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VT140 - Final Study Guide
VT140 - Final Study Guide
177 terms
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Comprised of all homework Q+A's since midterms and portions of the Final Study Guide
Flashcards
177 cards
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Practice quiz
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Host live
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Questions
177
Answers
1
The carpal bones = horses knee with two rows of bones parallel to each other.
True
False
2
How do we diagnose a pharyngeal abscess?
Careful digital palpation of the pharynx per os
Endoscopy
Radiology
By lancing the pharynx
3
Floating of the teeth is usually performed on horses every 6 mo- 1 yr and usually requires some sedation
False
True
4
One of the most common causes of death in newborn piglets is
Being crushed by the sow
Confinement housing
Being out of their thermal neutral zone
Being farrowed in a crate
5
Medication withdrawal times are important to prevent drug residues in food products.
True
False
6
Panel tags used for animal identification
Are considered permanent artificial ID
Are not as easy to read from a distance as metal clips
Are used in heifers that have been vaccinated for brucellosis
Have no standardized numbering or lettering system among producers
7
All of the following are approved methods of euthanasia in equine...
The use of a captive bolt
Inhalant anesthesia
Administration of pentobarbital
Allowing the animal to pass away on it's own
8
What is the main reason we may need to place a nasogastric tube?
To resolve colic, used to determine air or fluid in the stomach
To perform an enema
To obtain a sample of nasal fluid
To check for Rumen contents
9
During PE, HR can be obtained by auscultating between the shoulder joint and olecranon and between which ribs?
4th and 5th intercostal spaces
5th and 6th intercostal spaces
3rd and 4th intercostal spaces
2nd and 3rd intercostal spaces
10
We just placed a 10 g IVC in the jugular to administer fluids to an ill horse, how do we secure the IVC in place?
By taping it to the neck, similar to the limb of a small mammal
Applying a neck bandage to keep it in place
The skin is thick and leathery so no security is needed after placement
By suturing the hub to the skin of the neck to secure it
11
During a PE we will want to palpate for manual pulses, which locations will we be able to obtain this?
Mandibular Artery
Radial Artery
Digital Artery
Placing a hand over the heart
12
Freeze branding...
Kills the melanocytes but spares the hair follicles
Cannot be used on gray horses
Destroys the hair pigment but spares the melanocytes
Kills the hair follicles, producing a hairless scar
13
What type of instrument is used to administer large amounts of oral medication to equine?
Balling gun
Table spoons
Drench/ Large dosing syringe
Adding medication to their water supply
14
The coat of a _________ has yellow tan as its body color and leg color, with a white or blonde mane and tail
Bay
Chestnut
Palomino
Buckskin
15
The frog of the hoof is for shock absorption as well as blood flow and traction/coordination
True
False
16
Which parasite causes severe anemia by sucking blood from mucosa of abomasum, common in sheep+goats, causes bottle jaw
Trichostrongylus spp
Cattle roundworm
Haemonchus contortus- "Barber Pole Worm"
Osteragia spp- "medium stomach worm or brown stomach worm"
17
What type of GI system do horses have?
Monogastric with hindgut fermentation component
Ruminant
Pseudo-ruminant
hindgut fermenter
18
Why is it important to avoid IM injections in cattle that are bred for beef?
IM injections don't cause any issues and can be given anytime
IM injections ruin the meat completely and can never be given
IM injections can lower the value of the meat if scarring occurs
IM injections can cause scarring, then the scarred muscle must be removed
19
When obtaining Hx from horse owner, what pieces of information are we collecting and documenting in our medical records?
Housing and husbandry
dental care
nutrition
medical history like vaccines
deworming schedule (if any)
excersice
20
When a horse contracts Leukoencephalomalacia, what is the general prognosis?
Poor prognosis with rapid death onset, usually within 24 hrs
Great prognosis, requires hospitalization and IV antifungals
Great prognosis with proper tx and care
Poor prognosis, but death does not occur if tx is timely
21
What is the typical ovulation type for camelids?
