Why is a bisphosphonate “drug holiday” sometimes recommended?

To reduce risk of long-term complications like jaw necrosis

How do entry inhibitors help treat HIV?

Block HIV from entering the T4 lymphocyte

Why is Vancomycin often used in serious infections?

It is effective after bacteria become resistant to other antibiotics

Calcitriol is indicated for use in which patient population?

Patients with chronic kidney disease or hypoparathyroidism

In addition to treating hypocalcemia, calcium supplements may be used for:

Osteoporosis, pregnancy, rickets, and Paget disease

How do Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulators (SERMs) work in bone?

Act as estrogen agonists to increase bone mass

Why do herpesvirus infections recur even with treatment?

The virus remains dormant and can reactivate

Which of the following is a serious adverse effect of Azithromycin?

Hepatotoxicity and dysrhythmias, abdominal pain

Why is Dolutegravir preferred in combination HIV therapy?

It has fewer drug interactions and resistance issues

What makes the elimination half-life of bisphosphonates unique?

It can last for years due to bone binding

What is the purpose of a culture & sensitivity test?

used to identify which antibiotic is most effective

What is osteomalacia?

A metabolic bone disease caused by bone softening due to demineralization

What is the primary action of colchicine in treating gout?

Reduces inflammation by inhibiting neutrophil activity

Why is long-term use of calcitonin generally avoided?

It may increase the risk of new malignancies

Allopurinol is primarily used to:

Lower uric acid levels to prevent gout

What is the primary action of Calcitriol (active vitamin D)?

It promotes calcium absorption in the intestines & elevates serum calcium

What mental health side effects may occur with Dolutegravir?

Depression, suicidal thoughts, anxiety

Which symptoms should a patient report while taking antibiotics?

Fever, rash, white patches in mouth

Why are antiviral drugs often limited in effectiveness?

Viruses mutate quickly and antivirals target specific viruses

What are key components of treating and preventing osteomalacia?

Vitamin D, calcium, and sunlight

What is Chvostek’s sign, and what does it indicate?

Facial muscle spasm when the cheek is tapped; indicates hypocalcemia

When is antiviral therapy most effective for treating influenza?

Within 48 hours of symptom onset

Which medications or conditions require caution when taking Bactrim?

Methotrexate and spironolactone

Tetracycline has a short half-life what does that mean?

It needs to be taken more frequently to stay effective

Why should Gentamicin be used cautiously in patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD)?

It can build up in the body and cause kidney damage

Adverse reactions of Penicillin's include:

n/v, diarrhea, pain at cite, lowered RBCs, WBCs, Platelet count

What is a common and harmless side effect of Rifampin?

Orange discoloration of body fluids

What is a main goal of antiretroviral therapy (ART) for HIV?

Reduce viral load to undetectable levels

Denosumab works by targeting which of the following?

RANKL to prevent osteoclast activation

When should the peak level for Vancomycin be drawn (if ordered)?

