IA Final

164 termsStudBud Administration4 plays

Imported from external platform

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Questions 164

Answers

1
What is the main goal of computer forensics?
Encrypt sensitive data
Recover lost data
Preserve evidence
Delete unwanted files
2
True or false: Steganography is a data recovery method.
True
False
3
Which practice ensures recovery plan effectiveness?
Regular testing
No documentation
Ignoring updates
Random changes
4
What is the benefit of a centralized incident management system?
Delay actions
Reduce transparency
Increase confusion
Organize response
5
What is the role of a forensics technician?
To document processes
To hide evidence
To alter data
To delete files
6
What is crucial for identifying anomalies?
Defining normal behavior
Random monitoring
Using outdated tools
Ignoring data flows
7
What is steganography?
Data concealment
Data recovery
Data encryption
Data analysis
8
True or false: Continuous improvement is optional.
False
True
9
True or false: All users should have the same access level.
False
True
10
True or false: Policies need regular updates.
False
True
11
What is a best practice for managing third-party risks?
Ignore vendor security
Use outdated contracts
Limit vendor access
Regular assessments
12
What helps detect unauthorized access?
No monitoring needed
Ignoring physical spaces
Physical security measures
Random checks
13
Why is stakeholder communication important in recovery?
Increases panic
Reduces uncertainty
Delays decisions
Spreads misinformation
14
True or false: All users need full access.
False
True
15
What is the role of automated containment tools?
Contain malware
Analyze threats
Track incidents
Block malicious processes
16
What is a RACI matrix used for?
Define roles
Track incidents
Contain malware
Analyze threats
17
True or false: Cybersecurity policies should be regularly reviewed.
True
False
18
What does 'magic numbers' refer to?
File type identifiers
File size indicators
File owner details
File encryption keys
19
What should be done with newly identified vulnerabilities?
Mitigate or document
Analyze threats
Track incidents
Contain malware
20
True or false: All data should be encrypted at rest.
False
True
21
What is the benefit of investigating alerts promptly?
Reduce transparency
Delay response
Identify threats early
Increase confusion
22
What is a memory dump?
Data encryption
Snapshot of RAM
File recovery
Data backup
23
True or false: Asset management is crucial for identifying vulnerabilities.
True
False
24
Which principle is least privilege?
Maximum access
Least Privilege Access
Full access for all
No access restrictions
25
True or false: Physical security and cybersecurity should be coordinated.
True
False
26
What ensures consistent incident categorization?
Runbook review
System audit
Stakeholder meeting
Defined categories
27
True or false: Detection processes should remain static.
False
True
28
Why is mapping data flows important?
Identifies security gaps
Increases data storage
Limits data access
Reduces data usage
29
What does checksum ensure?
Data was modified
Data remains unchanged
Data is lost
Data was tampered
30
Which tool guides real-time response workflow?
VPN
SIEM
Ticketing system
Firewall
31
True or false: Identity management reduces unauthorized access risks.
False
True
32
True or false: File carving can recover deleted files.
True
False
33
How should maintenance activities be logged?
Only for major repairs
With detailed records
Randomly
Not at all
34
What should be included in a vulnerability management plan?
Ignoring vulnerabilities
No documentation
Only annual reviews
Regular scanning and patching
35
How can organizations support affected customers?
Ignore concerns
Offer credit monitoring
Delay support
Spread misinformation
36
What is the goal of monitoring access?
Detect unauthorized access
Simplify processes
Reduce costs
Increase user access
37
True or false: RBAC assigns permissions based on roles.
True
False
38
What helps in understanding attack methods?
Using outdated data
Random guessing
Ignoring event logs
Thorough event analysis
39
True or false: Data-at-rest does not need protection.
False
True
40
What does RBAC ensure for users?
Access to necessary resources
Access to all resources
No access at all
Limited access only
41
True or false: MFA requires one form of ID.
True
False
42
Why is stakeholder briefing frequency important?
Ensures informed decisions
Delays actions
Creates confusion
Spreads misinformation
43
True or false: Categorizing data helps protect it.
False
True
44
What is Zero Trust's core principle?
Always Trust, Never Verify
Never Trust, Always Verify
Trust but Verify
Verify but Trust
45
True or false: Remote access should be unrestricted.
False
True
46
Which data source is NOT used in forensics?
System logs
Random user input
Memory dumps
Network traffic
47
What is a key principle of access management?
Random access
No restrictions
Maximum access
Least privilege
48
What is a key aspect of crisis communication plans?
Random messages
Clear messaging guidelines
No guidelines
Delayed responses
49
ZTAA manages access to an organization's?
Users
Data
Devices
Applications
50
What does Zero Trust aim to prevent?
Unauthorized access
Authorized access
No access at all
Limited access
51
What is a common implementation for recovery improvements?
Random changes
No documentation
Lessons learned register
Ignore past events
52
What enhances access control in Zero Trust?
Attribute-Based Access Control
