugated 2. Water soluble
1. Conjugated 2. Lipid soluble
6
There are 4 major types of Haemoglobin (Hb) found in adult blood?
False
True
7
Vaccination is recognized by immune system and stimulates formation of
T cells
Macrophages
Memory cells
B cells
8
what vaccine is moderately protective (40-60%) against what disease?
Influenza
Polio
Variola
Yellow fever
9
The clonal expansion process occurs in
B cells
Neutrophils
B and T cells
T cells
10
If there is a decrease in tissue oxygenation what is secreted into the blood from the kidney?
Colony stimulating factors (CSFs)
Thrombopoietin (TPO)
Interleukins
Erythropoietin (EPO)
11
What slowly dissolves a fibrin clot?
Fibrin
Thrombin
Elastin
Plasmin
12
Treg cells are responsible for _______ the immune system after an infection has been dealt with
All of the answers
Turning on
Keeping stable
Shutting down
13
Aggregated platelets release which factor that activates a clotting cascade?
Factor X
Factor Y
Factor V
Factor W
14
Plasma is comprised of
7% water, 92% protein, 1% other elements
7% water, 1% protein, 92% other elements
92% water, 7% protein, 1% other elements
1% water, 7% protein, 92% other elements
15
Immune system has the ability to distinguish its own cells from foreign cells, this is called?
Self-intelligence
Self-awareness
Self-tolerance
Self-resistance
16
In the effector phase which of the following
is not
involved with a histamine response
causes vasoconstriction (increase in bp)
cramp and diarrhoea due to release of gastric fluid
stimulate nasal secretions
difficulty in breathing (as seen in asthma)
17
Which classes are involved in the Major histocompatibility complex (MHC) for T cells
Class I
Class I, II, III
Class I and II
Class I, II, III, VI
18
The universal recipient blood type is
Type AB-
Type AB+
Type O-
Type O+
19
_? allergy response is mediated by Ab & mast cells occurs after exposure to Ag called allergens
A delayed
An immediate
A timed
A staggered
20
Some leucocytes engulf foreign material by what action?
Agrocytosis
Endocytosis
Exocytosis
Phagocytosis
21
Secondary lymphoid organs are
Spleen and kidneys
Bone marrow and liver
Spleen and lymph nodes
Bone marrow and thymus
22
Ciliated epithelial cells line respiratory & urogenital tracts and are covered by layer of
Muscus
Cholesterol
Elastin
Collagen
23
Macrophages can ingest bacteria either directly or after coating them with?
Cytotoxic B lymphocytes
Opsonins
Cytotoxic T lymphocytes
Kinins
24
The main function of Globulins?
Iron transport
Important for haemostasis
Assists osmotic pressure/carriers water-insoluble molecules
Immunoglobulins mostly made by leucocytes
25
The most common antibody found in 75% of body fluids is?
IgM
IgG
IgA
IgE
26
Primary lymphoid organs are
Bone marrow and thymus
Spleen and kidneys
Spleen and lymph nodes
Bone marrow and liver
27
Which of the following is
not
one of the most likely ways HIV can be transmitted
Blood
Mother-baby
Sexual activity
Saliva
28
Platelets live for approx ______? in the blood, until removed by the spleen/liver
20 days
10 days
5 days
15 days
29
Which cells respond causing tissue damage & discomfort to things like poison ivy/ chemicals
Lymphocytes
Monocytes
B Cells
T Cells
30
Kaposi’s sarcoma is
Rare tumour of the blood vessel that is associated with AIDS
Rare tumour of the bone marrow that is associated with HIV
Rare tumour of the bone marrow that is associated with AIDS
Rare tumour of the blood vessels that is associated with HIV
31
What is the arrow pointing to from (<Blank>)
Lymphocyte
Erythrocyte
Platelet
Basophil
32
What does the reticulo-endothelia system do? (BM-= Bone marrow)
RBCs are destroyed by phagocytic cells in spleen, liver & BM
WBCs are destroyed by phagocytic cells in spleen, liver & BM
Produced from the breakdown of haem molecules
Produced from the breakdown of bilirubin molecules
33
Membrane attack complex helps actions of antibodies & cells, they are plasma proteins produced
in the bone marrow
by plasma
by RBC
in the liver
34
Eosinophils are mainly involved in what?
Inflammation and allergic responses
Ingesting and destroying invaders
Recognise pathogens and activating immune cells
Allergic response and parasitic disease
35
For the following plasma protiens which are the correct %'s?
Albumin(~60%), Globulins (~30%), Fibrinogen (2%)
Albumin(~60%), Globulins (~30%), Fibrinogen (4%)
Albumin(~30%), Globulins (~60%), Fibrinogen (2%)
Albumin(~30%), Globulins (~60%), Fibrinogen (4%)
36
Plasma proteins also contribute to the blood’s _____?