Spontaneous
Induced
Silent
Delayed
22
Which of the following drugs is NOT permitted for use in food animals?
Chloramphenicol
Oxytetracycline
Penicillin
Enrofloxacin
23
Which type of pork production system involves only breeding, gestation, and parturition of swine?
Farrowing
Farrow to finish
Growing/nursery
Finishing
24
What are some problems we can run into while our equine patient is under general anesthesia?
Hypoventilation
Tachycardia
Hypotension
Hypothermia
Malignant Hyperthermia
Bradycardia
25
What is the reversal agent for xylazine in equine?
Atropine
Naloxone
Yohimbine
Acepromazine
26
How can we administer artificial colostrum to a newborn foal is the mare does not have an adequate supply?
Through NG tube or PO/IV after 24 hrs
IM
Rectally
SQ
27
Equine euthanasia is commonly performed with barbiturates.
True
False
28
What is the purpose of lip tattooing in horses?
Track breeding history
Identify microchip placement
Provide tamper-proof ID for travel
Identify racehorses
29
What is the most common ID method in cattle?
Tattooing
Microchipping
Ear tagging
Branding
30
Which of the following are common restraint techniques used on equine?
Tail Tie
Chain Shank
all of the above
Twitch
Stocks
31
Pink eye is caused by Branhamella ovis and Moraxella boxis and is carried by flies
False
True
32
The only parameter we monitor while a cow is under general anesthesia is anesthetic depth
False
True
33
Although colic treatment depends on the underlying cause, what are some typical treatments?
mineral oil
feed adjustments
Deworming
surgery
IV fluids
Antibiotics and pain control
34
Why do we administer iron injections to piglets?
So they can be weaned early
To keep their temperature regulated
Sow's do not nurse their young
To prevent anemia because sow's milk in low in iron
35
In regards to Embryo transfer, how many embryos can sheep and goats accept?
2
5
a bunch of them
1
36
Which zoonotic disease is common in sheep and goats?
Orf - Parapoxvirus
Ringworm
Caseous lymphadenitis
Footrot
37
What are some clinical signs of colic in an equine patient?
Stretching, rolling, kicking at belly
Straining to defecate and decreased bowel movements
throwing up or retching
Laying down more than usual
Sweating and pacing
lack of appetite
38
What are the three compartments of a camelids stomach called?
C1, C2, C3
there are no specific names for the compartments of the stomach
Cecum, Rumen, and the True stomach
Stomach 1, 2, and 3
39
What breed of cow is known for its heat tolerance and large hump over its shoulders?
Angus
The Brahman
Charolais
Hereford
40
Which of the following is a risk when using an ear twitch on a horse?
Respiratory arrest
Permanent deformity of the pinna
Broken leg
Hyperthermia
41
Much like goats and sheep, cattle are good at eating low quality roughages.
False
True
42
Which of the following are reasons why cattle are prone to hypoventilation during general anesthesia?
Cattle are not prone to hypoventilation, they're prone to hypocapnia
Due to their large size
Anesthetic drugs depress the respriatory centers of the brain
The size of their rumen and other GI organs
43
Mastitis is caused by which bacteria and in most cases severe and life threatening?
Prevotella
Giardia
E.coli
Campylobacter
44
How is Rhinopneumonitis transmitted? Select all that apply
Aerosol transmission
Respiratory secretions
Fomite transmission
This disease is not contagious
45
What is the name of procedure in which the mare's vulva is sutured closed?
Episiotomy
Vulvoplasty
Caslicks procedure
Vulvar reconstructive surgery
46
Select the correct description pertaining to the digestive system of sheep/goats.
Monogastric, has a cecum, considered hind gut fermenter.
Monogastric
Ruminant
Modified Ruminant
47
What is the preferred age to breed sheep?
