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5 lvl Block I 2025 Flashcards | StudBud
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5 lvl Block I 2025
5 lvl Block I 2025
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1
What are two types of parachutist jump statuses
Temporary
Active
Down
No-Go
2
Who will monitor trainee’s progress throughout the course and make themselves available to explain course material?
Training Manager
Interviewer
Unit Training Manager
Supervisor
3
What are some requirements a 1C0X2 personnel need to have during deployment?
Log flight hours, jump activity, & mission events in ARTEMIS unless delayed
Deployed 1C0X2 members in flying or jump units must perform SARM duties.
Ensure connectivity to ARTEMIS while deployed
Develop manual backup procedures (e.g., FAs and Go/No-Go reports)
Ensure all applicable AF instructions are accessible while deployed
If mailing is needed send flight/jump activity documents homestation weekly
4
What is an API?
Identifies Positions
One digit numeric/alphabetic code for a members flying position
Flying activity in greater detail
One-digit numeric/alphabetic code used to inform the member flying activity
5
What SEI represents subject matter expertise in the 1C0X2 career field?
SEI 271
SEI 274
SEI 063
SEI 066
6
What are the prefixes for non-career aviators?
B: Operations Officer
Q: Evaluator Qualification
C: Commander
K: Instructor Qualification
X: Basic Aircrew Qualification
F: Flight Test
7
What does the fifth character in an AIR FORCE SPECIALTY CODE identify?
Specific Job
Career Field Subdivision
Operations
Skill level
8
What is the purpose of a jump activity update summary?
Checks and verify the jump duty, parachute type, jump altitude
Show line by line of jumps from a date to date basis
Provide an audit trail of individual jumps activity
Career totals as a jump student, parachutist, and JM
9
What is an Operational Support member?
Troubleshoots and maintains aircraft structures
Non-aircrew personnel performing in-flight duties
Performs a flight status authorization composition list
Takes pictures of aboard aircraft
10
Which is the primary avenue to make a difference within the career field regarding development, innovation, and policy?
CFETP
AWAC
ASG
AWG
11
Which functional area is typically associated with jump units?
Current Ops
SARM
HARM
TARM
12
What does the fourth character in an AIR FORCE SPECIALTY CODE identify?
Operations
Command and Control
Specific Job
Skill level
13
T/F, An API B is used for CEAs that are staff or supervisory positions above wing and are flying?
True, Wing level and above
False, at wing level
True, above wing level
False, wing level below
14
What provides a web-based collaborative environment where members of a group use shared information?
PMO
SharePoint
HAF
Point of Contact
15
What are some responsibilities for Current ops?
Managing wing's flying hour program in accordance with AVUM
Secure diplomatic clearance for U.S. aircraft in foreign airspace.
Ensure Flight Crew Information File compliance and library management.
Develop and de-conflict schedules
Advising Squadron leadership of aircrew progression towards completion
Coordinates and processes AF Forms 847
16
What’s the time period Training Managers are to interview newly assigned personnel?
80 days AD (40 days ARC)
60 days AD (30 Days ARC)
40 days AD (80 days ARC)
30 days AD (60 days ARC)
17
What are some of the responsibilities of an Apprentice and Journey man skill level?
Preparing and processing AOs, AMOs, and military pay orders (MPO)
Oversee FA's, MADOs, crew authorizations, AMP tracking, and flight hours.
Analyzing management reports to find problem areas and remedial actions
Compile, record, and audit data into ARTEMIS
Analyzing and summarizing AMP
Planning, scheduling, and supervising ARTEMIS functions
18
Does a tier waiver a permission granted waiver that allows members to deviate a regulations?
False
True
19
What are some requirements a 1C0X2 personnel need to have prior-deployment?
1C0X2 must submit ARTEMIS user agreement & security clearance to SARM/HARM
If mailing is needed send flight/jump activity documents homestation weekly
Deployed 1C0X2 members in flying or jump units must perform SARM duties.
Ensure connectivity to ARTEMIS while deployed
Develop manual backup procedures (e.g., FAs and Go/No-Go reports)
Ensure all applicable AF instructions are accessible while deployed
20
What’s a Flying Activity Code?
Identifies positions
One digit numeric/alphabetic code for a members flying position
One-digit numeric/alphabetic code used to inform the member flying activity
Flying activity in great detail
21
What role conditions actions indicators that may be obtained and evaluated by the enemy for effective decision-making?
OPSEC Vulnerabilities
Personal Identifiable Information
Security Clearance
OPSEC
22
What part of the AMSL withholds OFDA credits due to non-flying?