Lymphatic pressure
Blood pressure
Interstitial pressure
Osmotic pressure
37
Which of the following substances
are not
released in the presence of inflammation?
Histamine
Prostaglandins
Kinins
Cytokins
38
In 1796 Edward Jenner used _____to immunize people against smallpox
Smallpox
Porkpox
Pigpox
Cowpox
39
When an allergen enter the vascular system it is engulfed by phagocytes & presented to ______
B cells
Opsonins
T cells
Macrophages
40
Which 2 components of blood can initiate blood clot formation?
Antibodies (eg. lymphocytes) and proteins (eg. fibrinogen)
Cells (eg. platelets) and proteins (eg. fibrinogen)
Cells (eg. platelets) and Lipids (eg. fatty acids)
Antibodies (eg. lymphocytes) and Lipids (eg. fatty acids)
41
Neutrophils are phagocytic and primarily do what?
Attack bacteria
Increase lymphocytes
Attack viruses
Increase eosinophils
42
Which of the following are the correct 3 steps of
Haemostasis
?
1. Vasodilation 2. Gregation 3. Coagulation
1. Vasoconstriction 2. Aggregation 3. Coagulation
1. Vasoconstriction 2. Gregation 3. Coagulation
1. Vasodilation 2. Aggregation 3. Coagulation
43
Histamine are found in the granules of what cells
Mast cells and basophils
B cells and basophils
B cells and neutrophils
Mast cells and neutrophils
44
Which of the following is diseases is not considered solid immunity through vaccination
Measles
Mumps
Rubella
Typhoid
45
IgE is specifically very important in
Allergic responses
Antibody secretion
Secondary immune responses
Blood clotting
46
Viruses are
Unable to divide, Must invade another cell to replicate
Unable to divide , cannot invade another cell to replicate
Able to divide , Must invade another cell to replicate
Able to divide , cannot invade another cell to replicate
47
Activated B cells produce what?
Immunoglobulins
Globular proteins
Antigens
Antibodies
48
Helper T cells (Th cells) possess what surface antigen?
CD2
CD4
CD8
CD6
49
A patient with type O- blood can only receive from O+ donors
False
True
50
What does a Natural killer cell secrete to prevent viral reproduction?
Interferons
Cytotoxic lymphocytes
Granzymes
Cytoplasmic granules
51
What is the arrow pointing to from (<Blank>)
Lymphocyte
Basophil
Erythrocyte
Platelet
52
In a viral response Ab acts as 1.___ coating the virus for destruction by macrophages
Carrier
Target
Cytokin
Opsonins
53
HDN is very common in
Its a genetic disposition
Childbirth
Pregnancy
Preconception
54
B cells then differentiate into plasma cells and secrete specific antibodies which are?
IgG
IgE
IgD
IgB
55
ABO Blood Groups are based on how many glycolipid isoantigens?
2
4
3
1
56
Substances that interact with the immune system and elicit an immune response are either
immunoglobins or antigens (Ag)
immunogens or lymphocytes
immunoglobins or lymphocytes
immunogens or antigens (Ag)
57
Kinins act directly on local smooth muscle and causes muscle relaxation
False
True
58
Serum lacks the blood protein?
Fibrinogen
Plasma
Leucocytes
Erythrocytes
59
Vitamin K is involved in the synthesis of 4 clotting factors including?
Thrombin
Aggrombin
Athrombin
Prothrombin
60
Erythropoietin (EPO) is produced by the?
Kidneys
Liver
Bone marrow
Adrenal glands
61
__? begins when enzymes are exposed to collagen fibres at the injury site
Intrinsic pathway
Extrinsic pathway
Endogenous pathway
Exogenous pathway
62
Which are the correct 4 steps in the conversion of firbrinogen to fibrin? (Form = fromation)
Activation of X, Initiation, Form thrombin, Form fibrin clot
Initiation, Activation of X, Form fibrin clot, Form thrombin
Activation of X, Initiation, Form fibrin clot, Form thrombin
Initiation, Activation of X, Form thrombin, Form fibrin clot
63
Which Cytokine increases the number of RBC precursors?
Interleukins
Erythropoietin (EPO)
Thrombopoietin (TPO)
Colony stimulating factors (CSFs)
64
The basis for vaccinations is the acquired system has “memory” of previous exposures
True
False
65
What is the
final result
in EPO that causes a haemopoietic stem into a mature RBC
Proerythroblasts
Polychromatophilic erythroblasts
Basophilic erythroblasts
Normoblasts
66
A patient with type AB- blood can receive from all ABO and Rh blood types
True
False
67
__? begins with release of tissue factor by damaged peripheral tissues and aggregated platelets
Endogenous pathway
Extrinsic pathway
Intrinsic pathway
Exogenous pathway
68
The universal donor blood type is
Type AB-
Type O+
Type O-
Type AB+
69
In Cytotoxic T lymphocyte after contact TC cells release ___? to kill target cells by apoptosis
Interleukins and agranzymes
Interleukins and granzymes
Perforin and agranzymes
Perforin and granzymes
70
Which of the following is
not
one of the causes of
elevated
Haematocrit (HCT)?