No access control
Role-Based Access Control
Simple access control
53
True or false: External systems should be catalogued for security.
False
True
54
What is a vulnerability disclosure policy?
Contain malware
Report potential issues
Analyze threats
Track incidents
55
Which is a common ZTA step?
Limit data access
Create Access Policies
Ignore user roles
Increase firewall rules
56
True or false: Chain of custody is unimportant.
False
True
57
What does Zero Trust prioritize?
Verification over trust
User self-assessment
Random checks
Trust over verification
58
What is essential for impact assessment?
Formal assessment process
Random evaluations
Only IT involvement
Ignoring data sensitivity
59
Which is not a ZTA step?
Deploy firewalls
Monitor access
Assess risks
Implement policies
60
True or false: Supply chain risks are irrelevant to cybersecurity.
False
True
61
What should be communicated during detection?
No communication needed
Detection alerts
Only internal emails
Ignoring alerts
62
What helps in monitoring external service providers?
Ignoring third parties
No contracts needed
Random checks
Formal monitoring requirements
63
True or false: Regular backups are unnecessary.
True
False
64
What is the purpose of post-incident reviews?
Identify root causes
Reduce transparency
Increase confusion
Delay response
65
How often should recovery strategies be reviewed?
Once a decade
Quarterly or biannually
Daily
Never
66
How can organizations validate updated strategies?
Random checks
Periodic testing
Ignore feedback
No testing
67
Which access control uses various attributes?
Discretionary Access Control
Role-Based Access Control
Attribute-Based Access Control
Mandatory Access Control
68
Which platform maintains audit trail of communications?
VPN
SIEM
Firewall
Incident management tool
69
What is a key component of incident response plans?
No communication
Ignoring incidents
Clear roles and responsibilities
Random actions
70
Which strategy helps repair reputation post-incident?
Secrecy
Ignore issues
Blame others
Transparent communication
71
What is a key benefit of maintaining an asset inventory?
Complicates management
Reduces attack surface
Limits access control
Increases costs
72
What does Zero Trust focus on?
Assume Breach
User convenience
Trust but verify
Open access
73
Why involve cross-functional teams in recovery?
Increase costs
Validate coordination
Delay recovery
Reduce communication
74
What is a system image?
A system snapshot
A memory dump
A file type
A data backup
75
How can feedback loops improve recovery plans?
Create confusion
Ignore improvements
Ensure alignment
Delay updates
76
What is a key benefit of lessons learned?
Increased downtime
Higher costs
More errors
Improved future recovery
77
True or false: Identity proof is always needed.
True
False
78
What does continuous authorization involve?
User self-assessment
One-time verification
Periodic checks only
Ongoing monitoring and decisions
79
Which tool helps in automated asset discovery?
Data backup tool
Antivirus software
Firewall
Network scanner
80
What is the purpose of sharing incident information?
Reduce transparency
Increase confusion
Delay actions
Coordinate response
81
What should be aligned with recovery strategies?
Random goals
Business objectives
No objectives
Personal opinions
82
Why incorporate lessons learned into response plans?
Increase confusion
Delay actions
Reduce transparency
Improve future response
83
What does SBOM stand for?
System Backup of Materials
Software Bill of Materials
Software Base of Management
Security Bill of Management
84
True or false: Anomaly detection is part of forensics.
True
False
85
How does ABAC enhance security?
No access control
Simple access control
Granular access control
Broad access control
86
What is a best practice for detection processes?
No documentation
Regular testing
Random evaluations
Ignoring tests
87
True or false: Anomalous activity indicates normal behavior.
False
True
88
Key aspects of ZTN do not include?
Meeting regulatory compliance
User authentication
Access control
Data encryption
89
True or false: ABAC uses user attributes.
True
False
90
Which principle aligns with ZTAA?
Some principles
None of the above
All of the above
Only one principle
91
What should be established for alert thresholds?
Ignoring alerts
Vague guidelines
Clear escalation criteria
No thresholds needed
92
What is a benefit of structured communication plans?
Delays recovery
Increases confusion
Reduces clarity
Builds trust
93
What is the goal of incident response planning?
Increase costs
Limit communication
Reduce staff training
Minimize downtime
94
True or false: Users access only needed apps.
True
False
95
Which is a common implementation for risk management?
Risk register
User access log
Incident report
Data backup plan
96
What should be included in a containment strategy?
Execute plan
Analyze impact
Notify stakeholders
Isolate systems
97
Which is a common implementation for monitoring?
CCTV systems
Manual checks only
Basic alarms
No monitoring tools
98
Which is a common implementation for vulnerability management?
One-time assessments
Manual reviews only
Automated scans
Ignoring vulnerabilities
99
What role do legal teams play in communication?
Ensure accuracy
Spread rumors
Ignore facts
Delay responses
100
What is the role of continuous authorization?
Limit access to admins only
Adjust access permissions
Set static permissions
Ignore user behavior
101
What is crucial for effective crisis communication?