Part 2
Part 4
Part 6
Part 8
23
What is a Foreign Aviator?
A request diplomatic clearance to enter their airspace
Aviator who has to have GFS to escort them on and off an aircraft
Contract Aviator requires frequent Flights
Foreign military aviator in the a foreign military assignment to USAF
24
Provide the responsibilities MAJCOM Functional Manager (MFM).
Ensure HAF & MAJCOM guidance and training course changes spread to the HARM
Scheduling 1C0X2 personnel for ARM courses
Standardizing 1C0X2 functional area processes and procedures
Coordinate all aviation and parachutist service related AFIs & AFMANS
25
What are some Non-CEA examples?
Flight Nurse
Aeromedical Evacuation
Aerial Reconnaissance Weather Officer
Radio Frequency (RF) Transmission Systems Specialist
26
When must a supervisor conduct a face-to-face work center orientation with the trainee?
60 days AD (180 days ARC)
80 days AD (160 days ARC)
60 days AD (120 days ARC)
30 days AD (60 days ARC)
27
What SEI validates HARM superintendent duty experience and allows members to perform CHARM duties?
SEI 063
SEI 271
SEI 066
SEI 274
28
Are CEA positions Boom Operators, LoadMasters, Flight Engineers, Flight Attendants, Airborne Cryptologic Analyst, & RPAs
True
False
29
What is the official source document for recording ICBM field operation duty time?
AFGSC 2035I
AFGSC 5230I
AFGSC 3520I
AFGSC 2305I
30
What's a training document that ensures completion of all job requirements by using a Master Task Listing and deadlines?
AF Form 55
CFETP
Master Training Plan
Master Training List
31
What are some responsibilities for the Standards and evaluations office?
Evaluate wing flying hour program
Implementing Flight Evaluation Folder (FEF) maintenance and review
Coordinates and processes AF Forms 847
Ensure Flight Crew Information File compliance and library management.
Validate appropriate webpages
Managing and conducting aircrew evaluations
32
Upon redeployment, when must Airmen update their due/overdue PHA?
Within 120 days of departure
Within 60 days of departure
Within 90 days of departure
Within 30 days of departure
33
What are the DAFSC for jump inherent parachutist positions?
Combat Controller
SERE
Security Forces
Tactical Air Control Party/Officer
Pararescue
Combat Rescue Officer
34
What are some responsibilities of a Craftsman skill level (1C072)?
Establish ARM responsibilities and evaluates workloads and duties
Monitor aircrew flying time and flying hour utilization
Analyze HQ reports and policies as they affect AMP management programs
Inspect and evaluate ARM Functions to determines the AFI compliance
Executes ARM responsibilities to deployed flying and jump operations
Recommend or initiate actions to improve functional operation efficiency
35
What's most commonly used function in the Electronic Training Records?
Electronic Training Record
Individual Training Report
Individual Training Summary
CFETP
36
What are some responsibilities of the HARM office?
Monitor/determine entitlement to AvIP, CSIP, HDIP, and AIP
Creates and maintains written procedures
Prepares and processing Aeronautical Orders (AOs)
Maintains Electronic Records, Jump Record/Missile Record Folders
Ensure proper recording and processing of sonic boom activity
Ensuring proper completion and routing of the AF Form 4324
37
Does a Non-Jump inherent have a duty code of J?
False
True
38
What’s an Individual Jump Record (IJR) is a line by line entry of every jump made since the members last annual/PCS?
Individual Jump Activity Summary ( IJAS)
Jump History Report (JHR)
Individual Jump Report (IJR)
Jump Activity Update Summary (JAUS)
39
What Fly Status Code allows CED and HARM to place a member in an active flying position on a non-flying deployment?
FSC "K"
FSC "B"
FSC "T"
FSC "S"
40
What’s an AF Form 3503?
Official record of individual jumps for USAF members
Recording and reporting operational or jump training information
Validate pay eligibility for members authorized and required to jump
Recording jumps
41
What refers to the levels of responsibility/decision-making within an aviation organization?
Safety Considerations
Tier Authorities
Waivers
Waiver Process
42
What functional area plans and schedules all training sorties, as well as real world contingency missions and mobility?
Current Ops
SARM
AIRCREW TRAINING
STAN/EVAL
43
What are the types of aircrew members?
Pilot and Remote Piloted Aircraft
All of the above
Air Battle Manager and Navigator/Combat System Officer
Observer and Flight Surgeon
44
If a deployment is greater than 190 days and the PHA will expire during that time, when should the member complete PHA?