4 years
2 years
3 months
12-19 months
48
Large animal circuits are regularly preloaded because the rubber components absorb large amounts of anesthetic gases
False
True
49
Colitis can lead to other complications like: Laminitis, Cardiovascular Collapse, Cardia Arrhythmias, Thrombophlebitis
False
True
50
When performing a nerve block along the leg during a lameness exam, do we always start distally and work proximally?
True
False
51
The directional term pertaining to the underside of the horse's abdomen is...
Dorsal
Vertical
Ventral
Central
52
What is the name of the virus that causes Rabies in equine?
Rhabdovirus
Equine Influenza
Rabies Virus
Encephalopathy Virus
53
A prepurchase examination of a horse
Is paid for by the seller
Removes the veterinarian from liability
Is of public record
Is not a guarantee of future performance
54
What breed of horse has mottled skin, white sclera, striped hooves and experience night blindness?
Appaloosa
Pony
Quarter Horse
Arabian
55
The "____" is the "true stomach" of the ruminant.
the first stomach
Abomasum
Cecum
C1
56
If a radiograph is too light
It is best to increase kVp by 30% to 50%.
It is best to increase mAs by 10%
Increase either the kVp or mAs
It is best to double the kVp.
57
Feces from ________ lack distinct form
Swine
Llamas
Cattle
Sheep
58
What are the 2 most common equine cardiac conditions?
Sinus Arrhythmias
Atrial Fibrillation
Second-Degree AV block
Ventricular Premature Contractions
59
What is a triple drip combination and the drugs that make up this combo?
A triple drip is a nickname for acepromazine because of it's side effects
Acepromazine, Butorphanol, and Ketamine
Xylazine, Guaifenesin, and Ketamine
A triple drip is a combination of three drugs together
60
What parasite can cause neurologic signs in camelids?
Liver fluke
Roundworm
Tapeworm
Meningeal worm
61
What procedure would require the use of a corneal nerve block?
C-section
Brain surgery
Dehorning
Flank surgery
62
All ruminants have a four-compartment stomach.
False
True
63
We should always use Atropine in Cattle due to the fact that it makes their saliva thin and runny
True
False
64
Which of the following ways can we tell a cow is displaying aggressive behavior?
Tense or stiff body
Head-butting
Snorting
all of the above
Loud vocalizations
Pinned ears
65
What are the multiple treatments for Ocular Squamous Cell Carcinoma?
Ocular drops
Surgical excision
Enucleation
Cryotherapy
66
What is the average gestation period in cattle?
283 days
275 days
300 days
280 days
67
What is traumatic reticuloperitonitis and its cause?
A disease that causes animal to want to ingest their stool
eating habits leads to penetration of the reticulum and peritonitis
A hardware disease that causes strange eating habits
leads to accidental ingestion of sharp forgien bodys
68
What are the most common surgeries performed on cattle?
Tail amputation: only when medically necessary
Castration: open and closed technique
Dental Prophylaxis
Dehorning
69
The fiber obtained from which animal is called mohair?
llamas
Goats
Sheep
Alpacas
70
Artificial insemination is a common practice in cattle.
False
True
71
Which is true about beef cattle handling?
Familiar with human contact
Easier to handle than dairy
Often more aggressive
Require halters for restraint
72
What is the normal temperature range for equine?
99-104 degrees F
101-103 degrees F
99-101.5 degrees F
100-102.5 degrees F
73
What are the two main purposes of cattle?
Wool/To occupy property
Protection/Wool
Dairy/Beef
Companionship/as Pets
74
What is the average gestation length for a mare?
3 months, 3 weeks, 3 days
290-300 days
340-345 days
200-250 days
75
What is the major function of the cecum?
To form stool
The bacteria helps to further breakdown cellulose
To help with oxygen intake
To keep the animal from getting colic
76
What is the name of the groove in the incisor of a horse that is used to determine the age?
Groove of the lateral incisor
Pearson's Square
There is no groove in the tooth that determines the age.