1 to 2 hours after the end of the infusion

studbud

Pharm exam 2 NUR 334

190 termsStudBud Administration34 plays

Imported from external platform

Flashcards190 cardsFPractice quizPHost liveL

Questions 190

Answers

1
Why is a bisphosphonate “drug holiday” sometimes recommended?
o avoid weight gain
To reduce risk of long-term complications like jaw necrosis
They become ineffective after 2 years
Risk of bone fractures increases
2
How do entry inhibitors help treat HIV?
Block HIV from entering the T4 lymphocyte
Destroy HIV’s capsid
Make HIV susceptible to antibiotics
Prevent HIV from exiting the host cell
3
Why is Vancomycin often used in serious infections?
It has fewer side effects than penicillin
It is the first-line antibiotic for all bacterial infections
It is effective after bacteria become resistant to other antibiotics
It treats viruses better than other drugs
4
What type of viruses are HSV-1, HSV-2, and Varicella Zoster Virus?
Fungal organisms
RNA viruses
Bacterial strains
DNA viruses
5
Calcitriol is indicated for use in which patient population?
Patients with hypertension
Patients with chronic kidney disease or hypoparathyroidism
Patients with osteoporosis only
Patients with asthma and liver failure
6
In addition to treating hypocalcemia, calcium supplements may be used for:
Asthma and hypertension
Liver failure and pancreatitis
Anemia and heartburn
Osteoporosis, pregnancy, rickets, and Paget disease
7
What is the most effective drug for treating MRSA?
Ciprofloxacin
Tetracycline
Amoxicillin
Vancomycin
8
How do Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulators (SERMs) work in bone?
Replace estrogen in all tissues
Block calcium absorption
Act as estrogen agonists to increase bone mass
Destroy osteoclasts directly
9
Why do herpesvirus infections recur even with treatment?
The virus remains dormant and can reactivate
The virus becomes resistant to antibiotics
The virus mutates quickly
Antivirals are only used during HIV
10
Which of the following is a serious adverse effect of Azithromycin?
Hepatotoxicity and dysrhythmias, abdominal pain
Hair loss
Hyperglycemia
Constipation
11
How should oral Acyclovir be taken for best effectiveness?
Only at bedtime
before breakfast
Once daily on an empty stomach
Around the clock with food
12
Why is Dolutegravir preferred in combination HIV therapy?
It has fewer drug interactions and resistance issues
It cures HIV
It requires no dietary restrictions
It has the strongest effect on CD4 cells
13
Bactrim belongs to which class of antibiotics?
Sulfonamides
Macrolides
Fluoroquinolones
Tetracyclines
14
What makes the elimination half-life of bisphosphonates unique?
It’s shorter with IV formulations
It’s under 1 hour after oral dosing
It depends on liver function
It can last for years due to bone binding
15
What is the purpose of a culture & sensitivity test?
used to identify which antibiotic is most effective
To check blood glucose levels after antibiotic treatment
To measure liver function before prescribing antibiotics
To determine if a patient is allergic to antibiotics
16
What is osteomalacia?
A type of autoimmune arthritis
A metabolic bone disease caused by bone softening due to demineralization
A cartilage disorder causing joint pain
A condition where bones become brittle due to excess calcium
17
What is the primary action of colchicine in treating gout?
Acts as a painkiller like NSAIDs
Promotes uric acid excretion through urine
Inhibits uric acid production
Reduces inflammation by inhibiting neutrophil activity
18
Why is long-term use of calcitonin generally avoided?
It causes rapid weight loss
It may increase the risk of new malignancies
It leads to calcium overload
It worsens joint pain
19
Allopurinol is primarily used to:
Treat acute gout attacks
Relieve gout-related joint pain instantly
Treat rheumatoid arthritis
Lower uric acid levels to prevent gout
20
What is the primary action of Calcitriol (active vitamin D)?
It stimulates insulin production in the pancreas
It blocks bone resorption to increase bone density
It promotes calcium absorption in the intestines & elevates serum calcium
It lowers blood calcium by increasing renal excretion
21
How soon must Post-Exposure Prophylaxis (PEP) be started after possible HIV exposure?
After symptoms appear
Within 24 hours
Within 48 hours
Within 72 hours
22
Which of the following drugs should not be used with Dolutegravir?
Sertraline
Acetaminophen
Atorvastatin and amoxicillin
Efavirenz and carbamazepine
23
What is the most common side effect of Penicillin's?
ALM: confusion, tremors, seizures
Allergy: rash, fever, pruritus
Aphasia, diaphoresis
Delirium, Hllucinations
24
What mental health side effects may occur with Dolutegravir?