120 days within deployment
90 days within deployment
90 days prior departure
120 days prior deployment
45
What publications is used to provide information about the jump statuses?
AFGSC3520I
DAFMAN 11-402
AFI 10-3503
DAFMAN 11-401
46
What is a part of the four Columns of STS?
Outlines skill level requirements
Certification for OJT
Tasks, knowledge, and technical
List all known constraints that could prevent training
Task Codes and proficiency codes used to indicate training
Proficiency codes used to indicate Training/Information Provided
47
Which functional areas manage installation processes for tracking DOWN status and performing medical disqualifications?
TARM
Current Ops
Aircrew Training
SARM
STAN/EVAL
HARM
48
Which duty manages and directs personnel resources activities, interprets and enforces policy and applicable directives?
Apprentice & Journeyman
Craftman
Chief Enlisted Manager
Superintendent
49
The difference between a 3- and 7-skill level is the job experience, rank, responsibilities, and level of supervision.
False
True
50
Which ARM Group Functions works with the ARMS PMO and FAS Teams to troubleshoot and fix issues with ARMS?
CFETP
ASG
AWG
AWAC
51
What AFSC must a CEA possess?
1AXXX or 1UXXX
In-Flight Refueling(Boom Operator)
Aircraft LoadMaster
Flight Attendant or Flight Engineer
52
What information is relayed through the unit readiness reporting procedures and who is responsible for assessing them?
Resource Readiness; Commander
Resource & Capability Readiness Report; the Commanders
Capability Readiness; Commander
Comissioned Officer
53
If the members return from a flying deployment, what office will have to ensure all flights/training will be inputted?
TARM
HARM
CHARM/HARM Superintendent
SARM
54
What are the requirements for award of 5 skill level?
Distance learning
SEI Codes
Certified on all 5-level STS core tasks
12 months of OJT
Completing AARM course
10 consecutive duty days of cross functional area training in HARM or SARM
55
What does the third character in an AIR FORCE SPECIALTY CODE identify?
Command and Control
Specific Job
Career Field Subdivision
Skill Level
56
What should the SARM office review before a member before a member departs due to deployment?
Contingency Exercise and Deployment CED
PHA
IDS & ITS
CED & PHA
57
What is a commissioned officer who holds aeronautical ratings?
Career Enlisted Aviator (CEA)
Non-Career Enlisted Aviator
Rated Aircrew
Non-Rated Aircrew
58
Which ARM Group concentrates on issues affecting ARM final deployment, scheduling of projects, and long-range goals?
AWG
CFETP
ASG
AWAC
59
What publication could Waivers and Tier Authorities be found in?
DAFMAN 11-2KC-135
DAFMAN 11-401
DAFMAN 11-402
DAFMAN 90-161
60
What items are verified when auditing the AF Form 3503 against the Jump activity update summary?
Name and SSN
Jump type
Jump altitude and dropzone
Jump conditions
Jump parachutist type
Jump altitude and drop zone location
61
If a member isnt jumping in a noncombat operation & the HARM didnt receive any rule letters then the HARM will stop pay.
False
True
62
Which assignment area provides unit aircrew status of resources and training system training levels?
TARM
STAN/EVAL
HARM
SARM
63
Prior to deployment the member should provide what type of documentation to the ARM personnel?
Individual Data Summary (IDS)
Individual Training Summary (ITS)
Contingency Exercise Deployment orders (CED)
Aviation Management Suspension List
64
What does the second character in an AIR FORCE SPECIALTY CODE identify?
Operations
Career field Subdivision
Specific Job
Command and Control
65
One way to validate and assess the trainee’s knowledge of the task is by conducting what?
Task Groups
Task Certifier
Task Responsibilities
Task Evaluations
66
What does the first character in the AIR FORCE SPECIALTY CODE identify?
Specific Job
Career field Subdivision
Command and Control
Operations
67
What document displays a line by line of jumps from a date to date?
Individual Jump Record (IJR)
Jump History Report (JHR)
Individual Jump Activity Summary (IJAS)
Jump Activity Update Summary (JAUS)
68
What are the upgrade requirements for the 7-skill level?
Must be SSgt or SSgt Select
Must be SrA or SrA select
Must be MSgt or MSgt Select
Must be TSgt or TSgt Select
69
What are some of the responsibilities of a Functional Manager?
