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Clinical Skills Exam One Flashcards | StudBud
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Clinical Skills Exam One
Clinical Skills Exam One
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1
On the day of surgery, patients with hypothyroidism are ask to:
Take medicine at midnight the day prior
Take medicines as usual
Avoid taking medicines the day of surgery
See endocrinologist
2
Which is best at killing bacteria?
Antimicrobial soap
Plain soap
Water
Alcohol-based handrub
3
What needle should be used to friable tissues?
Taper-point
Blunt
Cutting
Reverse cutting
4
Which of the following occurs when a patient is treated without consent?
Affirmative duty
Maleficence
Negligence
Medical battery
5
Which is the correct approach to surgery in a patient with chronic Hep C?
Perioperative fluid managment
Surgery is generally considered safe in this context; proceed
Postpost elective surgery until liver function has normalized
Treat with lactulose
6
Which is not one of the 3 S'S for Jackson-Pratt drain removal?
Superimpose dressing
Suction discontinuation
Stitch removal
Slow, steady pull
7
If exposure occurs, the Hep B vaccine should be provided to exposed employees in what time period?
14 days
10 days
3 days
24 days
8
Which wound would benefit the most from tertiary healing?
A diabetic foot ulcer
A small cut on the face from 5 hours ago
A dirty cut from a soccer cleat
A clean wound made during surgery
9
When did surgery become "clean and white"?
21st century
20th century
16th century
18th century
10
Which of the following provides forced warm air?
Head coverings
Socks
Bair warmer
Blanket
11
Which of the following bloodborne pathogens is known as the silent infection?
Hep A
Hep B
Hep C
HIV
12
Who furthered our knowledge of human anatomy?
Daniel Williams and Andreas Vesalius
Andreas Vesalius and John Hunter
John Hunter and Joseph Lister
Joseph Lister and Daniel Williams
13
Which of the following types of consent is used in emergency procedures?
Implied
Written
Special
General
14
In which location would sutures be left in the longest?
Ear
Fingertip
Scalp
Arm
15
What is the ASA classification that describes a patient with an incapacitating disease that is a constant threat?
III
I
V
IV
16
What is the recommended ABX prophylaxis for a ganglion excision in the foot?
Cephazolin
Clindamycin plus gentamycin
Vancomycin
None of the above
17
Complete informed consent involves an explanation all of the following except:
Risks
Physician qualifications
Alternatives
Procedure
18
What is the most common cause of a post-surgical fever?
Antibiotics
Atelectasis
Infection
DVT
19
Who discovered hemostasis?
Daniel Hale Williams
Joseph Lister
John Hunter
Ambroise Pare
20
The administration of anestethia can be nearly painless with the use of:
A 40-43 guage nedle
A 10-12 gauge needle
A 1-3 guage needle
A 27-30 gauge needle
21
Which of the following diseases does not have a vaccination?
Meningitis
Hep C
Hep B
Influenza
22
Which of the following was not a fundamental development of surgical advancement?
Hemostasis
Anesthesia
Advanced suturing techniques
Knowledge of human anatomy
23
If epinephrine is added to a local dose of lidocaine, the duration of action will be about:
120 minutes
40 minutes
20 minutes
140 minutes
24
What nerve is most commonly damaged during surgery?
Vagus nerve
Brachail plexus
Ulnar nerve
Phrenic nerve
25
Parotitis is typically seen in:
Patients with DM
Patients with HTN
Patients with CAD
Patients with hypothyroidism
26
Which of the following healthcare workers is responsible for nonsterile tasks during surgery?
Holding nurse
CRNA
Scrub tech
Circulating nurse
27
Disclosure that is tailored to specific needs of the patient is referred to as:
Reasonable person
Informed consent
Subjective standard
Therapeutic priviledge
28
What position decreases lung volumes?
Prone
LLD
Supine
Reverse Trendelenberg
29
The HIPAA security rule added protection of what kind of information?
PHI
Minimum information
Demographic information
Electronic health information
30
Which of the following is a nonabsorbable suture?
Dexon
Vicryl
Cotton
Catgut
31
When should most antibiotics be administered for prophylactic purposes?
At midnight the day before
1 hour prior
24 hours afterwards
8 hours before
32
Estrogen should be discontinued how long before surgery?
2 weeks
4 weeks
2 months
7-10 days
33
What is an independent risk factor for cardiac complications?
Pre-op creatinine >2
Post-op albumin <1
Smoking
Obesity
34
Which of the following is defined as the time from hospitalization to discharge of a surgical patient?