Mania and hallucinations
Depression, suicidal thoughts, anxiety
. Euphoria and insomnia
Psychosis and tremors
25
How long after IV administration does Cefazolin (Ancef) reach peak concentration?
30 min
90 min
15min
5 min
26
Which bisphosphonate is administered once yearly by IV?
Zoledronic acid
Risedronate
Teriparatide
Alendronate
27
Which symptoms should a patient report while taking antibiotics?
Mild drowsiness and dry skin
Fever, rash, white patches in mouth
Sleepiness and yellow urine
Runny nose and sneezing
28
Why are antiviral drugs often limited in effectiveness?
Antivirals can kill all viruses permanently
They treat both viruses and bacteria
Viruses do not cause symptoms
Viruses mutate quickly and antivirals target specific viruses
29
What are key components of treating and preventing osteomalacia?
High-protein diet and steroids
Vitamin C and cold exposure
Vitamin D, calcium, and sunlight
Daily iron and potassium
30
What is Chvostek’s sign, and what does it indicate?
Pain in the cheek when swallowing; indicates tonsillitis
Facial muscle spasm when the cheek is tapped; indicates hypocalcemia
Weak jaw muscles with numbness; indicates hypercalcemia
Twitching of the cheek when the jaw is tapped; indicates hypokalemia
31
Pt can take penicillin's even if pt has an allergy to cephalosporins
True
False
32
Which condition treated with Calcitriol is commonly associated with bowed legs in children?
Osteoporosis
Osteoarthritis
Scoliosis
Rickets
33
HPV is most commonly linked to which type of cancer?
Breast cancer
Bladder cancer
Liver cancer
Cervical cancer
34
When is antiviral therapy most effective for treating influenza?
Within 48 hours of symptom onset
After 1 week of symptoms
Within 72 hours of exposure
Only in unvaccinated patients
35
Which medications or conditions require caution when taking Bactrim?
Methotrexate and spironolactone
Insulin and aspirin
Beta blockers and antibiotics
Acetaminophen and caffeine
36
How often should the Tdap booster be administered in healthy adults?
Every 10 years
Only after exposure
Yearly
Every 5 years
37
Which of the following should NOT be taken at the same time as Tetracycline?
Iron supplements
Cough syrup
Vitamin B12
Fish oil
38
Which condition is commonly treated with Tetracycline?
Hypertension
Fungal infections
Influenza
Chlamydia
39
Which of the following is an example of a medication used for PrEP?
Lopinavir
Zidovudine
Truvada
Acyclovir
40
Tetracycline has a short half-life what does that mean?
It must be stored in the freezer
It works instantly after taking
It needs to be taken more frequently to stay effective
It only works at night
41
How many doses of the HPV vaccine are required if the first dose is given before age 15?
2
4
3
1
42
Why should Gentamicin be used cautiously in patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD)?
It raises blood sugar levels
It increases blood pressure
It causes fluid retention
It can build up in the body and cause kidney damage
43
Adverse reactions of Penicillin's include:
n/v, diarrhea, pain at cite, lowered RBCs, WBCs, Platelet count
High glucose, Tachycardia
Edema, JVD
sweating, low BP
44
IgA present means you had the infection already
False
True
45
What should the nurse monitor closely during the first dose of a new antibiotic?
Visual changes
Liver enzymes
Blood pressure only
Allergic reactions
46
What is a common and harmless side effect of Rifampin?
Orange discoloration of body fluids
Skin peeling
Hair loss
Blue urine
47
What is a main goal of antiretroviral therapy (ART) for HIV?
Cure the infection completely
Reduce viral load to undetectable levels
Replace infected cells with donor cells
Increase viral replication
48
What does bactericidal mean?
Makes it grow faster
Kill Bacteria
Slows Bacteria growth
Spread the bacteria
49
Colestipol taken with this penicillin G will decrease the absorption of penicillin
False
True
50
Denosumab works by targeting which of the following?
Vitamin D receptors
Estrogen receptors in the liver
RANKL to prevent osteoclast activation
Osteoblast DNA
51
When should the peak level for Vancomycin be drawn (if ordered)?
4 hours after the first dose
30 minutes before the dose
1 to 2 hours after the end of the infusion
Immediately after the dose is started
52
Which is the correct nursing instruction when applying topical nystatin for a skin fungal infection?
Apply a layer over old layer
Clean and dry the area before applying a thin layer
Wipe off layer with gauze than apply new layer
Clean and apply layer on wet skin for better absorption
53
Which statement about vaccines and adalimumab is correct?
Vaccines neutralize adalimumab’s effect
All vaccines are safe and recommended
