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2/26 Trivia Night Flashcards | StudBud
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2/26 Trivia Night
2/26 Trivia Night
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1
39. What is the priority intervention for a newborn with a cleft palate?
Use a special feeding technique
Lay infant flat after feeding
Restrict oral intake
Perform early surgical correction
2
35. Which drug is most commonly used to treat anaphylaxis?
Epinephrine
Albuterol
Diphenhydramine
Prednisone
3
3. A patient on warfarin therapy should avoid excessive intake of which food?
Bananas
Apples
Chicken
Spinach
4
50. What is a late sign of increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?
Irritability
Cushing’s triad
Headache
Nausea
5
4. (SATA) What are priority nursing interventions for a patient with SIADH?
Fluid restriction
Monitor sodium levels
Encourage fluid intake
Administer hypertonic saline if severe hyponatremia
6
9. (SATA) What are priority assessments for a patient on digoxin?
Assess potassium levels
Check for visual disturbances
Monitor apical pulse
Encourage high sodium intake
7
43. Which is the primary symptom of compartment syndrome?
Unrelieved pain
Warmth
Swelling
Redness
8
31. What is the classic sign of Guillain-Barré syndrome?
Hyperreflexia
Tremors
Descending paralysis
Ascending paralysis
9
6. (SATA) Which are expected symptoms of right-sided heart failure?
JVD
Peripheral edema
Hepatomegaly
Crackles in lungs
10
45. (SATA) Which interventions help prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
Early ambulation
Bed rest
Compression stockings
Leg exercises
11
24. Which medication requires INR monitoring?
Enoxaparin
Heparin
Dabigatran
Warfarin
12
22. Which intervention is contraindicated in a patient with DKA?
Insulin drip
Electrolyte monitoring
IV push insulin
IV fluid replacement
13
5. Which of the following drugs is a beta-blocker used to treat hypertension?
Furosemide
Metoprolol
Lisinopril
D. Amlodipine
14
11. Which electrolyte imbalance is associated with prolonged NG suctioning?
Hypokalemia
Hypernatremia
Hyperkalemia
Hypercalcemia
15
46. What is the classic sign of appendicitis?
Positive Grey Turner sign
Right lower quadrant pain (McBurney’s point)
Left upper quadrant pain
Flank pain
16
12. (SATA) Which signs indicate hypocalcemia?
Muscle spasms
Bradycardia
Trousseau’s sign
Chvostek’s sign
17
8. Which ABG finding is expected in a patient with prolonged vomiting?
Respiratory alkalosis
Metabolic acidosis
Metabolic alkalosis
Respiratory acidosis
18
14. Which heart rhythm is commonly seen in hypokalemia?
U waves on ECG
Peaked T waves
Prolonged QT interval
Wide QRS complex
19
37. Which acid-base imbalance is seen in severe diarrhea?
Respiratory alkalosis
Metabolic acidosis
Respiratory acidosis
Metabolic alkalosis
20
47. Which type of isolation is required for a patient with Clostridium difficile (C. diff)?
Reverse isolation
Airborne precautions
Droplet precautions
Contact precautions
21
42. Which heart sound is characteristic of pericarditis?
Murmur
Pericardial friction rub
S3 gallop
Click
22
19. (SATA) What are signs of opioid overdose?
Respiratory depression
Unresponsiveness
Tachycardia
Pinpoint pupils
23
49. Which is the priority assessment in a burn patient?
Infection control
Pain management
Airway and breathing
Fluid balance
24
44. What is the best diet for a patient with kidney disease?
Low carbohydrate, high protein
High potassium, high calcium
Low sodium, low protein
High protein, high sodium
25
26. What is the first intervention for a conscious choking adult?
Abdominal thrusts
Chest compressions
Call 911
Back blows
26
29. (SATA) Which are signs of hypoglycemia?
Tachycardia
Flushed skin
Diaphoresis
Irritability
27
1. A patient with Addison's disease should be advised to increase their intake of which electrolyte?
Sodium
Magnesium
Potassium
Calcium
28
18. Which type of shock is associated with bradycardia?
Hypovolemic shock
Septic shock
Neurogenic shock
Cardiogenic shock
29
21. Which medication is used to treat thyroid storm?
Furosemide
Prednisone
Levothyroxine
Propylthiouracil (PTU)
30
23. (SATA) Which are risk factors for a pulmonary embolism?
Hyperthyroidism
Smoking
Oral contraceptive use
Immobility
31
16. Which antidote is used for benzodiazepine overdose?
Vitamin K
Naloxone
Protamine sulfate
Flumazenil
32
33. Which medication is used to reverse heparin overdose?
Naloxone
Vitamin K
Protamine sulfate
Flumazenil
33
28. What is the priority in a sickle cell crisis?
Hydration and pain control
Antibiotics
Oxygen therapy only
Blood transfusion
34
13. Which medication is used to treat diabetes insipidus?
Amlodipine
Glucagon
Metformin
Desmopressin
35
30. Which cranial nerve is responsible for hearing and balance?
Facial
Trigeminal
Vestibulocochlear (VIII)
Vagus
36
15. (SATA) What are early signs of increased ICP?
Restlessness
Blurred vision
Headache
Flaccidity
37
32. What is the first action for a patient with autonomic dysreflexia?
Give antihypertensives
Raise the head of the bed
Check deep tendon reflexes
Administer oxygen
38
2. (SATA) Which of the following are signs of cardiac tamponade?
Beck's triad
Jugular vein distention
Pulsus paradoxus
Hyperactive bowel sounds
39
34. (SATA) Which are signs of Cushing’s syndrome?
Hypoglycemia
Buffalo hump
Purple striae
Moon face
40
20. What is the best position for a patient with a suspected air embolism?
High Fowler’s
Trendelenburg on left side
Right lateral
Supine
41
41. Which medication is used in opioid withdrawal treatment?
Flumazenil
Naloxone
Protamine sulfate
Methadone
42
10. A patient with pancreatitis should avoid which type of diet?
High-fiber diet
Low-protein diet
High-carbohydrate diet
High-fat diet
43
17. Which vaccine is contraindicated in pregnancy?
Influenza (inactive)
MMR
Tdap
Hepatitis B
44
48. What is the first-line medication for status epilepticus?
Phenytoin
Carbamazepine
Lorazepam (Ativan)
Levetiracetam
45
25. Which electrolyte is affected by SIADH?
Magnesium
Calcium
Sodium
Potassium
46
40. (SATA) What are symptoms of Parkinson’s disease?
Hyperreflexia
Tremors
Shuffling gait
Bradykinesia
47
7. What is the priority intervention for a patient in myasthenic crisis?
Give an extra dose of pyridostigmine
Administer IV immunoglobulin or plasmapheresis
Encourage high-calorie intake
Apply compression stockings
48
27. Which test confirms myasthenia gravis?
Edrophonium test
Babinski sign
Tensilon test
Romberg test
49
36. Which food should be avoided in a patient taking MAOIs?
Chicken
Apples
Rice
Aged cheese
50
38. Which test is used to diagnose tuberculosis?
Mantoux (PPD) test
D-dimer test
Western blot test
ELISA test