Galvayne's Groove
77
Which of the following are the treatments for Small Strongyles in Equine?
Moxidectin
Meloxicam
Piperazine
Pyrantel pamoate
Clavamox
Ivermectin
78
Which of the following are forms of federally accredited official identification used in horses.
using the colors and markings as identification
freeze and heat branding
Lip tattoo
name tags
79
Which is the correct dental formula for an adult goat with permanent teeth?
3(I0/3,C1/3,P4/4,M3/4)
2(I0/3, C0/2, P3/3, M3/3)
3(I0/3,C0/2,P3/3)
2(I0/3,C0/2,P3/3)
80
What is the name of the vein in the tail that we can obtain a blood sample in cattle?
Coccygeal or tail vein
Paralumbar Fossa
Lumbar
Vertebral
81
TIVA - horses tend to have higher BP, less respiratory depression, active palpebral reflexes TIVA is associated with...
Colic
Prolonged recovery time
Deep Anesthesia
Smooth recovery
82
Dystocia is a normal thing in sheep and goats and tend to be more common in goats than sheep.
True
False
83
Parasites, toxins and disease account for 15-20 % loss of income for livestock producers each year.
True
False
84
Why is Acepromazine contraindicated for use in breeding stallions?
Causes sweating
Can cause permanent penile prolapse
Causes too heavy sedation effects
Lowers their sperm count
85
Acepromazine is commonly used at which part of the anesthesia process in cattle?
Anesthesia Induction
Nerve blocks
Pre-anesthetic- to help calm and cause sedation
Post op pain medication
86
Before anesthesia, we fast our equine patients because drugs cause decreased GI motility How long do we fast prior to Sx
Grain 24 hrs, Hay 12 hrs and Water 24 hrs
Grain 12 hrs and Hay 2-6 hrs
Grain 2-6 hrs, Hay 12 hrs
We do not fast our equine patients
87
What is the major anatomical reproductive difference that makes a boar unique?
They are infertile
They need to be castrated in they are being sold for meat
They possess testicles
They possess a corkscrew penis
88
When performing abdominal auscultation on a horse, borborygmi
Are counted for a total of 1 minute for all four abdominal quadrants
Are associated with normal patterns of large intestinal motility
Indicate functional intestines
Can be considered an indication of normal motility once the first is heard
89
Beef cattle nutrition represents about ___% of the cost of raising them.
75%
60%
50%
40%
90
What is the main reason we do not always intubate equine for anesthesia?
The cost
Time
Healthy horses lack the ability to regurgitate, lowering risk of aspiration
Equipment needed
91
A castrated male horse is called a ...
Colt
Stallion
Gelding
Foal
92
What is the average weight of an adult horse?
2000lbs
1000kg
200lbs
1000lbs
93
name of view taken of a horse’s RF lower leg when the xray beam is at a 45° angle from in F of the leg to in part of leg
Palmaromedial-dorsolateral oblique
Dorsomedial-palmarolateral oblique
Palmarolateral-dorsomedial oblique
Dorsolateral-palmaromedial oblique
94
Who can present the animal to the DVM for physical exam?
Anyone who is able to transport the animal
Hired hand- who has decision making powers
Ranch Hand
Corporation or person who doesn't deal directly with the cow
95
On PE of horses what is a critical part we should always auscultate for?
The spine
the throat
the cecum
GI sounds/motility
96
In neonate calves, their rumen and reticulum are non functional.
False
True
97
Select the correct description pertaining to the digestive system of a cow.
Modified Ruminant
Ruminant
Monogastric
Monogastric, has a cecum, considered hind gut fermenter
98
A paravertebral block for standing anesthesia blocks the following spinal nerves ___,___,___
C12, T1, T2
T1, T2, T3
The entire cervical vertebrae
T13, L1, L2
99
What are the 3 main ways to collect sperm for Artificial insemination in large animals?
