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1
The ingredient added to enhance the recovery of the dimorphic fungi by preventing the overgrowth of saprophytic molds is
Thiamine
Cycloheximide
Brain heart fusion base
Chloramphenicol
2
Answer the question below
Candida albicans
Candida glabrata
Malassezia furfur
Cryptococcus neoformans
3
Not all strains of
Entamoeba histolytica
are pathogenic. What is the non-pathogenic variant of
E. histolytica
?
Entamoeba dispar
Entamoeba coli
Entamoeba moshkovskii
Entamoeba hartmani
4
A flagellar stain would show peritrichous flagella for each of the following organisms except:
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Bordetella bronchiseptica
Escherichia coli
Alcaligenes faecalis
5
A nosocomial infection in an 80-yr-old female, recovering from pneumonia, produced many oxidase-neg colonies on MAC.
Burkholderia gladioli
Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Acinetobacter spp.
6
Gray-white cob-web like mycelium with the rim of black pigmentation. Failed to convert to a yeast form @35oC. ID?
Coccidioides immitis
Blastomyces dermatitidis
Sporothrix schenckii
Histoplasma capsulatum
7
This XLD medium shown in this photo was isolated from a stool specimen of an immunocompetent adult. Your best action is:
Work it up for possible Yersinia enterocolitica
Serotype it for Escherichia coli O157:H7
Work it up for possible Salmonella spp.
Report it as no Salmonella or Shigella isolated
8
A large, spore-forming GPB is suspected to be Bacillus sp. Which test could be used to rule out
Bacillus anthracis
?
Motility positive
Susceptibility to Penicillin
No growth on phenylethyl alcohol agar (PEA)
Non-hemolytic on blood agar
9
Which reagent(s) is/are used to develop the red color indicative of a positive reaction in the nitrate reduction test?
Erhlich and Kovac reagents
Sulfanilic acid and alpha-naphthylamine
Kovac reagent
o-Nitrophenyl-beta-D-galactopyranoside
10
Infections caused by Y. pestis are rare in the US. Those cases that do occur are most frequently located in which region
North and South Carolina and Virginia
New Mexico, Arizona, and California
Ohio, Michigan, and Indiana
Alaska, Oregon, and Utah
11
Answer the below question
Relative increase in the carbohydrate concentration
Relative decrease in the agar concentration
Relative increase in the salt concentration
Relative decrease in the protein concentration
12
The condition most likely to predispose a person to septicemia by viridans streptococci is:
Hypertrophy of the prostate gland
Indwelling catheter
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Poor oral hygiene
13
A Gram stain of drainage from an open wound revealed GPB with spores. This would commonly rule out which organism?
Bacillus anthracis
Clostridium perfringens
Clostridium septicum
Bacillus cereus
14
Which parasite gives birth to live larvae known as microfilariae?
Diphyllobothrium latum
Strongyloides stercoralis
Necator americanus
Onchocerca volvulus
15
If a
Brucella
spp is suspected in blood culture, how long it should be held on a commercial blood culture system?
5-7 days
14-21 days
2-5 days
10-14 days
16
Answer the question below
High level of gentamicin resistance
Alteration of penicillin binding proteins
Beta-lactamase activity against the beta-lactam moiety
Efflux of antibiotics from the bacterial cell
17
All of the following parasites are correctly matched with their primary symptom, except:
Plasmodium falciparum - fever and chills
Endolimax nana - usually no symptoms
Enterobius vermicularis - perianal iching
Trichomonas vaginalis - diarrhea
18
Enterococcus spp are commonly resistant to all of the following antimicrobial drug types EXCEPT:
Aminoglycosides
Glycopeptides
Phenicols
Beta-lactams
19
Which
Aspergillus spp.
, recovered from sputum/bronchial mucus, is the most common cause of pulmonary aspergillosis?
Aspergillus flavus
All of these options
Aspergillus fumigatus
Aspergillus niger
20
The following morphologic structure identifies
C. albicans
and distinguishes it from most of the other
Candida
species.
Blastoconidia
Mycelium
Hyphae
Chlamydospore
21
What is the first step of the ethyl acetate concentration procedure?