Dehydration
Fluid loss from severe diarrhoea or vomiting
Haemoconcentration due to severe burns
Leukaemia
71
TCR coreceptors, aβ TCRs only recognise Ag in presence of MHC, they will
NOT
recognise Ag alone
False
True
72
T lymphocytes provide
Endogenous immunity
Extracellular immunity
Intracellular immunity
Exogenous immunity
73
In the stages of HIV infection Seroconversion is
Viral load increases
when CD4 count <200 cells/mL blood
Symptoms usually develop, Fever, lymphadenopathy, rash
Antibodies to virus appear, 4 to 10 weeks after infection
74
When a blood vessel is damaged and blood escapes the vessel wall it undergoes what?
Vasodilation
Aggregation
Coagulation
Vasoconstriction
75
Flexibility of the cell membrane allows the cell to change shape and respond to ______
Osmotic changes
Cell changes
Interstitial changes
Pressure changes
76
What copies viral genetic material from RNA into double-stranded DNA?
Reverse transcriptase
Inverse transcriptase
Reverse protease
Inverse protease
77
The complement soluble factor is a major defence mechanism against what?
Extracellular pathogens
Intracellular pathogens
Protozoa
Bacteria
78
Which of the following is
incorrect
for antibodies making antigens more visible?
Making Ab clump
Inactivate bacterial toxins
Making Ag clump
Acting as opsonins
79
Which of the following is not a function of the immune system
Removal of dead/abnormal cells
Distribution of nutrients to cells
Tissue rejection and allergy response
Protect from pathogens
80
Which vaccine is absolutely protective (100%) against what disease
Yellow fever
Polio
Influenza
Variola
81
What binds to viral Ag on macrophage MHC class II molecules?
Cytotoxic T cells
Helper T cells
Cytotoxic B cells
Helper B cells
82
which of the phagocytic leucocytes arrive first to the injury site?
Lymphocytes
Neutrophils
Monocytes
Basophils
83
In acquired immunity the body requires an initial exposure, the cell then undergoes ________
Activation of T cells
Immune response
Clonal expansion
Active replication
84
Acute phase proteins are released early and these plasma proteins include
Monocytes and C-reactive protein
Opsonins and D-reactive protein
Monocytes and D-reactive protein
Opsonins and C-reactive protein
85
Plasma cells do not express Ab on their membrane, instead they synthesize and secrete Ab
True
False
86
Antibody structure is comprised of 1._____ chains linked into a 2.______ molecule
1. 4 polypeptide chains 2. Y shaped
1. 4 polypeptide chains 2. W shaped
1. 3 polypeptide chains 2. Y shaped
1. 3 polypeptide chains 2. W shaped
87
Which of the following is
not
one of the 3 layers in the bodies immune response
Soluble immune factors
Insoluble immune factors
Physical and chemical barriers
Immune response
88
Haemophiliacs are unable to?
Form blood clots
Produce white blood cells
Form antibodies
Produce red blood cells
89
MHC Class I molecules are found
Surface of all anucleated cells
Surface of all nucleated cells
Cytoplasm of all nucleate cells
Cytoplasm of all anucleate cells
90
Ab-bound viruses cannot enter target cells
False
True
91
Which of the following foreign substances can
not
act as an antigen?
Lipoprotein molecules
Small polysacchardies
Large polysaccharides
Protein
92
Antibodies can also enhance inflammation by which two actions?
Activate complacent and activate mast cells
Activate complacent and activate immune cells
Activate complement and activate immune cells
Activate complement and activate mast cells
93
Erythrocytes originate from progenitor stem cells called ________?
All of the answers
haemacytoclasts
haemacytes
haemacytoblasts
94
Neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils are known as______?
agranulocytes
mononuclear cells
Dinuclear cells
granulocytes
95
Erythrocyte contain high intracellular 1.___ and low 2.___
1. Ca2+ 2. Na+
1. Na+ 2. Ca2+
1. Na+ 2. K+
1. K+ 2. Na+
96
Fill in the blank
Leucocytes
Basophils
Monocytes
Lymphocytes
97
The main function of Fibrinogen?
Important for haemostasis
Iron transport
Assists osmotic pressure/carriers water-insoluble molecules
Immunoglobulins mostly made by leucocytes
98
Which of the following is not one of the major functions of blood?
