which side effect should you educate your patient taking metoclopramide, a prokinetic agent, to report to their PCP?

involuntary mvmts, tremors, twitches

you are assessing a patient for a common sign of GI/gastric cancer so you look for the sister mary joseph's nodule by:

by palpating for a nodule around the umbilicus

we know that GERD pts can take H2 receptor blockers, prokinetic agents, and antacids. What other two meds are used?

proton pump inhibitors, pantoprazole and omeprazole, surface agent barriers, sucralfate

if a patient is undergoing surgery for their oral cancer, what is a top RN priority?

assess the pts ability to communicate

Which procedures/dx require the pt to be NPO? SATA

Upper GI Study (UGIS) and lower GI Study, abdominal US, MRI of abdomen, EGD

when would you increase the fiber in a pt with diverticulosis/itis?

when they have diverticulosis to prevent diverticulitis

you know your patient has asterixis when they:

the involuntarily flap their hands

which two drugs have protective properties for the kidney?

acetylcysteine, IV sodium bicarbonate

which describes the diuretic phase

leads to dehydration, hypotension, and electrolyte disturbances

your pt is about to undergo a renal biopsy this morning but you suggest it be rescheduled bc:

they ate breakfast this morning

triple therapy for H. pylori consists of: SATA

clarithromycin or metronidazole, amoxicillin, PPI

an appropriate nursing dx for a pt with chronic pancreatitis would be:

inadequate nutrition as evidenced by weight loss and steatorrhea

when reviewing the med sulfasalazine for IBD, your patient needs further teaching when they say:

this med is ok to take with my sulfa allergy

which description correctly identifies GERD?

backflow of gastric contents into the esophagus leading to mucosal injury

risk factors of PUD include: SATA

H. pylori, pts with blood type O, NSAIDs, stress and anxiety

you notice something that makes you question if a nurse needs further education for their AVF pt when:

they keep the automated BP cuff on the same arm as their AVF

which dx test can be both diagnostic and therapeutic?

endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography

you are educating your patient who is taking ursodeoxycholic acid, or chenodeoxycholic acid by telling them:

you will need to take this for 6-12 months

your patient w/ chronic pancreatitis starts experiencing tetany, you expected this and had these readily available: SATA

calcium gluconate, calcium chloride

from table 58.2, which med is correctly matched with its action:

dicyclomide - relax smooth muscle and inhibit gastric secretion

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GI dx, gastric, duodenal, intestine/rectal, oral, renal/nephro, pancreatic, hepatic

