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MEAS lab techniques
MEAS lab techniques
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1
Where does Rh antigen get its name
RBC appearance
all the above
rhesus monkey
blood types
2
which of teh following refers to the rupturing of red blood cells
blood drawing
none of these
hemolysis
coagulation
3
ELISA and western blot test are used to confirm
gout
anemia
diabetes
HIV infection
4
Which of the following individuals is most at risk for erythroblastosis fetalis?
teh second Rh positive fetus born to a Rh negative mother
the father
nobody
a mother
5
Phlebotomists perform
ear cleaning
MRIs
venipuncture
ECGs
6
You can touch the reagent areas with the fingers during testing
True
False
7
yeast is produced by budding
False
True
8
what does a basophil do?
kills bacteria
clots the blood
clean the blood
they release histamine and heparin
9
The ocular is the eyepiece through which the image is viewed.
False
True
10
Globulins transport lipids and some fat-soluble vitamins in plasma.
True
False
11
The buildup of fatty deposits in the walls of the arteries is known as:
arthrostenosis
pericarditis
diabetes
atherosclerosis
12
The Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments of 1988 had an impact on physician's office laboratories in which way?
it helped
it made them more controlled
doctors offices closed their labs
it had no effect
13
What color stopper tube is used to collect a blood specimen for a prothrombin timed test?
yellow
red
light blue
green
14
When blood coagulates on a vessel wall in the absence of a known injury, it is correctly referred to as __________ .
Clot
Thrombus
Embolus
A bad day
15
Acid-fast stains are used to identify bacteria that have a waxy cell wall.
True
False
16
drawing blood from a vein is called
hemophillia
hemolysis
hematuria
phlebotomy
17
mold produce spores
True
False
18
A centrifuge is a device for spinning a specimen at high speed until it separates into its component parts.
False
True
19
what temperature is usually required for storing testing materials and performing lab testing
body temp
room temp
cold temp
between 100-104
20
Where can a POCT be
all of them
emergency departments
ambulances
radiology
21
What is the life span of a WBC
4 months
1 year
12- 20 days
6 months
22
What odor does a urine specimen have if it has been standing out at room temperature for a long period of time?
slightly aromatic
foul smelling
ammonia
fruity
23
certificate of waiver test pose an insignificant risk to the patient if they are performed or interpreted incorrectly
True
False
24
Plasma makes up what percent of blood
20%
18%
44%
55%
25
Anaerobes are bacteria that grow best in the absence of oxygen.
False
True
26
reagent Strips are considered Qualitative test
True
False
27
the purpose of CLIA 88 is to
improve the quality of lab testing in the US
ensure safety in the lab
prevent errors in technique during lab testing
prevent exposure
28
Laboratories that perform moderate-complexity tests ________.
must have a pathologist
both answers are correct
neither answer is correct
can be sone by anyone
29
Patients with diabetes and clinical personnel use which of the following to monitor blood glucose levels?
glucometer
centerfuge
microscope
lense
30
The production of RBCs in the blood is controlled by which hormone?
Amino acids
Oxytocin
erythropoietin
Cortisol
31
If a patient faints while drawing blood what do you do
lower him to the floor while protecting his head
thrust his head between his legs
continue to draw blood
wipe his face with a cold towel
32
What is the preferred site for venipuncture
femoral veins
ulnar
medical cubital vein
radial
33
what is the rupturing of red blood cells
hemophilia
hemolysis
phlebotomy
whole blood
34
What is a buffy coat
muscle
lipid
sheep wool
layer between a packed RBC and plasma
35
Microbiology is the study of microorganisms.
False
True
36
The presence of bile pigments in a urine specimen causes the specimen to be:
foul smelling
yellow brown
red
light amber
37
What is morphology
the study of the shape or form
the study of transformers
the study of butterflies
the study of blood
38
The definition of eosinophil?
RBC
platelets
monocyte
type of granulocyte that attacks parasites
39
what is the most common type of urine sample
24 hour
clean catch
random
first morning
40
Which of the following are bacteria that grow best in the presence of oxygen?
anaerobes
slide
smear
aerobes
41
fungi are subcellular microorganisms.