Regulation
Production
Protection
Distribution
99
In phagocytosis what is the correct sequence of events
1. Attachment 2. Endocytosis 3. Digestion
1. Endocytosis 2. Digestion 3. Attachment
1. Endocytosis 2. Attachment 3. Digestion
1. Attachment 2. Digestion 3. Endocytosis
100
Smallpox declared eradicated by the WHO in what year
1990
1985
1980
1975
101
Haematocrit (HCT) measures what? in the total volume of blood
concentration of Leucocytes
concentration of Lymphocytes
concentration of Megakaryocyte
concentration of Erythrocytes
102
Type "A" blood possess
"A" surface antibody
"A" surface glutinins
"A" surface agglutinins
"A" surface antigen
103
Cells in the spleen monitor for specifically what?
All of the answers
Damaged cells
Parasites
Foreign pathogens
104
Leucocytes contain _______ and other chemicals which they use to kill invading pathogens
Macrophages
Lysosomes
Bacteria
Protein
105
Some blood clotting factors are released by platelets
True
False
106
Saliva in mouth contains 1._____ enzymes, stomach and vaginal fluids are 2._____
1. Hydrolytic enzymes 2. Alkaline
1. Hydrochloric enzymes 2. Acidic
1. Hydrolytic enzymes 2. Acidic
1. Hydrochloric enzymes 2. Alkaline
107
Most plasma proteins are produced where?
Liver
Pancreas
Bone marrow
Spleen
108
Haemophilia B is loss of clotting
Factor XII
Factor IX
Factor XI
Factor X
109
HDN also known as
Haemotolic neonatal destructive
Haemolysis neonatal isoimmune haemolysis
Neonatal isoimmune haemolysis
Haemotolic destructive neonatal
110
Which of the following is
not
one of the advantages of being anucleate?
Higher SA/V ratio
Less work for heart as a pump
Improves deformability
Improves bio-availability
111
RhoGAM ___ any foetal Rh+ cells before mother’s immune cells can find them & produce anti-Rh Ab
Stabilises
Creates
Protects
Destroys
112
IgM is associated with the
Secondary immune response
Primary immune response
Complementary immune response
Innate immune response
113
T cells continuously ________ via the blood and lymph through different lymph nodes
Evade
Circulate
Invade
Created
114
B cells primarily do what?
Neither 1 or 2
1. Attacks viruses, fungi, cancer cells & some bacteria
2. Destroys bacteria and their toxins
Both 1 and 2
115
In coagulation cascade both intrinsic/extrinsic pathways lead to the formation of ______?
Fibrinogen
Ca2+
Prothrombin
Thromboplastin
116
The ______ immune response can occur by either a T cell-independent or -dependent mechanism
Exogenous
Extracellular
Endogenous
Intracellular
117
Cytotoxic T lymphocytes also induce apoptosis on target cells through activating
Fas receptor
True
False
118
Bone marrow provides structural support for 1.___ as well as a microenvironment for 2.___
1. Haematopoiesis 2. Development
1. Homeostasis 2. Development
1. Haematopoiesis 2. Breakdown
1. Homeostasis 2. Breakdown
119
Anaphylaxis is characterised by
Widespread vasodialation
All of the answers
Peripheral circulatory failure and bronchonconstriction
Hives
120
Monocytes are precursors to macrophages and are
Smaller and more effective scavengers than neutrophils
Larger and more effective scavengers than neutrophils
Smaller and more effective scavengers than basophils
Larger and more effective scavengers than basophils
121
Haemoglobin is composed of 2 parts: 1.____ and 2.____
Haem (~14% iron and porphyrin) & Globin (~86% a protein)
Haem (~96% a protein) & Globin (~4% iron and porphyrin)
Haem (~86% a protein) & Globin (~14% iron and porphyrin)
Haem (~4% iron and porphyrin) & Globin (~96% a protein)
122
Natural killer cells are large cytotoxic lymphocytes containing
Cytoplasmic granules
Cytoplasmic agranules
Endoplasmic granules
Endoplasmic agranules
123
Antihistamines do what
increase action with respect to blood pressure
increase action with respect to breathing
block action with respect to breathing
block action with respect to blood pressure
124
Which of the following is
not
one of the sites of erythropoiesis in the foetus
Lymph nodes
Yolk sac
Liver
Pancreas
125
What phase is initiated when re-exposure to allergen occurs?
Activation phase
Resensitisation phase
Reactivation phase
Sensitisation phase
126
Megakaryocytes are what?
Platelets
Lymphocytes
Red blood cells
White blood cells
127
In blood clotting pathways, which is most true for
intrinsic
pathways?
is slower but results in a more effective clot
is shorter
is shorter and faster
is slower
128
The acquired immune response is primarily mediated by what?
Lymphocytes
Erythrocytes
Leucocytes
Cytokines
129
In vasoactive substances platelets release the contents from their granules which is reversible
True
False
130
Most vaccines are delivered
Oral route
All of the answers
Subcutaneous
Subcutaneous or intramuscular
131
Which of the following is
not
one of the causes of
reduced
Haematocrit (HCT)?
