Which of the following Shakespeare plays were translated into Portuguese by King Luís I?

Hamlet, The Merchant of Venice, Richard III, and Othello

What major political event led to a period of non-translation of Shakespeare’s plays in Portugal between 1890 and 1899?

The British Ultimatum and the rise of Portuguese nationalism

How were most of Shakespeare’s plays first made known to the Portuguese public?

People read French translations

Why does “ideological embargo” lead to non-translation?

Because there's a clash between a political event and community values

What category best explains the non-translation of Shakespeare’s plays in Portugal during the late 19th century?

Ideological embargo (cultural or political resistance to British products)

What did Gideon Toury mean when he said that “translations are, in one way or another, facts of the target system”?

That translations are part of the culture they are translated into

What was one important result of this new way of thinking about translation?

Enabled detection of the specific ideology of domination in translation

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Non-translation

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Questions 9

Answers

1
Which of the following isn't a category of non-translation?
Ideological embargo
Domestication
Language closeness
Repetition
2
Which of the following Shakespeare plays were translated into Portuguese by King Luís I?
Macbeth and A Midsummer Night’s Dream
Hamlet, The Merchant of Venice, Richard III, and Othello
Twelfth Night and Julius Caesar
Romeo and Juliet and King Lear
3
What major political event led to a period of non-translation of Shakespeare’s plays in Portugal between 1890 and 1899?
The rise of the French literary movement
The Portuguese Revolution of 1910
The banning of theatre by the Portuguese monarchy
The British Ultimatum and the rise of Portuguese nationalism
4
How were most of Shakespeare’s plays first made known to the Portuguese public?
People read the original English texts
People read Spanish translations
People read Italian translations
People read French translations
5
When was there a noticeable lack of new Shakespeare translations in Portugal?
1890–1900
After 1900
1874–1879
1860–1870
6
Why does “ideological embargo” lead to non-translation?
Because there's a clash between a political event and community values
Because it's missing information
Because the government stops people from translating all foreign books
Because the language is too difficult to understand
7
What category best explains the non-translation of Shakespeare’s plays in Portugal during the late 19th century?
Ideological embargo (cultural or political resistance to British products)
Language closeness (as English and Portuguese are similar)
Institutionalised censorship (enforced by government authorities)
Bilingualism (as most audiences already understood English)
8
What did Gideon Toury mean when he said that “translations are, in one way or another, facts of the target system”?
That translations only matter if they are adaptation translations
That translation is no longer useful to study
That translations should always be exactly the same as the original
That translations are part of the culture they are translated into
9
What was one important result of this new way of thinking about translation?
It showed that only grammar matters in translation
Enabled detection of the specific ideology of domination in translation
It showed that we don’t need to study translation anymore
It made translators follow the original texts even more strictly

Non-translation Flashcards | StudBud