Mix fresh stool specimen with 10% formalin and strain to obtain a sediment
Resuspend the sediment with 10% formalin and add ethyl acetate
Add normal saline, centrifuge, and decant the supernatant fluid
Centrifuge specimen to obtain four layers
22
Answer the question below
HIV viral load by nucleic acid amplification
HIV-1 Immunofluorescent assay
Western blot
Antibody immunoassay to differentiate HIV-1 and HIV-2
23
All of the following fungi are considered to cause major opportunistic infections in humans, EXCEPT?
Mucor species
Aspergillus fumigatus
Candida albicans
Gliocladium species
24
A yellow-pigmented organism growing on CHOC, OX+, nonmotile & doesn't grow on MAC was recovered from neonate blood. ID?
Acinetobacter spp.
Burkholderia cepacia
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Elizabethkingia (formerly Chryseobacterium) meningosepticum
25
Which of the following
Shigella
spp. serotypes is the most often isolated in the US?
Serotype B (S. flexneri)
Serotype A (S. dysenteriae)
Serotype C (S. boydii)
Serotype D (S. sonnei)
26
What organism has a toxin that, when released, causes profuse, watery diarrhea?
Bacillus anthracis
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Vibrio cholera
Yersinia pestis
27
In multi-drug resistant tuberculosis (MDR-TB), which drugs normally used in first-line treatment of TB are ineffective?
Isoniazid and rifampin
Amikacin and kanamycin
Fluoroquinolones
Aminoglycosides
28
Which of the following tests should be incubated at 37oC in a 5-10% CO2 atmosphere?
Optochin disk test
CAMP test
Bile solubility
Novobiocin disk test
29
All of the following are true concerning clinical specimens that are gram stained before culturing, EXCEPT:
The gram stain eliminates the need for culture.
The gram stain allows you to judge the quality of the specimen.
Provides internal QC when direct smear results are compared to culture ones
Provides the clinician with same-day info regarding possible pathogens
30
Answer the question below
Pseudomonas stutzeri
Burkholderia cepacia
Pseudomonas alcaligenes
Pseudomonas putida
31
What two glycoproteins are expressed on the surface of influenza A viruses and are used for subtyping of the viruses?
Glycoprotein 41 (gp41) and glycoprotein 120 (gp120)
Neuraminidase and protein 24(p24)
Glycoprotein120 (gp120) and Protein 24 (p24)
Hemagglutinin and Neuraminidase
32
P. aeruginosa
was isolated&needed further eval for susceptibility. Which results would indicate a need for further eval?
Amikacin resistant, Gentamicin/tobramycin sensitive, Carbapenem sensitive
Amikacin sensitive, Gentamicin/tobramycin sensitive, Carbapenem sensitive
Amikacin sensitive, Gentamicin/tobramycin sensitive, Carbapenem-resistant
Amikacin-R, Gentamicin or tobramycin S, Carbapenem-resistant
33
Stool is the specimen of choice for the recovery of which one of the following parasites?
Diphyllobothrium latum
Schistosoma haematobium
Trichinella spiralis
Plasmodium falciparum
34
All of the following are accurate descriptions of the expected microscopic findings,
EXCEPT
:
Photo D: chains of large, lemon-shaped annelloconidia
C: loose clusters of elliptical conidia arranged in a "diphtheroid" pattern
Photo A: single-celled, smooth-walled microconidia
Photo B: dense aggregates of echinulate, brown-black conidia
35
All of the following organisms stain with an acid-fast stain, or one of its variants, EXCEPT:
Cryptosporidium spp.
Actinomyces spp.
Mycobacterium spp.
Nocardia spp.
36
The stain was prepared from a POS anaerobic blood culture bottle after 36 hrs incubation. Spores seen. Most likely ID?
Clostridium perfringens
Lactobacillus rhamnosus
Clostridium septicum
Bacteroides fragilis
37
A 36-yr-old woman is a known intracenous drug abuser, and gives a history of "several previous episodes of hepatitis"
Hepatitis D Virus
Chronic hepatitis B
Acute hepatitis C
Acute hepatitis A
38
The E. granulosus life cycle requires both intermediate & definitive host (dogs). What stage must be ingested by dogs?
Eggs
Adult worms
Proglottids
Cysts
39
Blood cultures were from a 20-yr-old women with severe diarrhea. Motile @RT. Urine culture showed 100,000 col/mL GNRs.