Massive or prolonged blood loss
Leukaemia
Anaemia
Polycythaemia
132
Cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTL) use viral _______ complexes to recognize infected host cells
Ag-MHC class II
Ag-MHC class I
Ag-MHC class III
Ag-MHC class IV
133
Which cytokine increases platelet production?
Thrombopoietin (TPO)
Colony stimulating factors (CSFs)
Erythropoietin (EPO)
Interleukins
134
NK cells bind to Fc stem and elicits a response, this non specific response is called
antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC)
antibody-cell-mediated dependent cytotoxicity (ACDC)
antibody-independent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (AICC)
antibody-cell-mediated independent cytotoxicity (ACIC)
135
Blood comprises approximately how much of body weight?
12-13%
7-8%
5-6%
10-11%
136
After 20 yrs, erythropoisis only occurs where?
Red bone marrow
Liver, spleen and lymph nodes
Membranous bones
Yellow bone marrow
137
Bacteria are cells capable of 1.____ while viruses 2.____ unless they are inside another cell
1. Self-replication 2. Can
1. Diffusion 2. Can
1. Diffusion 2. Cannot
1. Self-replication 2. Cannot
138
An allergy causes an inflammatory immune response to a
Pathogenic antibody
Pathogenic antigen
Nonpathogenic antibody
Nonpathogenic antigen
139
A cause of pernicious anaemia is?
Low dietary iron intake
Destruction of bone marrow
Toxic chemicals
Vitamin B12 deficiency
140
How much of the population are Rh+?
80%
20%
15%
85%
141
Which of the following statements about anticoagulant drug (warfarin) is true
Blocks formation of small blood clots and actions of Vit A
Creates formation of small blood clots and actions of Vit A
Blocks formation of small blood clots and actions of Vit K
Creates formation of small blood clots and actions of Vit K
142
Smallpox is caused by the
virus bariola
virus sariola
virus variola
virus tariola
143
T cells primarily do what?
1. Attacks viruses, fungi, cancer cells & some bacteria
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 or 2
2. Destroys bacteria and their toxins
144
Lymphocytes and monocytes are known as?
mononuclear cells
granulocytes
agranulocytes
Dinuclear cells
145
Which of the following is
not
a causative factor in thrombocytopaenia?
Radiation therapy
Decreased levels of EPO
Autoimmunity
Pharmaceutical drugs (Aspirin)
146
Anaemia can occur in patients suffering renal failure due to insufficient ____ production.
Interleukins
Thrombopoietin (TPO)
Colony stimulating factors (CSFs)
Erythropoietin (EPO)
147
B lymphocytes provide
Extracellular immunity
Exogenous immunity
Intracellular immunity
Endogenous immunity
148
Tissue repair begins early, isn't completed until all products have been neutralized/removed
True
False
149
Iron is removed from the haem molecule which in turn is converted to ______?
Haem
Rubin
Haemoglobin
Bilirubin
150
Which are the regulatory roles of blood?
Body temperature, pH, Fluid volume and osmotic pressure
Body fluidity, pH, waste volume and interstitial pressure
Body temperature, pH, waste volume and interstial pressure
Body fluidity, pH, Fluid volume and osmotic pressure
151
The HIV virus binds to ______ on helper T cells
CD4 protein
CD4 B cell
CD2 protein
CD2 B cell
152
In aggregation platelets swell and adhere to ____ in the surrounding connective tissue
Calcium
Protein
Collagen
Cell wall
153
If antigens binds to Antibodies this stimulates B cells to become a 1._____ or a 2._____
1. White blood cell 2. Red blood cell
1. Plasma cell 2. Memory cell
1. Red blood cell 2. White blood cell
1. Memory cell 2. Plasma cell
154
Which Cytokine increases the number of platelet precursors?
Thrombopoietin (TPO)
Interleukins
Erythropoietin (EPO)
Colony stimulating factors (CSFs)
155
_______ is also present on
erythrocytes
D antigen
Rhesus antigen
D antibody
Rhesus antibody
156
Effector cells
Create an immune response and are long-lived
Are longer lived and reproduce themselves
Create an immune response and are short-lived
Are short lived and reproduce themselves
157
Within antibody structure, both light chains and both heavy chains are?
The same
Identical
Obtuse
Different
158
What is the first step in cell-mediated response?
release of antibodies to lymph node(s)
transfer of antigens to lymph node(s)
release of antigens from lymph node(s)
transfer of antibodies to lymph node(s)
159
Plasma contains isoantibodies or ______? to the A or B antigens not found in your blood
Agglutinins
Antibodies
Glutinins
Antigens
160
Physical symptoms of Hyperbilirubinaemia are?