True
False
42
normal WBC count
5,000-10,000 cells
70 cells
1-5 million cells
12-20 cells
43
what is the normal range of RBC for adult males
5.6- 7.3
6.2-7
4.2-5.4
4.6-6.2
44
What is workplace drug testing
toxicology
cytology
immunology
serology
45
leukocyte is a red blood cell
True
False
46
What disorder is a complication of a strep infection manifested by inflammation of the heart tissue?
chicken pox
rheumatic fever
mumps
the flu
47
Which laboratory tests examine blood, urine, sputum, reproductive fluids, and fluids from wounds to identify pathogens
all the above
Microbiologic test
toxicology test
serologic test
48
A pap smear used to detect cervical cancer is sent to which department of a reference laboratory?
toxicology
cytology
WBC
RBC
49
What is the purpose of performing a routine test?
to assist in the early detection of disease.
to determine medication dosage to administer to a patient
to detect the presence of an acute infection
to assist in the clinical diagnosis of a patient
50
what type of blood is the universal recipient
B
A
O
AB
51
A patient who is fasting ( FOR LAB TEST) is allowed to consume
nothing
water
chicken wings
cherry coke
52
Bacilli are responsible for gastroenteritis, tuberculosis, whooping cough, botulism, and tetanus.
True
False
53
formed elements are red blood cells white blood cells platelets
True
False
54
what is whole blood
total volume of plasma and formed elements
renal disease
kidney failure
blood after it has been spun
55
what is the first step in drawing blood
wipe the area with cleaner
look at expiration dates
identify name and date of birth
check the needle
56
when mix matched blood is given top a patient the blood recieved will be accepted
False
True
57
What does QNS mean
quarterly not sustanable
queens never sleep
quantity not sufficient
Quebec Narnia South
58
What is the most common cause of anemia
AIDS
iron deficiency
where you were born
kidney failure
59
Which of the following types of bacteria are responsible for infections such as syphilis and Lyme disease?
vibrios
germs
bacilli
Spirilla
60
All of the following are examples of CLIA-waived tests except:
urine pregnancy testing
microscopic analysis of urine sediment
fecal occult blood testing
blood glucose determination
61
Control samples serve as a check on the accuracy of a lab test and are used before each patient sample is processed.
False
True
62
hemostasis is the control of bleeding
False
True
63
How long do red blood cells live
4 months
20 days
5 weeks
1 year
64
Which of the following was created in response to public concern over the accuracy of laboratory testing?
CMS
OSHA
CLIA '88
HIPPA
65
A bacterial infection has been present in a patient for about 2 weeks if the WBC differential shows __________ .
elevated monocytes
nothing
basophils
increased neutrophils
66
Blood platelets are essential for __________ .
Blood pressure maintenance
Clotting
Reducing inflammation
Carrying oxygen
67
The normal blood calcium level is ________.
1.5-3.6 mEq/l
5.8-8.1 mEq/l
20-13 mEg/l
8.6- 10.0 mEq/l
68
The spiral-shaped bacterium is parasite
False
True
69
Parasitic infections can be controlled by which of these WBCs?
neutrophils
I don’t know
lymphocytes
eosinophils
70
Which method of drawing blood would you use on a patient with small or fragile veins
20 gage needle
blood culture system
winged infusion collection system
capillary puncture system
71
Fibrinogen is important in the blood-clotting process.
True
False
72
Normal PT time is
6-10 seconds
15 seconds
5 minutes
11-15 seconds
73
A subcellular microorganism is noncellular; it consists of DNA or RNA surrounded by a protein coat.
True
False
74
neutrophils kill bacteria and viruses
False
True
75
what is the most common antiseptic used to clean the skin before blood draws
alcohol
acid
coffee
bleach
76
what is a POCT
complex testing
no testing
test near the patient
moderate testing
77
The most common way to classify bacteria is according to their color
False
True
78
Which lab test uses samples of whole blood to identify problems that could indicate dis
hematologic test
all of the above
chemical analysis
cytology
79
A pH reading of 8 means the urine specimen is:
contaminated
alkaline
neutral
acidic
80
what is a gram stain
a slide
a method of staining that differentiates bacteria
a stain that loses its purple color
a stain that retais the purple color
81
what type of blood can a person with O blood recieve
A
B
AB
O
82
malaria and trichomoniasis vaginitis are examples of diseases caused by viruses
True
False
83
What should be done if a control does not perform as expected?
record the results as valid
do not perform patient test until problem is solved
perform calibration procedures
perform testing as usual
84
period of time in which the first symptoms indicating an approaching disease occur is known as:
acute period
prodromal period
symptomatic
all the above
85
The comma-shaped bacteria is vibrios
False
True
86
Diplococci are pairs of cocci.