Preoperative period
Intraoperative period
Perioperative period
Postoperative period
35
Which of the following is a risk factor for pulmonary complications during surgery?
Weight loss
Younger age
High albumin
Independent functional status
36
Which of the following parts of HIPAA included health care business associates as covered entities?
Minimum Necessary rule
Security rule
The HITECH Act
Ombius final rule
37
Vascular integrity is restored during what phase of wound healing?
Remodeling phase
Inflammatory phase
Proliferative phase
Maturation phase
38
How many throws are in fourteen square knots?
16
28
14
24
39
What does HIPAA stand for?
Health Information Privary and Accountability Act
Health Information Portability and Accountability Act
Health Insurance Privacy and Accountability Act
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
40
What is the most common complication of anesthesia?
Systemic complications
Cardiac dysrhythmias
Syncope
Bruising
41
What is the most common cause of intraoperative instability?
PE
Malignant hyperthermia
Pneumothorax
MI
42
What is one of the reasons that patients undergoing surgery are often hypothermic?
Patients are usually sick during the operation
Patients undergoing operations have less blood
It is required that the OR be 50F or lower
Anesthesia effects thermoregulation
43
All of the following are potential ADRs of epinephrine except:
Cardiac arrest
Increased BP
Anxiety
Pneumothorax
44
Which of the following is an ester anesthetic?
Marcaine
Lidocaine
Prilocaine
Tetracaine
45
What is a disadvantage for using staples to close a wound?
High tissue reactivity
Expensive
Slow application
Can interfere with imaging
46
Which part of the gown is sterile
Shoulders
Axilla
Cuffs of sleeves
Chest
47
Which of the following is a semi-restricted area?
Sterile core
OR hallway
OR locker room
Post-op areas
48
Which of the following terms refers to the inherent capability of suture to return to/maintain its original shape?
Tensile strength
Elasticity
Tissue reactivity
Memory
49
Which of the following parts of HIPAA security involves training to prevent security leaks?
Ensure availablity
Protecting confidentiality
Ensuring integrity
Ensuring workforce compliance
50
Which of the following is an item of doubtful sterility?
Un-opened sterile packages
Sterile packages that are within date
Sterile package that become wet
Sterile packages that open upside-down
51
What is this?
Senn retractor
Parker band retractor
Four prong sharp rake
Army-Navy retractor
52
Which of the following is a covered entity?
Office for Civil RIghts
Family members of patients
Members of congress
Healthcare clearinghouses
53
What type of suture should be utilized when the wound edges are difficult to evert?
Subcuticular
Continuous running suture
Vertical mattress suture
Half-buried mattress
54
Adhesive is best compared to what type of suture?
7-0
5-0
6-0
4-0
55
Which of the following procedures is of intermediate cardiac risk?
Aortic surgery
Peripheral vascular surgery
Prostate surgery
Breast surgery
56
Which of the following terms is defined as a puckering of excess tissue in the corner of a wound?
Dehiscence
Hematoma
Seroma
Dog ear deformity
57
What is beneficial about undermining a wound?
It lets out bacteria and allows for drainage
It decreases wound healing time
It decreases tension on the wound
It opens up the wound to allow it to breath
58
Which of the following is a drain for the common bile duct?
G-tube
Cholecystostomy tube
T-tube
J-tube
59
What is this?
Gauze
Towel
Raytec
Lap
60
What is this?
Allis clamp
Wheaty
Babcock forceps
Sponge forceps
61
Which of the following personnel has the most exposure to blood/body fluids?
Housekeepers
Nurses
Researchers
Doctors
62
What procedure requires 1-2 ccs of anesthetic?
Nose job
Sutures for a 3-4 cm laceration
Appendectomy
Punch biopsies
63
Which of the following employees should have controlling exposure training?
A lifeguard trained in CPR
A yoga teacher
A Colorado hiking guide
An ancient Egyption researcher
64
Lidocaine should be avoided in patient with which of the following conditions?
Severe renal disease
Stable HTN
Severe liver disease
Mental stability
65
Epinephrine is able to be utilized in which of the following areas?
Nose
Pinna
Calf
Male genitals
66
The suture is at risk of slipping if:
The suture tail is too long
The suture enters two different layers
The suture enters the skin at less than a 90 degree angle
The suture tail is too short
67
When placing an IV, healthcare providers should be which of the following?
Sterile
Scared
Aspectic
Clean