Live vaccines should be avoided during therapy
Vaccines must be given immediately after each dose
54
Aminoglycosides & Penicillin's can be administered together at the same time.
False
True
55
At what age is the HPV vaccine first recommended?
15-26 yrs old
11-12 yrs old (can also start at 9)
3-5 yrs old
Birth
56
Cefazolin (Ancef) should be used cautiously with which of the following?
Nephrotoxic drugs and anticoagulants
Antacids and laxatives
Antivirals and insulin
Beta-blockers and corticosteroids
57
Vancomycin belongs to which class of antibiotics?
Glycopeptide
Fluoroquinolone
Macrolide
Aminoglycoside
58
What enzyme does HIV use to make DNA from its RNA?
Protease
DNA polymerase
Reverse transcriptase
Transcriptinase
59
How should alendronate be taken to maximize absorption and reduce esophageal irritation?
With milk and a light snack
On an empty stomach with plain water, then remain upright 30 min
At bedtime with water
On an empty stomach with water, then have pt lay supine
60
Which lab value is important to monitor when giving Gentamicin?
Blood glucose
Serum calcium
Hemoglobin
Gentamicin serum levels (5–10 mcg/mL
61
Immunosuppressant Cyclosporine must be taken at the SAME TIME DAILY
True
False
62
What is a common adverse effect of Tetracycline?
Tinnitus
Hair loss
Teeth discoloration and photosensitivity
Constipation
63
What is a unique clinical benefit of calcitonin in osteoporosis?
Relieves pain from vertebral fractures
Reduce the risk of osteomyelitis
Reverses hypercalcemia instantly
Increases iron absorption
64
What is the most common cause of osteomalacia?
Overproduction of Vitamin D
High cholesterol
Vitamin D and calcium deficiency
Excess phosphorus and iron
65
What is a potential result of hypocalcemia on the nervous system?
Cell membranes become hyperexcitable, leading to muscle spasms
Sodium channels close completely
Neurons become less responsive to stimuli
Reflexes slow down significantly
66
What is a hallmark symptom of herpesvirus infections?
Dry, scaly rashes
Warts and ulcers
Severe muscle cramps
Recurrent, blister-like lesions on skin and mucosa
67
What does parathyroid hormone (PTH) do in the body?
Stimulates bone breakdown to raise blood calcium
Strengthens teeth enamel
Increases bone growth
Decreases calcium in the blood
68
How is the HPV vaccine typically administered?
At birth, than 1 years of age
A series of 2 to 3 doses over time
A single dose
At birth, than at 6 months
69
Which infection is Fluconazole most commonly used to treat?
Candida albicans
Pneumocystis pneumonia
Cryptococcus
Aspergillus
70
Which is a correct method for administering Nystatin liquid?
Subcutaneous injection
Swish and swallow
Inhalation
IV push
71
What makes viruses different from bacteria?
Viruses cannot mutate
Viruses can reproduce on their own
Viruses have cell walls and nuclei
Viruses are non-living and must enter a host cell to replicate
72
Before self-injecting adalimumab at home, patients should first:
Drink plenty of caffeine to reduce pain
Practice an injection with a healthcare provider present
Shake the pen vigorously for 30 seconds
Freeze the pen to numb the site
73
Which serious side effect is commonly associated with Gentamicin?
Constipation and rash
Ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity
Hypertension and weight gain
Liver failure
74
What is the recommended use for Cefazolin (Ancef)?
Antiviral therapy for influenza
Fungal skin infections
Treatment for MRSA infections
Surgical prophylaxis and gram-positive infections
75
What does a prolonged QTc interval caused by Azithromycin indicate?
Low blood pressure
Liver damage
Increased risk of irregular heartbeats
Blood clots in the lungs
76
What is the role of protease in the HIV life cycle?
It converts RNA into DNA
It destroys the host immune cell
It helps HIV enter the CD4 cell
It packages and processes viral proteins for new HIV particles
77
IgM is present with a NEW infection? (superinfection)
True
False
78
Azithromycin (Z-Pack) belongs to which class of antibiotics?
Aminoglycosides
Tetracyclines
Cephalosporins
Macrolides
79
Which IM site is recommended for giving up to 3 mL of an oil-based solution in adults?
Subcutaneous
Deltoid
Ventrogluteal
Vastus lateralis
80
Which types of hepatitis currently have a vaccine available?
Hepatitis B and C
Hepatitis C only
All types
Hepatitis A and B
81
Gentamicin belongs to which class of antibiotics?
Cephalosporin
Aminoglycoside
Fluoroquinolone
Macrolide
82
What is the purpose of Pre-Exposure Prophylaxis (PrEP)?
To eliminate the need for condom use
To treat people already diagnosed with HIV
To reduce symptoms of HIV infection
To prevent HIV in HIV-negative people at risk
83