Salmonella typhi
Yersinia enterocolitica
Proteus vulgaris
Escherichia coli
40
Which one of the following adult worms resides in the human intestine?
Clonorchis sinensis
Paragonimus westermani
Schistosoma haematobium
Heterophyes heterophyes
41
These colonies were identified as
Vibrio
v
ulnificus
. The serious complication of infections with this bacterial spp is:
Cholera-like diarrheal syndrome
Life-threatening septicemia
Severe electrolyte imbalance
Progressive cellulitis and gas gangrene
42
Answer the question below
Shigella spp.
Escherichia coli
Salmonella spp.
Aeromonas hydrophilia
43
Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
and
Burkholderia cepacia
share each of the following characteristics EXCEPT:
Cytochrome oxidase activity
Good growth on MacConkey agar
Decarboxylation of lysine
Production of colonies with a yellow pigment
44
The Western Blot for HIV-1 infection ID looks for HIV p24 and what other two protein bands to confirm HIV-1 infection?
gp61 or gp140
gp16 or gp161
gp141 or gp60
gp41 or gp160
45
Which organism is considered a free-living amoebae?
Endolimax nana
Naegleria fowleri
Trichomonas vaginalis
Entamoeba coli
46
Alcaligenes
faecalis
(formerly
A. odorans
) is distinguished from
Bordetella bronchiseptica
with which test?
Oxidase
Urease (rapid)
Motility
Growth on MAC
47
Since Brucella sp. are facultative intracellular organisms that infect the RES, specimens of choice for recovery include
Bronchoalveolar lavage and sputum
Blood and bone marrow
Seminal fluid or vaginal fluid
Urine and feces
48
Which of the following amoeba cysts measures approximately 25 micrometer?
Entamoeba hartmani
Entamoeba coli
Balantidium coli
Entamoeba histolytica
49
The majority of
H. influenzae
infections are caused by which of the following capsular serotypes?
a
c
d
b
50
Which of the following tests best differentiates Shigella species from E. coli?
H2S, MR, citrate, and urease
Gas, citrate, and VP
Lactose, indole, ONPG, and motility
H2S, VP, citrate, and urease
51
What organism produced outside a bioterrorism event causes glanders disease?
Yersinia pestis
Burkholderia mallei
Francisella tularensis
Variola virus
52
Answer the question below
14S rRNA
16S rRNA
28S rRNA
25S rRNA
53
Each of the following tests is helpful in the species identification of
Staphylococcus
aureus
except:
Thermostable endonuclease
Tube coagulase
Modified dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO) test
Deoxyribonuclease
54
Observed in a stool specimen is 8 µm cyst, 4 nuclei and their distinctive blot-like karyosomes. Most likely ID?
Chilomastix mesnili
Endolimax nana
Iodamoeba butschlii
Entamoeba hartmani
55
A very small ssDNA virus that causes a febrile illness with a rash, and is called the 5th childhood disease is:
Rotavirus
Coxsackie A virus
Parvovirus B19
Adenovirus type 40
56
A pair of stock culture organisms would be
most
suitable to verify the performance of these QC tests: PAD, Indole, VP?
E. coli, Enterobacter aerogenes
Klebsiella pneumoniae, P. vulgaris
E. aerogenes, K. pneumoniae
Proteus vulgaris, Escherichia coli
57
A lab tech receives a VRE screening culture. Which agar should the tech use to set up the VRE screening culture?
Columbia Nalidixic acid (CNA) agar
Bile-esculin-azide (BEA) agar with vancomycin
MacConkey agar
Buffered Charcoal yeast extract (BYCE) agar
58
This is an Echinococcus granulosus hydatid cyst. Identify the object(s) that arrows "B" is pointing to.
Daughter cyst
Germinal tissue layers
Immature scolices
Cyst wall
59
All of the following viral causative agent and associated disease state combinations are correct except:
Varicella-Zoster virus: Chickenpox
Variola virus: Polio
Human Herpesvirus 6: Roseola
Epstein-Barr virus: infectious mononucleosis
60
Which of the following statements about stains is incorrect?
Acid-fast stains are primarily used in the ID of Cryptosporidium oocysts
Giemsa stain is the stain of choice for the ID of malarial parasites
Mycobacteria are usually identified by using acid-fast stains
Acridine orange: used for visualization of bacteria when debris is present
61
Answer the below question
vanC gene
mecA gene
erm gene
msrA gene
62
All of the following statements are associated with MALDI-TOF MS used in clinical microbiology except?