The use of an artificial vagina
The use of an Electroejaculator
Castration
Manual Stimulation
100
Which of the following best describe the digestive system of cattle?
abomasum produces gastric acids and enzymes to help breakdown food
"cud" is made in reticulum, omasum absorbs H2O and fine food particles
Rumen allows cows to digest cellulose, reticulum helps mix+filter particles
ruminant GI system, rumen helps break down fiberous plant material
all of the above
the cecum helps with enzymes and acids to help turn the food into "cud"
101
What drug tends to cause the equine patient's eye position to remain central regardless of their anesthetic plane?
Guaifenesin
Xylazine
Ketamine
Naloxone
102
"Lumpy Jaw" is caused by normal bacterial flora of the ruminant mouth that can enter via mouth wounds
True
False
103
What is the name of the bacteria that causes "Wooden Tongue"
E.coli
Clostridium
Campilobacter
Actinobacillus lignieresii
104
ALARA means
Rotating personnel through the duty of x-ray imaging to minimize exposure
Maximizing the distance between the primary beam and personnel for image
Selecting the lowest possible mA, kVp, and time to achieve the best image
Avoiding retakes
105
What type of GI system do camelids have?
Pseudo-ruminant
Hindgut fermenter
Ruminant
Monogastric
106
Somatic damage caused by electromagnetic radiation
Affects metabolically active cells and is immediate or can present later
Affects metabolically inactive cells and presents later in life
Is more extensive with smaller cumulative doses than a single massive dose
Presents when the damaged individual reproduces
107
Ear twitching is safe for long term use.
True
False
108
What is a common venipuncture site in swine?
Jugular vein
Auricular vein
Femoral vein
Cephalic vein
109
When performing a PE on a horse, besides TPR, what other important piece of information do we obtain by auscultation?
Heart sounds
Respiratory sounds
Height
Gut sounds
110
What type of digestive system does a ruminant have?
Hindgut fermenter
Multi-chambered
Simple stomach
Monogastric
111
During a physical exam, how to assess lameness?
Watching the horse play around
By asking the owner about the gait
By how well the horse is eating
Having the horse walk, trot and run in straight lines or circles
112
Milk sampling is common in dairy cattle, why do we perform this?
To evaluate the milk fat content
To evaluate the milk for infections or mastitis
To asses what stage of the estrous cycle the heifer is in
To evaluate the taste of the milk
113
Castration in swine for meat production should be performed:
Before weaning
after 2 months
at 4 weeks
Before 2 weeks
114
What does CMT stand for?
Cow Mastitis Test
California Meeting Time
Cow Measuring Table
California Mastitis Test
115
Why is it contraindicated to use anticholinergics in equine anesthesia?
Causes their saliva to become thick and ropey
Rapid increase in heart rate
Reduces GI motility which may result in colic
Increases GI motility
116
Most parasitic infections are susceptible to ivermectin and benzimidazole dewormers, except:
Haemonchus contortus
Coccidia and Liver flukes
Hookworm
Roundworms
117
Which is the correct dental formula for a piglet with deciduous teeth?
2(I3/3,C1/1,P3/3),Needle teeth
4(I3/3,C1/1,P4/4,M3/3), Tusks
4(I3/3,C1/1,P3/3),Needle teeth
2(I3/3,C1/1,P4/4,M3/3), Tusks
118
What type of GI system do cattle have?
Ruminant
Hindgut fermenter
Monogastric
Psuedo-ruminant
119
What are the main reasons cattle do not undergo general anesthesia as often as horses?
Drug withdrawal times
The need for specialized equipment
Cost
Because they are difficult to work with
120
Which of the following of these dairy bred cattle have the highest milk production?
Jersey
Brown Swiss
Guernsey
Holstein
Aryshire
121
A foal experiencing "Equine neonatal maladjustment syndrome" is also known as...