Jaundice
Low RBC count
High Haemacrit
High RBC count
161
In erythropoiesis normoblasts are converted to _____?
Granulocytes
Agranulocytes
Reticulocytes
Areticulocytes
162
What is the arrow pointing to from (<Blank>)
Basophil
Platelet
Lymphocyte
Erythrocyte
163
MHC Class II molecules present 1.______ which has been 2.______ and processed eg bacteria
1. Exogenous antigen 2. Hydrolised
1. Endogenous antigen 2. Phagocytosed
1. Endogenous antigen 2. Hydrolised
1. Exogenous antigen 2. Phagocytosed
164
In acquired immune respone each lymphocyte only has a ____ antigen target and is called a clone
Double
Single
Triple
Quadruple
165
1_____ and long term use of antibiotics reduces 2_____ production by bacteria in the gut
1. Kidney disease 2. Vitamin K
1. Kidney disease 2. Vitamin D
1. Liver disease 2. Vitamin D
1. Liver disease 2. Vitamin K
166
Leucocytes are formed where?
Spleen and lymphatic tissues from stem cells
Spleen and liver from stem cells
Bone marrow and liver from stem cells
Bone marrow and lymphatic tissues from stem cells
167
The main function of Albumin is to
Important for haemostasis
Immunoglobulins mostly made by leucocytes
Iron transport
Assists osmotic pressure/carriers water-insoluble molecules
168
Inside the cell the pathogen is encapsulated in a
Hagosome
Lymphosome
Bactosome
Phagosome
169
Which cells are responsible for immune surveillance?
Natural Killer cells
Cytotoxic cells
Dendritic Cells
Phagocytes
170
When there is a lack of immune response the classified types are?
Secondary and Genetic
Primary and Acquired
Secondary and Acquired
Primary and Secondary
171
Which of the following is
not
one of the disadvantages of being anucleate?
RBC lack mitochondria & survive on anaerobic metabolism
No protein synthesis or repair
Not all species have anucleate erythrocytes
Produced more metabolic wastes
172
In soluble immune factors, the
complement
factor does what?
Immediately attempt to coat and destroy the organisms
Either destroy or suppress the pathogen by ingesting it
All of the answers
More molecules are released to recruit more immune cells
173
What are the correct normal reference ranges for Haematocrit (HCT) in males and females?
males 37-47%, females 40-54%
males 50-60%, females 40-50%
males 40-50%, females 50-60%
males 40-54%, females 37-47%
174
In blood clotting pathways, which is most true for
extrinsic
pathways?
is slower
is slower but results in a more effective clot
is shorter and faster
is shorter
175
In coagulation most are synthesized in the ____ & circulate in an inactive form until activated
Kidney
Lungs
Heart
Liver
176
In antigen presenting cells B cells express
MHC class II and produce insoluble Ab
MHC class I and produce soluble Ab
MHC class II and produce soluble Ab
MHC class I and produce insoluble Ab
177
Memory cells
Are short lived and reproduce themselves
Create an immune response and are short-lived
Create an immune response and are long-lived
Are longer lived and reproduce themselves
178
IgA is found where
Internal secretions
Endocrine secretions
Endogenous secretions
External secretions
179
Main anticoagulants produced in the body are?
Heparin, Antithrombin I, Protein X
Plasmin, Antithrombin III, Protein C
Heparin, Antithrombin III, Protein C
Plasmin, Antithrombin I, Protein X
180
Iron (Fe) is transported around in the blood attached to the protein _____?
Transferrin
Transerythroferritin
Ferritin
Erythroferritin
181
__? caused by roughened vess, imbalanced CF & release of tPA from big amounts of injured tissue
Antithromemboli
Plasminemboli
Thromboemboli
Fibrinemboli
182
Erythrocytes (RBC) are biconcaved shaped 1.____ cells and their main protein is 2.____
1. anucleate 2. immunoglobulin
1. nucleate 2. immunoglobulin
1. nucleate 2. haemoglobin
1. anucleate 2. haemoglobin
183
An unwanted blood clot is called a
Plasminbus
Thrombus
Fibrinobus
Embolus
184
Which of the following are the 2 types of cytokines that increase the number of WBC precursors?
Colony stimulating factors (CSFs) and Interleukins
Colony stimulating factors (CSFs) and Thrombopoietin
Thrombopoietin (TPO) and Interleukins
Erythropoietin (EPO) and Interleukins
185
Thrombopoietin (TPO) is produced where?
Splenocyte in the spleen
Hypothalamus
Hepatocytes in the liver
Osteocytes in the bone marrow
186
In soluble immune factors, the
chemotaxins
factor does what?