How is Trousseau’s sign tested, and what does it indicate?
Carpal spasm when a blood pressure cuff is inflated; sign of hypocalcemia
Pulse slows when BP cuff inflates; sign of hypernatremia
Hand flattens under pressure; sign of osteoporosis
Tingling in feet during walking; sign of hypokalemia
84
What is one of the main uses of Zidovudine (AZT)?
Curing MRSA
Treating latent tuberculosis
Preventing HIV transmission to the fetus
Treating influenza
85
What is an important administration instruction for Bactrim?
Crush the tablet before use
Take with a full glass of water
Take on an empty stomach with dairy
Take with orange juice
86
Which of the following is a sign of ototoxicity from Vancomycin?
Hearing loss and ringing in ears
Chest pain
Constipation
Skin peeling
87
Why is Tetracycline contraindicated in pregnancy?
It raises estrogen levels
It reduces labor contractions
It causes high blood pressure
It may cause birth defects and teeth discoloration in the fetus
88
What type of virus is influenza?
DNA virus
Retrovirus
RNA virus
Bacterial pathogen
89
A patient was ordered an oral tetracycline, Sumycin, for a skin infection. The nurse should instruct the patient to
Avoid taking the medicine with milk or Tums
Reduce fluid intake to prevent renal failure
Eat fresh fruit to prevent constipation
Get as much daily direct sunlight as possible
90
What is a common use for Bactrim?
COVID-19
Parasitic infections
Ear infections in infants
PCP pneumonia and urinary tract infections, Bronchitis
91
What is an important responsibility for individuals diagnosed with HIV?
Keep diagnosis private from partners
Avoid all medications
Only test if symptoms worsen
Disclose status to partners and promote access to PrEP
92
Ciprofloxacin belongs to which class of antibiotics?
Aminoglycoside
Fluoroquinolone
Macrolide
Tetracycline
93
Before administering a penicillin-class drug, a nurse should first?
Administer a test dose of the drug
Administer a fluid bolus
Check the client's allergies
Insert an indwelling urinary catheter
94
What reduces the risk of HIV transmission from mother to baby to less than 1%?
Giving iron supplements during pregnancy
Natural childbirth
Keeping the viral load below 50 copies/mL
Avoiding breastfeeding
95
What drugs are commonly used to treat chronic Hepatitis C?
Zidovudine and acyclovir
Interferon and ribavirin
Ibuprofen and metformin
Penicillin and amantadine
96
Acyclovir belongs to which class of antiviral medications?
Protease inhibitors
Nucleoside analogs
Reverse transcriptase inhibitors
Integrase inhibitors
97
Tetracycline can reduce the effectiveness of which medication?
Insulin
Antidepressants
Beta blockers
Oral contraceptives
98
What type of Bactria is Penicillin's?
Gram negative
Neither
Gram Positive
Both
99
How should Ciprofloxacin be taken in relation to antacids and iron?
ke on an empty stomach with calcium
Take with antacids for better absorption
Take 4 hours after antacids or iron
Take at bedtime with milk
100
Which statement is true about condom use for people taking PrEP?
PrEP replaces the need for condoms
PrEP prevents all types of infections
Condoms are still needed to prevent other STIs
Condoms reduce the effectiveness of PrEP
101
Which of the following should be included in patient teaching for colchicine?
Double the dose if symptoms worsen.”
“Avoid alcohol and high-purine foods.”
Use colchicine regularly to lower uric acid levels
ake with grapefruit juice to enhance absorption.
102
Which strategies help prevent the spread of HIV?
Using only herbal supplements
Antibiotics and vaccination
Avoiding dairy and caffeine
PEP, PrEP, and regular testing
103
What is the main action of Teriparatide (Forteo)?
Stimulates new bone formation via PTH
Replaces calcitonin
Decreases calcium reabsorption
Stimulates osteoclasts
104
While taking colchicine, a patient should be taught to report which of the following symptoms immediately?
Headache and runny nose
Muscle pain, tingling, or bleeding
Cough and sore throat
Skin dryness and itching
105
What is the most common risk factor for osteoporosis?
High blood pressure
Menopause
Iron deficiency
Frequent running
106
How is adalimumab most commonly administered for rheumatoid arthritis?
Intramuscular depot monthly
Subcutaneous injection every other week
Oral tablet once daily
Weekly IV infusion
107
Ciprofloxacin is commonly used to treat which of the following?
UTIs
Tuberculosis
Fungal infections
Viral pneumonia
108
What may happen if Calcitriol is taken with thiazide diuretics or digoxin?
It improves bone absorption
It prevents fluid retention
It increases the risk of low potassium
It may cause hypercalcemia and dysrhythmias
109
Adalimumab belongs to which pharmacologic class?