False
True
87
Which of the following urine tests may be positive when a patient has hepatitis?
glucose
ketone bodies
protein
bilirubin
88
what test require a collection tube with a green stopper
blood glucose test
coagulation test
blood cultures
electrocyte studies
89
which of the following is an example of a unique identifier
patients name and DOB
date and time
source of specimen
MA initials
90
Which of the following is considered a normal WBC count?
150,000-200,000 cells
300-500 cells
6,700 cells
1-5 million cells
91
which of the following in a quality control method
discarding outdated reagents
proper storage of test systems
calibration
all of the above
92
Protozoans, fungi, and parasites are bacteria
False
True
93
What is the definition of a lancet?
a scaple
a tiny instrument that pricks the finger
a blade
a pokey item
94
Which of the following is an example of a microorganism that is classified a prokaryotic cell?
parasite
fungi
virus
Bacterim
95
what is residual urine
urine in a catheter
the color of urine
urine in a drug sample
urine remaining in the bladder after voiding
96
Some WBCs leave the bloodstream by squeezing through blood vessel walls in a process known as diapedesis
True
False
97
Staphylococci can cause a variety of infections, including boils acne abscesses food poisoning, and a type of pneumonia.
True
False
98
The percentage of red blood cells found in a sample of blood is called the __________ .
WBC
RBC
Serum
Hematocrit
99
What is the normal RBC for adult females
4.6- 6.2
4.2- 5.4
4-10
7-12
100
What is the name for a control that is built into the test system
standard
internal control
proficiency control
external control
101
Which of the following may cause a control to fail to produce expected results
all of the above
improper storage
outdated testing reagents
not performing the procedure correctly
102
what can weaken the body's ability to fight infection?
Good heallth
Cancer treatment
High protein diet
proper hygiene
103
Which part of an optical microscope contains a magnifying lens?
objective
stage
focus controls
arm
104
If a fetus develops erythroblastosis fetalis, what medical intervention is often required at birth?
oxygen
multiple blood transfusions
blue light thearpy
RhoGam injections
105
Viruses are among the smallest infectious agents and cannot be seen with a regular microscope.
True
False
106
When a blood vessel is broken, what is the body's
first
response?
Smooth muscle contraction
platelet plug
to fall off
both red and green
107
what is a hematoma
blood rushing to the brain
packed red blood cells
carbon dixoide
swelling of blood under the skin
108
the recommended A1c level for an individual with diabetes id less than 7%
False
True
109
normal range for fasting blood glucose
140-160
100-125
74-120
20-80
110
The usual microscope in a POL is an optical microscope with three objectives.
False
True
111
The color stain is the most common staining procedure in the medical office.
True
False
112
Prokaryotic cells are simply structured with a single chromosome and no organelles.
True
False
113
The focus of quality control program is to ensure accuracy in test results through careful monitoring of test procedures
False
True
114
What is an example of a biohazard
hair
Blood
fire
acids
115
Which of the following would the medical provider expect a patient with AIDS to have?
Increased lymphocytes
Decreased monocytes
Increased monocytes
decreased lymphocytes
116
what is a Cast
a slender curved long bone
clearness in writing or stating a message
a spirial shaped canal in the internal ear
cylinder shaped elements with flat or rounded ends
117
the erythrocyte sedimentation rate blood test screens for which of the following
red blood cells
inflammatory process
low blood sugars
anemia
118
Which of the following are characteristics of eukaryotic cells?
