4/2 Trivia Night

Question 1

Which antidote is given for acetaminophen overdose?

Accepted Answer

B) Acetylcysteine

Question 2

A client with HIV has a CD4 count <200. They are at risk for:

Accepted Answer

B) Opportunistic infections

Question 3

(SATA) Which are signs of increased ICP?

Accepted Answer

B) Bradycardia, D) Unequal pupils, A) Decerebrate posturing

Question 4

(SATA) Which are risk factors for DVT?

Accepted Answer

B) Surgery, A) Immobility, C) Oral contraceptives

Question 5

(SATA) Which drugs increase the risk of bleeding?

Accepted Answer

A) Aspirin, C) Heparin, B) Warfarin

Question 6

A client with a pulmonary embolism is most likely to exhibit:

Accepted Answer

A) Tachycardia & dyspnea

Question 7

(SATA) Which clients are at risk for hyperkalemia?

Accepted Answer

C) Crush injury, A) Renal failure, B) On spironolactone

Question 8

Which lab value indicates a risk for bleeding in a client on heparin?

Accepted Answer

B) aPTT > 70 seconds

Question 9

Which heart sound is abnormal in an adult?

Accepted Answer

C) S3

Question 10

Which finding is most concerning in a post-op client?

Accepted Answer

D) Absent bowel sounds

Question 11

(SATA) Which drugs cause ototoxicity?

Accepted Answer

D) Furosemide, B) Gentamicin

Question 12

A client with C. diff should be placed on:

Accepted Answer

B) Contact precautions

Question 13

A client with Parkinson’s has a mask-like face. Which nursing action is best?

Accepted Answer

A) Encourage expression

Question 14

(SATA) Which findings are late signs of shock?

Accepted Answer

B) Hypotension, D) Bradycardia, A) Anuria

Question 15

(SATA) Which interventions are correct for a seizure?

Accepted Answer

A) Turn to side, D) Time the seizure, C) Loosen clothing

Question 16

(SATA) Which interventions prevent pressure ulcers?

Accepted Answer

C) Keep skin dry, A) Reposition every 2 hrs, B) Use moisture barrier

Question 17

(SATA) Which nursing actions are correct for a chest tube?

Accepted Answer

D) Monitor for sudden absence of bubbling, B) Assess for tidaling, C) Keep drainage system below chest level

Question 18

(SATA) Which conditions cause metabolic acidosis?

Accepted Answer

D) Severe diarrhea, C) Renal failure, A) DKA

Question 19

A client with COPD should avoid which medication?

Accepted Answer

B) Beta-blockers

Question 20

(SATA) Which clients are at risk for fluid volume overload?

Accepted Answer

D) SIADH, C) Renal failure, A) Heart failure

Question 21

(SATA) Which are symptoms of hypothyroidism?

Accepted Answer

D) Cold intolerance, B) Weight gain, C) Fatigue

Question 22

(SATA) Which nursing actions prevent catheter-associated UTIs?

Accepted Answer

C) Keep bag below bladder, A) Maintain closed system, B) Secure tubing

Question 23

(SATA) Which signs indicate opioid overdose?

Accepted Answer

A) Pinpoint pupils, B) Respiratory depression, D) Unresponsiveness

Question 24

Which drug requires weekly CBC monitoring?

Accepted Answer

D) Clozapine

Question 25

(SATA) Which interventions are correct for burns?

Accepted Answer

D) Elevate extremity, C) Cover with clean cloth, A) Cool with room-temp water

Question 26

Which electrolyte imbalance causes Torsades de Pointes?

Accepted Answer

C) Hypomagnesemia

Question 27

A client with myasthenia gravis has difficulty swallowing. What is the priority?

Accepted Answer

B) Assess gag reflex

Question 28

Bell’s palsy primarily affects which cranial nerve?

Accepted Answer

B) Facial (VII)

Question 29

Theophylline toxicity causes:

Accepted Answer

C) Tachycardia & seizures

Question 30

(SATA) Which symptoms indicate serotonin syndrome?

Accepted Answer

D) Clonus, C) Agitation, B) Hyperthermia

Question 31

(SATA) Which drugs are nephrotoxic?

Accepted Answer

A) NSAIDs, D) Contrast dye, C) Vancomycin

Question 32

A priority for a client with bacterial meningitis is:

Accepted Answer

A) Droplet precautions

Question 33

A client with DKA has Kussmaul respirations. This indicates:

Accepted Answer

D) Metabolic acidosis

Question 34

Tardive dyskinesia is a side effect of:

Accepted Answer

D) Antipsychotics

Question 35

(SATA) Which symptoms indicate hypoglycemia?

Accepted Answer

C) Diaphoresis, D) Confusion, B) Shakiness

Question 36

A post-op client has absent breath sounds on one side. This suggests:

Accepted Answer

A) Pneumothorax

Question 37

A client with pernicious anemia lacks intrinsic factor. What is the best treatment?

Accepted Answer

D) Vitamin B12 injections

Question 38

(SATA) Which foods are high in potassium?

Accepted Answer

B) Spinach, D) Oranges, A) Bananas

Question 39

(SATA) Which vaccines are live attenuated?

Accepted Answer

A) MMR, C) Varicella

Question 40

(SATA) Which conditions cause hyperactive reflexes?

Accepted Answer

A) Hypocalcemia, B) Spinal cord injury (above T6), C) Magnesium sulfate toxicity

Question 41

(SATA) Which conditions require contact precautions?

Accepted Answer

B) MRSA, A) C. difficile, C) RSV (in infants)

Question 42

(SATA) Which are signs of lithium toxicity?

Accepted Answer

A) Coarse tremors, D) Polyuria, B) Confusion

Question 43

A client with diabetes has a blood glucose of 50 mg/dL. What should the nurse give first?

Accepted Answer

A) 15g fast-acting carbs

Question 44

(SATA) Which labs indicate dehydration?

Accepted Answer

A) ↑ BUN, B) ↑ Hematocrit

Question 45

(SATA) Which conditions require airborne precautions?

Accepted Answer

A) Tuberculosis, B) Measles, D) Varicella

Question 46

Metformin should be held before a procedure involving:

Accepted Answer

A) IV contrast dye

Question 47

A newborn with spina bifida should be placed in which position pre-op?

Accepted Answer

C) Prone

Question 48

A newborn with erythema toxicum should be:

Accepted Answer

B) Reassured (normal finding)

Question 49

A client with osteoporosis should increase intake of:

Accepted Answer

B) Calcium & vitamin D

Question 50

A client with heart failure has crackles in the lungs. Which intervention is most appropriate?

Accepted Answer

C) Administer diuretics

4/2 Trivia Night

Questions 50

4/2 Trivia Night

Questions 50