More molecules are released to recruit more immune cells
Immediately attempt to coat and destroy the organisms
All of the answers
Either destroy or suppress the pathogen by ingesting it
187
What is the arrow pointing to from (<Blank>)
Platelet
Erythrocyte
Lymphocyte
Basophil
188
In soluble immune factors, the
phagocytes
factor does what?
Immediately attempt to coat and destroy the organisms
More molecules are released to recruit more immune cells
Either destroy or suppress the pathogen by ingesting it
All of the answers
189
Anaemias are defined as having
↑Haemoglobin, ↑Red cell count, ↑Haematocrit
↓Haemoglobin, ↓Red cell count, ↓Haematocrit
↓Haemoglobin, ↓Red cell count, ↑Haematocrit
↑Haemoglobin, ↑Red cell count, ↓Haematocrit
190
Polycythaemia is due to the?
Overproduction of Leukocytes by increased secretion of TPO
Overproduction of Leukocytes by increased secretion of EPO
Overproduction of erythrocytes by increased secretion of TPO
Overproduction of erythrocytes by increased secretion of EPO
191
Active bone marrow is red because of 1.___, Inactive bone marrow is yellow due to 2.___
1. Haem Iron 2. Cholesterol
1. Haemoglobin 2. Adipocytes
1. Cholesterol 2. Haem Iron
1. Adipocytes 2. Haemoglobin
192
Vaccines are 1._____ (thus immunogenic) but they are not 2._____
1. Antibiotic 2. Antigenic
1. Antigenic 2. Antibiotic
1. Antibiotic 2. Pathogenic
1. Antigenic 2. Pathogenic
193
Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) is considered
an RNA retrovirus
a DNA retrovirus
an RNA rotovirus
a DNA rotovirus
194
The main T cell groups are
Cytoplasmic T cells & killer T cells
Cytotoxic T cells & helper T cells
Cytotoxic T cells & killer T cells
Cytoplasmic T cells & helper T cells
195
The study of haemostasis is the human body's response to blood vessel injury and bleeding
True
False
196
Bacteria do not possess a cell wall
True
False
197
Factor X is crucial for blood clotting, along with factor X the enzyme _____ is formed
Thrombin
Prothrombinase
Thromboplastin
Fibrinogen
198
Blood helps distribute?
O2,Nutrients to cells & Metabolic waste to elimination sites
CO2,nutrient to cells & Metabolic waste to elimination sites
CO2,nutrients to cells & Anabolic waste to elimination sites
O2,nutrients to cells & Anabolic waste to elimination sites
199
In transfusion Antibodies bind to antigen, causing cells to clump together and?
Coagulate
Haemolyse
Gluntinate
Agglutinate
200
Which of the statements about interleukins is true?
Reduce cytokine and endocrine secretion
Stimulate blood vessels contraction to reduce blood flow
Stimulate acute phase protein synthesis
Reduce fever
201
___? allergy response mediated by helper T cells & macrophages & takes hours to days to develop
A staggered
An immediate
A delayed
A timed
202
Platelets (thrombocytes) are made in bone marrow as fragments of?
Erythrocytes
Megakaryocytes
Leucocytes
Lymphocytes
203
The 2 major mechanisms which limit clotting within a blood vessel are?
Inhibition of plasma adhesion & coagulation cascade
Inhibition of plasma adhesion & fibrin cascade
Inhibition of platelet adhesion & coagulation cascade
Inhibition of platelet adhesion & fibrin cascade
204
The primary type of Polycythaemia is?
Caused by a tumour-like condition of the pituitary gland
EPO-mediated ↑ in erythrocyte due to prolonged ↓ O2 levels
Caused by a tumour-like condition of the bone marrow
TPO-mediated ↑ in erythrocyte due to prolonged ↓ O2 levels
205
In antigen presenting cells Dendritic cells express both
MHC class I and II
MHC class I
MHC class II
MHC class I, II, III and IV
206
All cells originate from a single precursor cell _____?
Unipotent Haematopoietic Stem Cell (UHSC)
Pluripotent Haematopoietic Stem Cell (PHSC)
Multipotent Haematopoietic Stem Cell (MHSC)
Omnipotent Haematopoietic Stem Cell (OHSC)
207
Basophils are mainly involved in what?
Ingesting and destroying invaders
Recognise pathogens and activating immune cells
Allergic response and parasitic disease
Inflammation and allergic responses
208
Erythrocytes contain glycolytic enzymes and carbonic anhydrase
True
False
209
The Allergen and IgE attach to _________ which sensitises these cells to this allergen
Mast cells
B cells
T cells
Cytotoxic T cells
210
T cell receptor Consists of _______ glycopolypeptide chains
Heterodimeric
Heteroquadmeric
Heteromimeric
Heterotrimeric
211
Pluripotent Haematopoietic Stem Cell give rise to two committed progenitor cells, these are?