89 termsStudBud Administration37 plays

basically all of GI, liver, kidney, pancreas

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Questions 89

Answers

1
which type fo gastritis is classified as "nonerosive" type?
H. pylori infection
radiation therapy
NSAID use
alcohol use
2
which part of the liver function test is specific to the liver?
ALT
AST
GGT
the entire LFT
3
which describes gastric ulcers (hint: the others describe duodenal ulcers)
pain 1.5-3 hrs after meal
pain is exascerbated by food
pain relieved by food
occurs at night
4
which side effect should you educate your patient taking metoclopramide, a prokinetic agent, to report to their PCP?
urinary retention
involuntary mvmts, tremors, twitches
frequent upset stomach
tachycardia
5
Rovsing sign is when you palpate the LLQ and feel pain in RLQ
False
True
6
you are assessing a patient for a common sign of GI/gastric cancer so you look for the sister mary joseph's nodule by:
ask if they have had a hx of PUD
by palpating in the LLQ for a mass
have the patient cough without splinting
by palpating for a nodule around the umbilicus
7
which electrolyte imbalance is associated with esophageal cancer with paraneoplastic symptoms?
hypocalcemia
hypokalemia
hyperkalemia
hypercalcemia
8
these types of hepatitis share the mode of transmission of contaminated food, fecal/oral:
hep C
hep E
hep B
hep A
9
we know that GERD pts can take H2 receptor blockers, prokinetic agents, and antacids. What other two meds are used?
baby aspirin
proton pump inhibitors, pantoprazole and omeprazole
surface agent barriers, sucralfate
CCBs
10
A pt comes back from oral cancer surgery and is under your care, how do you maintain a patent airway?
suction secretions PRN
put an Oral pharyngeal airway in them for 24 hours
no suctioning allowed
titrate O2 to 100
11
which dx procedure is used frequently for cancer screening and surveillance?
abdominal US
stool culture
EGD
fiberoptic colonoscopy
12
if a patient is undergoing surgery for their oral cancer, what is a top RN priority?
assess the pts ability to communicate
ensure their dog is being watched by a neighbor
have a dietary consult
discuss their upcoming discharge
13
during an EGD which medication can be used to reduce secretions?
atropine
glucagon
epinephrine
chewing gum, sugarless
14
murphy's sign is when pt takes a deep breath, holds it, and you palpate the right subcostal area they complain of pain
True
False
15
When collecting stool to test for c. diff how should the stool appear?
watery
formed
16
Which procedures/dx require the pt to be NPO? SATA
Upper GI Study (UGIS) and lower GI Study
abdominal US
MRI of abdomen
EGD
17
when would you increase the fiber in a pt with diverticulosis/itis?
when they have diverticulosis to prevent diverticulitis
at any time since fiber can be beneficial
during acute phase of diverticulitis
18
you know your patient has asterixis when they:
they're a pisces
the involuntarily flap their hands
they have the breath of the dead
are not able to produce a figure in 2D-3D
19
which two drugs have protective properties for the kidney?
acetylcysteine
metformin
NSAIDs
IV sodium bicarbonate
20
which of the following can lower ammonia? SATA
high protein diet
abx
IV glucose
lactulose
21
which describes the diuretic phase
decreased urine output, waste product accumulates
glomerular function has returned to normal
pt is asymptomatic, nephrons compensating
leads to dehydration, hypotension, and electrolyte disturbances
22
you will still need diuretic or dialysis post transplant until kidney is functioning
False
True
23
your pt is about to undergo a renal biopsy this morning but you suggest it be rescheduled bc:
they have an advanced directive
they have not taken their daily warfarin
they ate breakfast this morning
the dr needs to evaluate them for kidney disease
24
triple therapy for H. pylori consists of: SATA
clarithromycin or metronidazole
tetracycline
amoxicillin
PPI
25
when a pt is experiencing symptoms of GERD, which condition does it mimic?
upset stomach
heart attack
the flu
upper resp. infection
26
an appropriate nursing dx for a pt with chronic pancreatitis would be:
readiness for enhanced knowledge as evidenced by patient willingness
the nursing dx is chronic pancreatitis
inadequate gas exchange as evidenced by low o2 sat
inadequate nutrition as evidenced by weight loss and steatorrhea
27
cholecystitis leads to pain in:
LLQ
RUQ
RLQ
LUQ
28
pt with appendicitis will show pain in which area?
RLQ
LUQ
RUQ
LLQ
29
when reviewing the med sulfasalazine for IBD, your patient needs further teaching when they say:
i will notify my provider if i have a sore throat rash bruise or fever
my soft contact lenses may stain with this med
I will wear protective clothing and avoid too much sun exposure
this med is ok to take with my sulfa allergy
30
which description correctly identifies GERD?
frequent hx of oral and throat surgery
squamous cell carcinoma of the mouth
part of stomach protrudes upward through esophageal hiatus
backflow of gastric contents into the esophagus leading to mucosal injury
31
you instruct your patient taking PERT (pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy) to take the med:
every 12 hours
right before you eat
an hour after eating
at HS
32
risk factors of PUD include: SATA
H. pylori
pts with blood type O
NSAIDs
stress and anxiety
33
peritonitis can become an emergency because it can lead to this complication:
ascites
co2 narcosis
septic shock
PNA
34
pt will undergo a barium study as well as an abdominal US. which order should they receive these?
US then barium
barium then US
35
you notice something that makes you question if a nurse needs further education for their AVF pt when:
they give the pt an injection in their unaffected arm
they keep the automated BP cuff on the same arm as their AVF
they ausculate for bruit
the palpate for thrill
36
which description is ulcerative colitis (hint: the other are chron's)
affects all layers of bowel wall
in a barium study, it will show a "string sign" of the terminal ileum
limited to the colon
cobblestone appearance of affected bowel
37
you are managing care for a pt who had esophageal cancer. while assessing, you notice their NGT is further out. you:
you remove it entirely and start a new one
you continue their tube feeds bc they are chronically malnourished
you call the surgeon
resinsert the NGT back to its normal and obtain an Xray to confirm
38
which dx test can be both diagnostic and therapeutic?
endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography
mangetic resonance cholangiopancreatography
39
which one of the following IS NOT a clinical manifestation of colorectal cancer from pg. 1356?
blood in stool
anemia symptoms
steatorrhea
weight loss and fatigue
40
ADH works primarily in the loop of henle
True
False
41
pts doing a UGIS should not chew gum or smoke during NPO since it can inc gastric secretions and salivation.
True
False
42
what is collected and measured in a urea breath test for H. pylori?
oxygen
carbon
carbon dioxide
nitrogen
43
when educating your patient taking antacids to manage GERD, you tell them to take them at these 2 times:
1-3 hrs after a meal
when taking their other am medications
at HS
during a meal
44
1 kg of weight gain is = __ L (important for ascites)
20
15
1
5
45
Rebound tenderness is also known as Blumberg sign when there is pain upon removal of pressure
True
False
46
while adenocarcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma share alcohol and tobacco use, this risk factor is for adenocarcinoma:
GERD
chronic ingestion of hot liquids
47
cullen sign is ecchymosis around umbilicus and grey turner sign is ecchymosis around flank area
True
False
48
you are educating your patient who is taking ursodeoxycholic acid, or chenodeoxycholic acid by telling them:
you will need to take this for 6-12 months
this medication allows the gallstone to pass by adding water to it
this is a preop medication for open colecystectomy patients
you need to take this medication only once for it to be effective
49
your patient w/ chronic pancreatitis starts experiencing tetany, you expected this and had these readily available: SATA
banana bag
calcium gluconate
mg sulfate
calcium chloride
50
from table 58.2, which med is correctly matched with its action:
SSRIs: inc fluid secretion
dicyclomide - relax smooth muscle and inhibit gastric secretion
loperamide (Imodium) - quickens bowel transit
tricyclic antidepressants - inc peristalsis
51
why is ammonia a major cause for hepatic encaphalopathy/coma
bc it can excite the CNS
sorry im running out of answers lol
it is a weak base that can cause damage
it can pass the BBB
52
billroth 2 is more radical than billroth 1 because it also removes part of the jejunum in addition to the duodenum.
True
False
53
since GERD pts can aspirate on gastric secretions they produce, which complications can this lead to? SATA
upper resp. infections
aspiration PNA
lung cancer
asthma exacerbation
54
your pt is going to undergo a CT with contrast. their home med list includes metformin. how do you proceed?
call the provider to have them discontinue the medication forever
have them take it right after the CT
have the pt hold the med 48 hrs before and/or 48 hrs after
have them take it right before the CT
55
diverticula can be described as:
cobblestone appearance of bowel
sac like herniation of lining of bowel
abdominal pain with D/C/or both
inflammation of diverticulum
56
your patient just had a liver biopsy, how should you position them?
prone
supine
right side lying
high fowlers
57
this patient could be eligible to be a kidney donor
pt who was recently in recovery for cocaine abuse
patient with PNA
pt with a BMI of 40
pt with no hx of renal disease
58
which type of pt would be a good candidate for hep A vaccine SATA
healthcare workers
pts who engage in risky behaviors
people who do not travel
newborns
59
which diuretic is the first line for a patient with ascites due to cirrhosis?
loop diuretics in general
thiazide like
furosemide
spironolactone
60
you are an amazing nurse bc you reduce complications in laparascopic cholecystectomy pts by:
you have them ambulate frequently
you allow them an extra visitor for moral support
having them maintain strict bed rest
you help them meditate pre and post procedure