Sick Foal
Failing to thrive
Smart Foal
Dummy Foal
122
____ capabilities are excellent in cattle and play a vital role in their social behavior.
Olfactory
Vestibular
Gustation
Sight
123
A "Freemartin" is a...
Sexually imperfect, sterile female calf born as a twin to a male calf
A female who has both male and female genitalia.
Cow that is born in the wild.
Common breed of cattle.
124
Camelids have a four-compartment stomach.
True
False
125
With regard to withdrawal intervals, they
Are available on the label and from FARAD
Represent the time between drug given & when the animal’s product is safe
all of the above
Are printed on the label of FDA approved drugs
126
Any veterinary clinic should have the equipment needed to obtain quality thoracic, abdominal, spinal X-rays of a horse
False
True
127
The point of balance in cattle is the head.
True
False
128
What is the average swine gestation length?
98 days
150 days
114 days
120 days
129
What is the dental formula for an adult cow?
2(I 0/3, C 0/1, PM 3/3, M 3/3)
2(I 0-1/3, C 0-1/1, PM 2/3, M 3/2)
2(I 1/3, C 0-1/1, PM 3/1, M 2/3)
2(I 1/2, C 1/1, PM 2/2, M 4/3)
130
Dairy cattle nutrition represents about ___% of the cost of milk production.
100%
10%
40%
50%
131
What is the normal HR and RR for equine?
HR: 28-44bpm, RR: 6-16pm
HR: 18-34bpm, RR: 16-20pm
HR: 12-40bpm, RR: 5-20pm
HR: 35-58bpm, RR: 6-25pm
132
Thoroughbred horses are used in racing, polo, dressage and jumping. Known as "hot blooded" and are very very high strung
False
True
133
What are the multiple functions of the gutteral pouch?
Blood cooling during exercise
Vocalization
Food Storage
Air warming
All of the above
Pressure equilibrium
134
___ are made of sweat, dead cells and dirt This is why preputial and penile cleaning is vital and help prevent infection
Shmeg beans
Shmeg
Smegma beans
Smegma
135
What are some signs of appropriate sedation? Select all that apply
Reluctant to move
All of the above
Excitement with surroundings
Drooping of the lower lip
Lowering head and neck
A wide based stance with decreased interest in surroundings
136
Swine have a monogastric GI system.
False
True
137
When does ovulation occur during the mare’s estrus cycle?
1–2 days before the end of estrus
On the first day of estrus
After estrus ends
Midway through estrus
138
Which of the following is a zoonotic disease in horses?
Equine Influenza
Colic
Laminitis
Rabies
139
Goats are seasonal breeders.
False
True
140
An adult female donkey is called a ...
Jenny or Jennet
Mare
Filly
Molly
141
Why do we always administer the NSAID Phenylbutazone IV in equine?
Stings and will cause the horse to panic
Causes colic
If given IM it has the potential to cause skin necrosis and sloughing
Can cause "Tying Up"
142
What is the purpose of a microchip in horses?
Administer medications
Monitor ovulation
Provide permanent ID
Track weight
143
The average length of a mare’s estrous cycle is 21 days.
False
True
144
When a female donkey and a male horse reproduce, what is the name of their offspring? This animal is sterile.
Hinny
Zorse
Stallion
Mule
145
Where do we typically place an IV catheter in a horse?
Saphenous vein
Cephalic vein
Jugular vein
Facial artery
Jugular artery
146
Cattle vocalization are limited to calls of distress or for contact.
True
False
147
What is the ANGUS cow bred for?
Fiber
Beef
Companionship
Dairy
148
What is unique characteristic regarding the dentition of cattle?
They possess maxillary canines
They have 44 teeth
They possess a dental pad in place of maxillary incisors
The possess maxillary incisors
149
What were the SHORTHORN cattle bred for?
beef
good mothering and milking abilities
fiber
companionship
150
Angora and Cashmere goats are bred for fiber.
True
False
151
What is the normal heart rate in sheep?