Standardizing 1C0X2 Functional Areas
Management of Deployments
Submission of Congressional AVMGT issue inquires
Submit AFBCMR requests
70
What SEI code is given to a member to become a 1C0X2FM
SEI 066
SEI 063
SEI 274
SEI 271
71
Which functional area updates, audits, completes AF Forms 8 and 8A, and certifies Aircrew Qualifications?
SARM
HARM
Current Ops
STAN/EVAL
72
What role does Standards and Evaluations are staffed with to qualify or conduct flight and ground evaluations?
Task Managers
Flight Evaluators
Flight Validators
Aircrew Evaluators
73
What are some example of Non-Rated Officer?
Radio Frequency Transmission Systems Specialist
Flight Nurse
Aerial Reconnaissance Weather Office
Aeromedical Evacuation Weather Officer
74
What's an information database that safeguards data by using a process to identify and protect critical information?
OPSEC Vulnerabilities
OPSEC
Clearance
Encryption
75
T/F, FAC 1 indicates a member assigned to a formula training unit
True, Formal training unit
False, Flying training unit and equivalent
False, Operational Air Force
False, Operational unit
76
Who operates as a wing level function but is assigned to OSS?
TARM
HARM
STAN/EVAL
SARM
77
Provide the responsibility of a Career Field Manager (CFM).
Serving as the HAF authority for 1C0X2 CFETP
Serving as the HAF primary responsibility for AFMAN 11-402 and 1C0X2 CFETP
Managing career field development IAW AFI 36-2651, AF training plan
Establishing an AWAC
78
Provide the responsible of the CHARM/HARM Superintendent?
Appoints an ARTEMIS database administrator to manage ARTEMIS permissions
Conduct a SAV on the HARM at least semi-annually
Administers HAF guidance for flight/jump pay entitlements
Coordinates ARTEMIS training rollover with all SARMs
79
Which functional center can access Electronic Training Records?
via Moodle
MyLearning
SHAREPOINT
Air Force Portal
80
What are some parachutist qualifications?
Static Line
Military Free Fall
DIVE
Jump Master
81
Define Specialty Training Standards program?
Vital for training success, enabling tracking, planning, and execution.
highlights the education and training necessary for career progression
responsible for selecting trainers based on skill qualifications
outlines the skill level qualification requirements and career progression
82
What are some responsibilities of the SARM office?
Creating and maintaining written procedures
Helping leadership verify members eligibility for Rule 3 and 4 jump waivers
Ensure proper completion of the and routing of the AF Form 4324
Determine and assign required resource requirements
Maintaining the Aviation Training Management Folders (ATMF)
Conducting go/no-go, pre-/post-mission procedures, publishing FAs, MADO,
83
What does the HARM office need if the member reaches 4 months of non-flying and where will they update it in?
Flying Status Code
AMSL
Flying Activity Code
ARTEMIS
84
Which skill level has the duty of maintaining control and accountability of AMP records?
Craftsman
Apprentice & Journeyman
Chief Enlisted Manager
Superintendent
85
Provide some responsibilities of a 1C092 AFSC?
Evaluate workloads and duty assignments of ARM personnel
Oversee ARM responsibilities
Serving MAJCOM OPR for ARTEMIS
Oversee OJT and CFETP
86
Which duty vary depending on MAJCOM, location of assignment, aircraft, and missions?
SARM
CHARM
HARM
TARM
87
What duty of monitoring Incentive Pay applies to which skill level?
Craftsman
Field Manager
Journeyman
Apprentice
88
What are some examples of Operational Support members?
ICBM Operator
Mobility Force Aviator
Fuel Specialists
Combat Camera
89
What information is highlighted in the CFETP?
Education & Training
Specialty Training Standards
Career Functional Manager
Major Command Functional Manager
90
T/F, Must a missileer need to complete all qualifications and Alert Missile Order(AMO) to be placed on operational duty?
True
False
91
All Responsibilities for 1C0X2 contingency operations are listed in what publication?
AFMAN 11-402
AFI 10-201
DAFMAN 11-401
AFMAN 11-421
92
What is a career enlisted aviator (CEA)?
Enlisted members qualified for aviation career status
Aviation career statuses
Ground and flight operations of the aircraft and onboard systems
A commissioned officer who holds an Aeronautical rating?
93
What assignment area is responsible for monitoring or determining entitlement to AIP?
ARMS
Current Ops
SARM
HARM
94
What are the reasons for disenrollment from distance learning courses?
All of the above
Emergencies
Non-registry in moodle
Repeated Block Test