61
which level of peritonitis is correct?
tertiary - due to supra infection of immunocompromised individual
secondary - spontaneous bacterial peritonitis
primary - due to perforation of abdominal organs
62
you are the charge RN for the med surg floor. you correct an RN who is caring for a peritonitis pt when they:
apply a heat pad to the abdomen
administer an analgesic for pain
replace their fluids and electrolytes via IV
give the patient their antibiotics
63
cholelithiasis comes in three types: SATA
cholesterol stones
mixed stones
oxalate stones
pigment stones
64
with a hartmann procedure, how long will the patint have a colostomy?
for one week post discharge
for about 3 months when healed
for up to 3 years
lifelong
65
your patient receiving peritoneal dialysis is experiencing abdominal pain, you do this intervention to prevent this:
call a rapid response
report this in their chart for the future
warm the dialysate
take a serum glucose
66
which of the following is not a cause or predisposition for hiatial hernias?
gender
congenital
weight lifting
obesity
67
which food is not helpful for a patient with dumping syndrome?
small frequent meals
low carbs
low sugar
drinking water with meals
68
an adult GFR that indicates ESRD is:
>90
<60
60-89
<15
69
these hepatitis types share mode of transmission of blood and sexual transmission:
hep C
hep G
hep D
hep B
70
when can a pt postop esophageal cancer surgery eat?
when xray shows anastamosis is free from leak, obstruction, aspiration
when they feel hungry and have an appetite
when they have their gag reflex intact
they don't need to since they will have a permanent NGT
71
which is not one of the 5/6F's (that risk factor for gallstones)?
women over 40
premenopausal women
higher BMI
frequent urination
72
which of the following are associated with GERD? SATA
alcohol use
coffee consumption
tobacco use
H. pylori gastric infections
73
barrett's esophagus is described as:
the esophagus of a dude named Barrett
backflow fo gastric contents
a normal complication of GERD
damage to the esophagus due to repeated exposure to acid reflux content
74
which 2 patients are not eligible for a lower GI tract study since it would be contraindicated?
liver failure pts
alcohol use pts
pt who is pregnant
pt with active inflammatory disease
75
which food would be appropriate for a pt with oral lesions?
cut ripe bananas
steak and potatoes
homemade spicy noodles and broth
celery sticks and peanut butter
76
during an EGD which medication can be used to relax smooth muscles?
morphine
glucagon
epinephrine
lidocaine
77
acalculous cholecystitis, where there is an absence of obstruction/stone is associated with biliary stasis.
False
True
78
which describes stage 3 of hepatic encephalopathy?
inc drowsy and disorientation, agitation, fetor hepaticus, asterixis
slurred speech, tremors, lethargy, euphoria
severe confusion, diffic. to awaken, rigid extremities, inc DTR, asterixis
coma, nonresponsive to painful stimulus
79
how does a LNF, or Laparoscopic Nissen fundoplication work?
a small incision to cut the hernia out
pushes the hiatial hernia back in
an explatory surgery to dx a hiatial hernia?
wraps part of the stomach around esophagus
80
your patient receiving dialysis starts to have N/V, agitation, and seizures. this could be d/t which complication?
dialysis-associated dementia
clotting/infection
hypotension
disequilibrium syndrome
81
which of the following is an intrarenal condition that could cause AKI?
low blood pressure or low blood volume
ureter obstruction
heart dysfunction
hemolytic uremic syndrome
82
Which position promotes gastric emptying for a patient with a hiatial hernia?
left sims
prone
supine on right side
trendelenburg
83
ocreotide acetate can be used for which 2 conditions?
G.I. bleed
IBD
Ulcerative Colitis
dumping syndrome
84
these at admission labs/info are part of ransom's criteria for pancreatitis dx (table 60.2 pg. 1399) SATA
AST>250 IU/L
age > 55yrs
WBC> 16 *10^3/mm3
LDH>350 IU/L, and glucose >200 mg/dL
85
which of the following is an H2 receptor blocker? (Use these with caution with pts with kidney disease)
famotidine
metoclopramide
sucralfate
pantaprozale
86
your pt's previous 24hr collection shows 500 mL of urine, how much fluid can you give them?
500 mL
2000 mL
1000mL
0 mL
87
What is the diet for a pt who will undergo a gall bladder test?
NPO 12 hrs
clear liquid
fat free meal evening before test
NPO 8 hrs
88
for a patient with a total gastrectomy you educate them that:
they need to follow up with their PCP for routine labs every month
they will need a vitamin B12 injection for their life
they will need an NGT for nutrition life long
they will need prophylactic abx for procedures
89
why is the WHO 3 step ladder important in non-surgical patients of chronic pancreatitis?
it shows them the complications of not receiving surgery as it progresses
it introduces pts to new music by the WHO
it shows patients the importance of different healthcare team members
it focuses on proper pain med use for pts with chronic pain

GI dx, gastric, duodenal, intestine/rectal, oral, renal/nephro, pancreatic, hepatic Flashcards | StudBud