TNF antagonist (biologic DMARD)
JAK inhibitor
Calcineurin inhibitor
IL-6 receptor blocker
110
Which serious adverse reaction is associated with Allopurinol?
Anaphylaxis
Hypertensive crisis
Stevens-Johnson syndrome
Osteonecrosis
111
Which of the following symptoms may indicate bone marrow suppression from Bactrim?
Increased appetite and weight gain
Rash and itching only
Fatigue, bruising, and frequent infections
Insomnia and dry mouth
112
Which of the following should be avoided while taking Tetracycline?
Dairy products
Coffee
Vitamin C
Acetaminophen
113
Efavirenz should be used cautiously with which of the following?
Statins, methadone, and St. John's wort
Antacids and antihistamines
Iron supplements and calcium
Antibiotics and NSAIDs
114
How should Azithromycin be taken for best absorption?
With orange juice and toast
With dairy
With a high-fat meal
On an empty stomach with water
115
C.Diff is an adverse reaction of Cephalosporins?
False
True
116
Which trough level is appropriate for safe Vancomycin therapy?
5–10 mcg/mL
10–20 mcg/mL
30–40 mcg/mL
15–25 mcg/mL
117
Which symptoms are most commonly associated with Red Man Syndrome from Vancomycin?
Facial flushing, hypotension, upper body rash
High fever and hallucinations
Tongue swelling and wheezing only
Severe diarrhea and muscle cramping
118
Methotrexate is not safe for pregnant people
False
True
119
Gentamicin should be used with caution in patients taking which of the following?
Omeprazole
Acetaminophen
Vancomycin or furosemide or aspirin
Lisinopril
120
Which of the following is a common adverse effect of Efavirenz?
Constipation
Sleep disturbances, nightmares, and dizziness
Blurred vision
Hypoglycemia
121
When osteomalacia occurs in children, it is called Rickets
False
True
122
How should adalimumab (Humira) be stored before use?
Store in direct sunlight
Store at room temperature at all times
Freeze the drug to prolong shelf life
Keep refrigerated and warm to room temperature before injection
123
Efavirenz belongs to which class of antiretroviral drugs?
Protease inhibitor
Entry inhibitor
NRTI
NNRTI (Nonnucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor)
124
Zidovudine (Retrovir) (HAART) belongs to which class of antiretroviral medications?
Entry inhibitor
NNRTI
Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI)
Protease inhibitor
125
Which patient should NOT receive alendronate?
Patient taking vitamin D supplements
Patient with mild GERD controlled by diet
Patient with osteomalacia or significant esophageal abnormalities
Patient with corticosteroid-induced osteoporosis
126
Which serious adverse effect is associated with Zidovudine?
Seizures
Heart attack
Bone marrow suppression and lactic acidosis
Hypothyroidism
127
What part of the virus helps trigger an immune response in the body?
The RNA core
The viral nucleus
The lipid envelope only
The protein spikes on the lipid envelope
128
Which are possible signs of calcium supplement overdose?
Bradycardia and muscle cramps only
Fever, cough, and sore throat
Rash and increased appetite
Confusion, dehydration, renal stones, and cardiac arrest
129
What is the primary use of colchicine?
Lowering uric acid levels
Treating and preventing gout flares
Curing Gout
Treating rheumatoid arthritis
130
Azithromycin (Z-Pack) is commonly used to treat which of the following?
Legionnaires’ disease
Common cold
Tuberculosis
Fungal sinus infections
131
What is the primary mechanism of action for bisphosphonates?
Increase calcium absorption from the gut
Promote calcium excretion through kidneys
Stimulate osteoblast activity
Inhibit osteoclast-mediated bone resorption
132
What should patients be advised to do when taking antibiotics?
Stop taking them once they feel better
Skip doses if they cause nausea
Take the full course as prescribed
Take them with soda for faster absorption
133
Prolia (denosumab) is used in:
Postmenopausal women at high fracture risk
Menopausal women at low risk for fractures
Young athletes with bone injuries
Pediatric bone disorders
134
What adverse effect is associated with rapid IV infusion of Vancomycin?
Red Man Syndrome
Tinnitus
Seizures
Visual disturbances
135
What lifestyle habits should be encouraged in HIV-positive clients?
Practice oral care, infection prevention, and protect skin from sun
Discontinue medications when feeling well
Avoid exercise and stay isolated
Focus only on nutrition
136
Which of the following labs should be monitored during HIV treatment?
Pregnancy test and cholesterol only
PT/INR and troponin
CD4, viral load, LFTs, CBC, and kidney function
Hemoglobin A1C and urinalysis
137
Which medications are associated with increased risk for osteoporosis?