50-70bpm
60-80bpm
80-100bpm
70-90bpm
152
What are the main clinical signs of rumen indigestion?
Vomiting
Malodorous diarrhea
Acute anorexia
Decreased rumen motility
153
What chemical restraint is classified as an opiate for equine use?
Butorphanol
Detomidine
Acepromazine
Xylazine
154
The ARYSHIRE cattle were bred for their high milk production.
False
True
155
The person who typically performs hoof care and re-shoeing is called...
A hoofer
A DVM
A ranch worker
A farrier
156
What is an essential neonatal injection for piglets?
Vitamin A
Selenium
Iron
Vitamin K
157
What type of tick transmit Piroplasmosis?
Brown Deer tick
American Dog Tick
Lone Star Tick
Ixodid Tick
158
Fasting with standing anesthesia and tranqs is ideal but not always possible, always have tools ready for complications
False
True
159
Select the correct description pertaining to the digestive system of camelids.
Modified Ruminant
Monogastric, has a cecum, considered hind gut fermenter.
Monogastric
Ruminant
160
Heifers are polyestrous
True
False
161
When taking radiographs in equine medicine, what is the name of the tool that acts as an extension of your arm?
Portable machine
Mobile machine
Cassette Holder
Hoof positioner
162
Lambs and kids have __ temporary teeth, while mature sheep and goats have __ teeth. The __ are often mistaken for a __
20,32,mandibular canines, 4th incisor.
22,34,maxillary canines,5th incisor
60,40,needle teeth, fighting teeth.
16,20,Maxillary incisors, canines
163
What is the average gestation period of a heifer?
279-283 days
3 months, 3 weeks, 3 days
250 days
365 days
164
When measuring the height of a horse, 1 hand =?
4 fingers
1 inch
5 inches
4 inches
165
What is a common anesthetic challenge in equine?
Small airway
Excessive salivation
Seizures
Recovery injuries
166
Post colic SX, the equine patient will require …
To have food withheld for at least 12 hrs
To return to normal activity immediately upon recovery
A feeding tube to deliver proper nutrition
Hospitalization to closely monitor the GI function
167
What are some challenges faced when performing equine anesthesia?
all of the above
Large GI tract placing pressure on their lungs
Susceptible to colic from drugs
Obligate nasal breathers
Size and Temperament
168
What is the correct dental formula for an adult horse?
2(I0/3, C0/1, P3/3, M3/3)
2(I3/3, C0/0, P3/3, M3/3)
2(I3/3, C1/1, P3/3, M2/2)
2(I3/3, C1/1, P3-4/3, M3/3)
169
During the last ___ days beef animals will often be sent to a feed lot for finishing where disease and injury occur
20-80
30-90
60-90
90-100
170
Electroejaculation is the preferred method of semen collection in sheep and goats.
False
True
171
Which GI type is present in goats?
Ruminant
Hindgut fermenter
Monogastric
Pseudo-ruminant
172
Nose tongs...
Can be used to subdue the animal by applying pressure to the septum.
Look like tongs used in the kitchen.
Sharp instruments to pierce the nostril's of cow.
Are large metal tongs that look like pliers with large balls at the end.
173
How do we typically diagnose large strongyles (Strongylus vulgaris)in equine?
Blood tests
Fecal and C&S
Sifting through the stool
Fecal Floatation
174
On average, how often will a modestly ridden horse need re-shoeing/trimming of the hooves?
q 2 months
q 6 months
q 1 month
q 1 year
175
How long is the average gestation period in horses?
365 days
305 days
283 days
340 days
176
Which organization regulates medication withdrawal times in food animals?
USDA
CDC
AVMA
FDA
177
What anatomical structures make up the phalanges on the equine pelvic limb? (hint: one digit with 3 parts)
Middle Phalanx (P2)
Distal Phalanx (P3)
Proximal Phalanx (P1)
Accessory Phalanx (P2)