A spectrum is created
Bacteria is amplified using laser
A matrix absorbs energy from the laser and converts it into heat
Molecules are measured based on a mass-to-charge ratio
63
Answer the question below:
Exophiala jeanselmei
Phialophora verrucosa
Cladophialophora carrionii
Fonsecaea pedrosoi
64
Which of the following anthrax infections is also known as "woolsorter's disease"? Specimen of choice to detect it?
Gastrointestinal anthrax, stool
Inhalation anthrax; blood
Injectional anthrax; urine
Cutaneous anthrax; tissue
65
Select the specimen that is inadequate for the recovery of anaerobes and should be summarily rejected
Syringe aspirate hand-carried to the microbiology laboratory
Uterine cervical swab in Cary-Blair transport medium
Swab specimens taken from a deep sub-cutaneous abscess
Needle aspirate in an anaerobic E-swab tube
66
Which of the following would be the most appropriate temperature for long term storage of specimens for viral culture?
-20° C
4° C
-70° C
Room temperature
67
A GNCB produces small gray colonies surrounded by a zone of hemolysis on PBGA. The organism grew on CHOC but not on SBA.
Alcaligenes fecalis
Franciscella tularensis
Hemophilus influenzae
Bordetella pertussis
68
Which of the following viruses requires a complex lymphoblastoid cell culture, is rarely, if ever, diagnosed by culture?
Cytomegalovirus
Herpes Simplex Virus
Epstein-Barr virus
Varicella-Zoster Virus
69
Which of the following scenarios represents appropriate detection of MRSA by the Kirby Bauer method?
MHA; direct colony suspension; 35oC; cefoxitin disk; 18-hr incubation
MHA; direct colony suspension; 35oC; oxacillin disk; 18-hr incubation
MHA; direct colony suspension; 35oC; cefoxitin disk; 24-hr incubation
MHA; direct colony suspension; 37oC; cefoxitin disk; 36-hr incubation
70
Which GNB produce brown to black pigment on KVA and brick red fluorescence when exposed to an ultraviolet light source?
All of these options
Porphyromonas spp. and Prevotella spp.
Fusobacterium spp. and Actinomyces spp.
Bacteroides spp and Fusobacterium spp.
71
What are the two general categories of nucleic acid amplification (NAA) technique?
PCR and reverse-transcriptase PCR (RT-PCR)
Target amplification and signal amplification
PCR and branched-chain DNA (bDNA)
FISH and strand displacement amplification (SDA)
72
The following is a systemic, dimorphic genus that produces barrel-shaped arthroconidia separated by dysjunctor cells:
Coccidiodes immitis
Microsporum species
Geotrichum species
Trichosporon species
73
A patient is suspected of having invasive aspergillosis. Which specimen is best for the inital ID by soluble Ag testing?
Lung biopsy
Serum/Urine
Sputum
Blood culture
74
This gametocyte is from which one of the following
Plasmodium
species?
Plasmodium vivax
Plasmodium ovale
Plasmodium falciparum
Plasmodium malariae
75
MacConkey agar without crystal violet is a culture medium useful in the presumptive identification of:
Mycobacterium fortuitum
Vibrio parahemolyticus
Legionella pneumophila
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
76
A leg-wound culture from a hospitalized 70-year-old man with diabetes grew motile, NLF on MAC. Most probable organism?
Enterobacter cloacae
Serratia marcescens
Proteus vulgaris
Proteus mirabilis
77
Answer the below question
Glucose pos, Maltose pos, Sucrose neg, Sucrose neg
Glucose pos, Maltose pos, Sucrose pos, Lactose neg
Glucose pos, Maltose pos, ONPG pos, DNAse neg
Glucose pos, Maltose neg, Lactose neg, Sucrose neg
78
Which organism may be recovered from the eye of a patient suffering from keratitis?
Paragonimus spp.
Entamoeba histolytica
Acanthamoeba spp
Trichinella spp.