Corticosteroids and anticonvulsants
SSRIs and statins
Antacids and antihistamines
Beta blockers and diuretics
138
Which substances may increase the risk of side effects or reduce effectiveness when taken with Ciprofloxacin?
Lisinopril and folic acid
Caffeine and corticosteroids
Multivitamins only
Tylenol and vitamin C
139
Zidovudine (HAART) can cause anemia & requires CBC monitoring
True
False
140
TB pts on Isoniazid should avoid Tyramine foods such as meats, cheese, beer and wine
True
False
141
What should patients avoid while taking HIV medications?
Protein shakes
Fiber and whole grains
Alcohol, acidic, and carbonated drinks
Ice cream and cold food
142
Which of the following is true about administering Calcitriol?
It must be taken with calcium-rich foods only
It should be protected from light and heat
It should be given with magnesium antacids
It is safe in any amount during pregnancy
143
Colchicine lowers uric acid levels to treat the root cause of gout.
True
False
144
How should oral calcium carbonate be taken for best absorption?
On an empty stomach before bed
With meals or within 1 hour after meals
With zinc and dairy products
With black coffee or citrus juice
145
A nurse is teaching a patient starting Rifampin. Which statement indicates understanding?
“I should avoid wearing contact lenses while on this medication
“I should report if my sweat turns blue.”
“This drug must be taken with dairy to prevent side effects.”
“I will stop taking the medication if my urine changes color.”
146
Nystatin is commonly used to treat which type of infection?
Histoplasmosis
Candida infections of the mouth, skin, or vagina
Systemic fungal infections
Tinea pedis
147
What is a serious risk associated with adalimumab therapy?
Tuberculosis and hepatitis B reactivation
Sudden vision loss
Acute liver failure
Hypoglycemia and weight gain
148
When should Dolutegravir be taken in relation to calcium supplements?
2 hours before or 6 hours after calcium
with milk at breakfast
1 hr before and 4 hrs after calcium
With calcium at bedtime
149
Which neurological or cardiac symptom is associated with hypercalcemia?
It strengthens bones and increases flexibility
It causes joint swelling and arthritis
Muscle spasms and tetany
It leads to bone pain and muscle weakness
150
What is a serious cardiovascular risk associated with raloxifene?
Hypertension
Venous thromboembolism (VTE) such as DVT or PE
Heart failure
Bradycardia
151
Which of the following is a classic symptom of osteomalacia?
Constipation and memory loss
Chest pain and blurry vision
Dry skin and low heart rate
Hypocalcemia, hip bone pain, and muscle weakness
152
What is the role of integrase inhibitors in HIV treatment?
Help HIV bind to CD4 receptors
Increase replication speed
Prevent HIV from converting RNA to DNA
Stop the integration of viral DNA into host DNA
153
What does Bacteriostatic mean?
Kills bacteria
Spreads bacteria
Slows the growth of bacteria
Transport bacteria
154
Why should Efavirenz be used cautiously with alcohol and psychotropic drugs?
They delay absorption of the drug
They increase the risk of CNS side effects like confusion & hallucinations
They cause rapid drug elimination
They cause allergic reactions
155
Penicillin's binds to what?
Nucleic acid
Cell membrane
Protein synthesis
Cell walls, allows water in
156
Which of the following symptoms may indicate lactic acidosis from Zidovudine (AZT)?
Drowsiness, blurred vision, and dry mouth
Cough, runny nose, and chest pain
Fatigue, nausea, muscle pain, and rapid breathing
Insomnia, restlessness, and joint stiffness
157
What is the main function of HIV protease inhibitors like Lopinavir/Ritonavir?
Block entry into the red blood cells
Boost immune response
Inhibit the enzyme needed to package mature viral proteins
Prevent formation of reverse transcriptase
158
Which medication may have reduced absorption if taken with calcium?
Tetracycline antibiotics
Lisinopril
Digoxin
Acetaminophen
159
How is osteoporosis diagnosed?
Bone mineral density 1.0 SD above average
A positive rheumatoid factor
Bone mineral density ≥ 2.5 SD below that of a healthy young adult
High levels of serum calcium
160
Which of the following is a serious adverse effect of Bactrim?
Weight gain
High blood pressure
Bone marrow suppression
Constipation
161
Azithromycin should be used with caution in patients taking which medication?
Warfarin
Vitamin D
Acetaminophen
Ibuprofen
162
Which statement is true about Hepatitis C?
It only affects children
It is usually mild and self-limiting
There is no vaccine, but it can be treated with antivirals
It can be prevented with a vaccine
163
How should Zidovudine be taken?
With grapefruit juice
ginger ale
With milk