Basoloid lineage and Lymphoid lineage
Basoloid lineage and Monophoid lineage
Myeloid lineage and Lymphoid lineage
Myeloid lineage and Monophoid lineage
212
What are some microbes covered with that makes them "invisible" to phagocyte receptors?
3. Polysaccharides
2. Disaccharides
Both 1. and 2.
1. Monosaccharides
213
1.______ stimulates erythropoiesis, while 2.______ inhibits the process
1. Erythrocytes 2. Leucocytes
1. Estrogen 2. Testosterone
1. Leucocytes 2. Erythrocytes
1. Testosterone 2. Estrogen
214
Components of bacterial wall activates the what system
Innate immunity
Secondary system
Complement system
Primary system
215
Which 2 components of blood that are apart of the immune system prevent infection?
Antibodies and leucocytes
Karyocytes and leucocytes
Antibodies and Erythrocytes
Karyocyte and Erythrocytes
216
Autoimmunity results from a breakdown of tolerance, and results in the production of
autoantibodies and/or autoreactive B cells
autoantigens and/or under reactive T cells
autoantibodies and/or autoreactive T cells
autoantigens and/or under reactive B cells
217
IgD is also found on surface of
T cells
E cells
D cells
B cells
218
First vaccination takes place in North America in what year?
1853
1977
1980
1800
219
what is the main defence against intracellular viruses?
Cytotoxic B lymphocytes
Cytotoxic B monocytes
Cytotoxic T lymphocytes
Cytotoxic T monocytes
220
Any substance which stimulates an immune response is a/an?
Immunogen
White blood cells response
Bone marrow response
Antigen
221
When the same antigen is encountered, the secondary immune response is _________
Weaker and slower
Weaker and more rapid
Stronger
Stronger and more rapid
222
______ grow around the pathogen & it is internalised into a phagosome where it is broken down
Plasminopodia
Aggropodia
Neutropodia
Pseudopodia
223
In acquired immune response, each cell contains ___? which bind to different ligands (antigens)
Different receptors
Multiple receptors
2 receptors
3 receptors
224
Haemophilia A is a loss of clotting
Factor VI
Factor V
Factor VII
Factor VIII
225
Regulatory T cells (Treg) have to be presented with Ag to become activated
False
True
226
What is the process called when healing takes place and unnecessary clots are removed?
Collagenlysis
Thromboplastlysis
Fibrinolysis
Prothromlysis
227
Which of the following pharmaceuticals prevent blood clot formation
Aspirin
Warfarin
None of the answers
Heparin
228
In antigen presenting cells macrophages express both
MHC class II with CD4
MHC class I and II with CD8
MHC class I, II, III and IV WIth CD8
MHC class I With CD4
229
An overactive immune response can cause what in the body
Autoimmune disease
Viral infection
Allergies
Bacterial infection
230
Blood clotting is the formation of a fibrin clot and is called
Secondary haemostasis
Fribrogenisis
Tertiary haemostatsis
Primary haemostasis
231
A patient with blood type B+ can receive blood from B+, B-, O+, O- donors
True
False
232
In blood centrifugation which components sit on the top and bottom?
Plasma on top, Formed elements bottom
Formed elements on top, Plasma bottom
Leucocytes on top, Erythrocytes bottom
Erythrocytes on top, Leucocytes bottom
233
In the sensitisation phase the production of IgE by B cells is?
T cell dependent and requires IL-3
B cell dependent and requires IL-4
T cell dependent and requires IL-4
B cell dependent and requires IL-3
234
The antibody structure are chains linked by Monosulfide bonds?
True
False
235
T cells are formed in the bone marrow but mature where?
Thyroid
Spleen
Thymus
Red bone marrow
236
A piece of a thrombus or any other traveling piece of debris in a blood vessel is called a/an?
Fibrinobus
Embolus
Thrombi
Plasminbus
237
At site of infection which cells will be activated if they encounter antigens they recognise?
Lymphocytes
Monocytes
B cells
T cells
238
A deficiency of clotting factor VIII or IX is due to what
Hebephilia
Canophilia
Haemophilia
Belonephilia
239
In leucocyte migration, ____________ emigrate from blood vessels to injury site
Neutrophils and monocytes
Neutrophils and lymphocytes
Basophils and monocytes
Basophils and lymphocytes
240
Erythrocyte formation is called erythropoiesis?
False
True
241
Which "other elements" are
not
in plasma?
ions and gases
Electrolytes and enzymes
Trace elements
Organic molecules
242
Once the clot has formed what causes the clot to retract
Blood vessels contract
Fibrin contract
Platelets contract
Collagen contract
243
Blood consists of 2 main parts these are?
Erythrocytes (~50%), Platelets(~50%)
Erythrocytes (~55%), Platelets(~45%)
Plasma(~55%), Formed elements(~45%)
Plasma(~50%), Formed elements(~50%)