79
Infections with all of the following viruses could cause malignant disease, except:
Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
Human Herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8)
Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV)
Human papillomavirus (HPV)
80
Identify the species of dimorphic fungi (in its yeast form) in this microscopic image
Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
Sporothrix schenckii
Coccidioides immitis
Blastomyces dermatitidis
81
Many organisms as seen in the image labeled B were found in a urine specimen of a 28-yr-old male was tested. ID?
Chilomastix mesnili
Giardia duodenalis (lamblia)
Pentatrichomonas hominis
Trichomonas vaginalis
82
Tube A: POS tube coag test. Tube B: NEG control. The following Staph sp. may produce the reaction seen in tube A except:
Staphylococcus lugdunensis
Staphylococcus aureus
Staphylococcus intermedius
Staphylococcus schleiferi
83
This organism is very similar to
Serratia
marcescens
, except it is DNase negative.
Kluvera ascorbata
Ewingella americana
Rahnella aquatilis
Cedecea devisae
84
Trichuris
trichiura
belongs to which helminth group?
Trematodes
Filariae
Nematodes
Cestodes
85
Which Gram-neg organism can produce "gliding motility" on agar plates an is a primary cause of juvenile periodontitis?
Eikenella corrodens
Fusobaterium nucleatum
Capnocytophaga ochracea
Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans
86
The Carba NP confirmatory test is used to detect all of the following carbapenemases EXCEPT?
VIM (Verona integron-encoded metallo-beta-lactamase)
NDM-1 (New Delhi metallo-beta-lactamase)
ESBL (Extended Spectrum Beta-Lactamase)
KPC (Klebsiella pneumoniae carbapenemase)
87
All of the following life stages of schistosomes are appropriately matched with the host they are found in, except:
Egg- human
Adult worm - human
Cercaria - cow
Sporocysts - snail
88
Which EBV markers would be MOST likely positive for an individual who had infectious mononucleosis nine years ago?
All markers will remain positive.
Only anti-viral capsid antigen (VCA)-IgM and heterophile are positive.
None of the markers would be positive after nine years.
Only anti-VCA (IgG) and anti-Epstein-Barr nuclear antigen are positive.
89
Which of the following would be the most appropriate temperature for long term storage of specimens for viral culture?
4° C
Room temperature
-20° C
-70° C
90
Which of the following protozoa has largest trophozoite?
Iodamoeba butschlii trophozoite
Balantidium coli trophozoite
Endolimax nana trophozoite
Entamoeba histolytica trophozoite
91
Answer the question below:
Has reduced concentrations of vancomycin and trimethoprim
Free of amphotericin B
Free of cephalothin
Incorporates lysed horse instead of sheep blood
92
The most common organism that causes septic arthritis in patients under 30 years of age is:
Staphylococcus aureus
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Chlamydia trachomatis
Treponema pallidum
93
Parasites that belong to the category Sporozoa are also known as:
Hemoflagellates
Coccidia
Flukes
Digenea
94
Which statement is true regarding hospital-associated (HA) MRSA and community-associated (CA) MRSA?
CA strains tend to show resistance to more drug classes than HA strains
HA strains are typically more susceptible to non-beta-lactam antibiotics
CA tend to be associated with the PVL gene & skin & soft tissue infections
Resistance is conferred by the mecA gene for only the HA strains
95
The colonies were recovered from a blood culture of a patient with fever. The most likely source of infection is:
Respiratory tract
Indwelling catheter
Urinary tract
Cutaneous wound
96
Which of the following
Streptococcus spp.
exhibits a positive bile solubility test?
S. agalactiae
S. pneumoniae
S. mutans
S. pyogenes
97
Answer the question below
Thiamine
Sodiumpolyanethol sulfonate (SPS)
Pyridoxal
Synthetic resins
98
An anaerobe was recovered from a blood culture after 92 hours of incubation. The most likely identification is:
Fusobacterium nucleatum
Corynebacterium jeikeium
Clostridium perfringens
Cutibacterium (Propionibacterium) acnes
99
The 12 µm cyst illustrated can be identified as
E. histolytica
. What feature of the chromatoidal bar prompts this ID?
Large size
Deep blue staining
Rounded ends
Formation of a single bar
100
A GPB that has a rod-coccus cycle (thin rods in young cultures & cocci in older cultures) and an odor resembling cheese:
Rothia spp.
Dermabacter hominis
Brevibacterium spp.
Corynebacterium diphtheriae