On an empty stomach with water (no fruit juice)
164
Why must bisphosphonates be taken on an empty stomach?
Food & other medications significantly reduce their already poor absorption
They are rapidly metabolized in the stomach
They require acidic conditions to activate
They cause hypoglycemia with food
165
What serious side effects are more common with IV Acyclovir?
Hallucinations and hearing loss
Diarrhea and rash
Tachycardia and dry mouth
Neurotoxicity and nephrotoxicity
166
Why should patients avoid caffeine and carbonated beverages while taking antibiotics?
They can interfere with drug absorption or increase side effects
They make the antibiotic taste worse
They have no impact and can be taken freely
They increase antibiotic effectiveness too much
167
Tetracyclines needs to be taken with a full glass of water
False
True
168
What is a serious adverse effect associated with Ciprofloxacin?
Hearing loss
Skin peeling
Achilles tendon rupture
Liver failure
169
Dolutegravir belongs to which class of antiretroviral drugs?
Entry Inhibitor
NNRTI
Protease Inhibitor
Integrase Inhibitor
170
If the first HPV dose is given after age 15, how many total doses are needed?
2
1
3
they are too old to get it
171
At what age is the annual influenza vaccine recommended?
Older than 6 months
Only for healthcare workers
Only in adults
Older than 1 year
172
What is a rare but serious side effect of long-term bisphosphonate use?
Hair loss
Liver failure
Osteonecrosis of the jaw
Hypercalcemia
173
Vancomycin should be used cautiously in which patients?
Patients with liver cirrhosis
Athletes with muscle injuries
Older adults and those with kidney disease
Pregnant women in third trimester
174
Calcitonin lowers blood calcium by inhibiting OSTEOCLASTS
False
True
175
How does Raloxifene affect cholesterol levels?
It raises triglycerides and lowers LDL
It increases LDL and lowers HDL
It has no impact on cholesterol levels
It decreases total cholesterol and LDL without lowering HDL
176
Which forms of hepatitis are most commonly associated with liver inflammation?
B, C, and HIV
D, E, and F
A, B, and C
A, E, and G
177
Which of the following groups is considered high-risk for complications from the flu?
Smokers only
Pregnant women and immunocompromised patients
Teenagers
College athletes
178
Vitamin B6 is found in what foods to help prevent peripheral neuropathy.
Avocados, Dairy, Orange juice
Dark meats, Pork, Eggs
Potatoes, Lean meats, Chickpeas, Bananas
dark leafy green vegetables
179
How long should you wait between administering IV penicillin and IV aminoglycosides to prevent drug interaction?
2 hrs
15 mins
1 hour
30 mins
180
Which cell type does HIV primarily target in the immune system?
Red blood cells
B lymphocytes
Macrophages only
T4 lymphocytes with CD4 receptors
181
How do NRTIs (Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors) work against HIV?
They stop protein synthesis in bacteria
The virus mistakes the drug for a nucleoside and creates defective DNA
They block the virus from entering the cell
They destroy the CD4 receptor
182
What is the purpose of antiviral drugs like acyclovir for herpesvirus infections?
To permanently eliminate the virus
To cure the infection after one dose
To stop allergic reactions
To reduce symptoms and prevent recurrences
183
What is used for post-exposure protection against Hepatitis A or B?
HAIg for Hep A, HBIg for Hep B
Ribavirin for both
Corticosteroids
Antifungal medication
184
Which of the following is an antiviral medication used to treat influenza?
Tenofovir
Acyclovir
Zidovudine
Oseltamivir (Tamiflu)
185
What symptom may indicate a possible superinfection such as C. diff?
Diarrhea
Dry mouth
Constipation
Sweating
186
How should Efavirenz be taken for best results?
With milk and antacids
At bedtime, avoiding high-fat meals
With a high-fat dinner
In the morning with a cup of water
187
Acyclovir is commonly used to treat which viral infections?
HIV and HPV
HSV-1, HSV-2, and Varicella Zoster
Influenza and hepatitis B
Bacterial pneumonia
188
Raloxifene is primarily used to:
Reduce cholesterol and treat breast cancer
Prevent cardiovascular disease in all adults
Treat existing osteoporosis in men and women
Prevent osteoporosis & reduce risk of breast cancer in postmenopausal women
189
How are bisphosphonates eliminated from the body?
By binding to bone and being cleared by the kidneys
By hepatic metabolism through the CYP450 system
Through fecal excretion
Via sweat and saliva
190
Acyclovir should be used cautiously with which of the following?
Ibuprofen and aspirin
Zidovudine and nephrotoxic drugs
Antacids and antihistamines
Acetaminophen and vitamin B12

Pharm exam 2 NUR 334 Flashcards | StudBud