Simple cell structure
none of the above
Only in plants
complex cell structures with a nucleus and specialized organelles
119
eosinophil
leukocyte that produces immune responses
clot forming process
process that forms a clot
leukocyet that attacks parasites and destroyes bacteria
120
the purpose of quality control is to
protect MA from blood born pathogens
prevent accidents
ensure accurate and valid test results
ensure results are within normal range
121
what is an example of a POCT
pregnancy test
blood clotting test
urine dipstick test
all the above
122
what is for pap smears detecting cervical cancers
uranalysis
immunology
cytology
toxicology
123
diapedesis is WBC leaving the bloodstream by squeezing through blood vessel walls
False
True
124
what amount of residual urine is considered abnormal
25mL
51 mL
50 mL
70 mL
125
If a laboratory report is returned to the medical office marked QNS, it means:
an insufficient amount was submitted
the patient didn't not prepare for the test
the test results fall outside of the normal range
the specimen was contaminated
126
Infectious mononucleosis is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus and causes fever, sore throat, and swollen lymph glands.
False
True
127
The head of a hospital laboratory is usually a:
Physician
Pathologist
Medical Assistant
there is no boss and everyone works together
128
What is the definition of erythropoietin?
hormone secreted by the kidneys and regulates RBS
none of these
the amount of meds in each drug
hormone secreted by the thyroid
129
About how much blood does the average adult body contain?
14 liters
4 to 6 liters
2-5 liters
7-6 liters
130
Basophils release histamine, which promotes inflammation.
False
True
131
Bacteria and viruses are destroyed by white blood cells called __________ .
lymphocytes
plasma
neutrophils
platelets
132
LAb test results are included on a lab request form
True
False
133
If a POL is performing moderate-complexity tests, CLIA requires:
all the above
2 levels of controls daily
calibration procedures at least every 6 months
proficiency testing 3 times a year
134
what is the average urine output for adults
12-20 mL
1678 mL
1009 mL
1250 mL
135
An infestation is an infection caused by a parasite.
False
True
136
Beneficial bacteria found in the body that perform functions such as producing vitamins are called ________.
Pathogen
Immune flora
normal flora
acid fast bacteria
137
the abbreviation for centimeter is cm
False
True
138
What is the definition of packed red cells?
red blood cells
platelets
rbc that collect at the bottom of centrifuged blood sample
blood
139
A quality assurance program is designed to monitor the quality of patient care a lab provides
False
True
140
Sickle cell anemia affects about 1 in every 500 African Americans and 1 in every 1,400 Latinos born in the United States
False
True
141
WHat typpe of blood is the universal donor
B
A
O
AB
142
What is the name of a solution of a dye or group of dyes that imparts a distinctive color to microorganisms?
medium
culture
Stain
smear
143
The formation of a blood clot is called __________ .
coagulation
scab
who knows
hemolysis
144
what do you use when you cant use alcohol for blood draws
acid
bleach
chlorine
providone- iodine
145
Facultative bacteria can grow only with the presence of oxygen.
False
True
146
where can an embolus get lodged?
all of the above
lungs
brain
heart
147
A microorganism capable of causing disease is a ________.
fungi
food
Pathogen
Bug
148
Basoohil
pigmented protein
a leukocyte that attacks parasites
a leukocyte taht produces immunologic responses
a hormone secreted by the kidneys
149
When a part of a thrombus breaks off, it is referred to as __________ .
Thrombus
Embolus
Swimmer
Clot
150
What is a healthy Platelet count
16-90
130,000-500,000
1-5 million
150,000- 450,000
151
If an embolus lodges in a coronary artery, it may cause __________ .
embolis
heart attack
a bad day
stroke
152
Why is it important to handle and store a specimen properly?
to reduce the time needed to test the specimen
to maintain the qualities of the specimen
to keep the results within normal range
you don't have to
153
what is a straight catheter
neither
collect specimens or give medications
both
must remain for a week
154
name given to the interval of time between the invasion by pathogen and the appearance of first symptom of the disease
incubation period
prodromal period
symptom period
infectious period
155
Which of the following routine tests are most often performed at the physician’s office laboratory (POL)?
toxicology
immunology
chemistry and hematology
blood typing
156
Why is a first-voided morning specimen preferred for performing a microscopic examination?
it has more abnormal substances
it is more dilute
it contains more dissolved substances
it is the same as all other sets
157
Resident normal flora performs a number of important functions and typically do not cause disease.
False
True
158
A reference Lab is in the physicians office
False
True