Designated spokespersons
Random speakers
Delayed response
No guidelines
102
Which exercise validates response processes?
System audit
Stakeholder meeting
Tabletop exercise
Runbook review
103
What is a benefit of centralized collaboration platforms?
Increased confusion
No updates
Delayed communication
Real-time updates
104
What is the role of a Response Coordinator?
Contain malware
Track incidents
Initiate calls
Analyze threats
105
What does volatile memory refer to?
Permanent storage
Backup files
File metadata
Temporary data
106
What is a key aspect of ZTN?
Data backups
User training
Periodic reviews
Continuous monitoring
107
True or false: Cybersecurity training is optional for employees.
True
False
108
What does mapping data flows identify?
Data origins
Data sizes
Data types
Data destinations
109
Why share threat intelligence with external parties?
Increase confusion
Delay actions
Build collective defense
Reduce transparency
110
How can organizations reduce misinformation impact?
Monitor social media
Ignore rumors
Delay response
Spread false news
111
Select tools that fit within?
None of the above
Technology and budgetary
Only budget
Only technology
112
Which tool helps track compliance with regulations?
Manual logs
Email notifications
GRC platform
Social media updates
113
What is a best practice for identity management?
Use weak passwords
Limit access to all
Ignore user roles
Use single sign-on
114
What is the primary goal of recovery planning?
Minimize downtime
Expand business
Reduce staff
Increase profits
115
What is a common method for protecting data-in-transit?
Open networks
Unencrypted emails
Transport-level encryption
Plain text transfer
116
What is the purpose of a system log?
To delete files
To track system events
To encrypt data
To store user data
117
What is vital for detecting malicious code?
Ignoring updates
Random scans
Behavior-based tools
No tools needed
118
True or false: Cybersecurity roles should be clearly defined.
False
True
119
What does file signature indicate?
File location
File type
File owner
File size
120
Why conduct forensic analysis?
Increase confusion
Reduce transparency
Delay response
Uncover root cause
121
What does 'volatile' mean in forensics?
Permanent
Hidden
Temporary
Encrypted
122
What is the first step in response planning?
Execute plan
Analyze impact
Notify stakeholders
Contain incident
123
Why is empathy important in post-incident communication?
Increases distrust
Rebuilds trust
Delays recovery
Spreads fear
124
Is there one standard for Zero Trust?
True
False
125
True or false: User activity monitoring is optional.
False
True
126
What is the first step in incident containment?
Analyze impact
Isolate systems
Notify stakeholders
Execute plan
127
An application-centric approach includes?
Only security measures
Only user access
All of the above
Only data management
128
What helps prioritize response efforts?
Stakeholder meeting
Runbook review
System audit
Impact assessment
129
Which technology helps protect physical access?
Social media checks
Email verification
Password protection
Biometric systems
130
True or false: Zero Trust is outdated.
False
True
131
How do automated tools aid recovery?
Slow down process
Complicate tasks
Reduce manual errors
Increase errors
132
What is the significance of a checksum?
To speed up processes
To delete files
To hide data
To verify data integrity
133
What is the benefit of updating response strategies?
Reduce transparency
Prepare for threats
Delay actions
Increase confusion
134
What should organizations understand during incidents?
Duration of the incident
Scope of the incident
Cost of the incident
Number of users affected
135
What is a VEX document?
A compliance document
A software update
A vulnerability report
A security advisory
136
True or false: Regular audits are unnecessary for software management.
False
True
137
What is a key feature of Zero Trust?
Always verify access
Limited verification
Trust by default
Occasional checks
138
Why is version-controlled documentation important?
Ignore updates
Delay recovery
Confuse stakeholders
Access latest procedures
139
True or false: Regular training is unnecessary for cybersecurity roles.
True
False
140
Which tool aids in capturing traffic patterns?
Basic firewalls
NetFlow analyzers
Old routers
Manual logs
141
True or false: Metadata is irrelevant in forensics.
False
True
142
What is a benefit of conducting business impact analyses?
Limit resource allocation
Reduce compliance efforts
Increase operational risks
Estimate costs of downtime
143
What is a benefit of MFA?
One form of ID
Only password needed
No ID required
Two forms of ID
144
What is the impact of timely recovery communication?
Delays recovery
Spreads rumors
Increases panic
Reduces confusion
145
What is a benefit of using multi-factor authentication?
More passwords to remember
Slower access
Less user control
Increased security
146
True or false: Continuous monitoring is unnecessary.
True
False
147
Why is a formal incident response plan important?
Delays response
Increases confusion
Minimizes damage
Reduces transparency
148
What is a key aspect of supply chain risk management?
Limiting supplier contracts
Reducing supplier costs
Ignoring vendor security
Vetting new suppliers
149
Which document outlines cybersecurity roles?
Data flow diagram
Compliance matrix
Incident report
RACI chart
150
Which is a common implementation for vulnerability scans?
No tools needed
Automated tools
Manual checks only
Ignoring scans
151
What is the first step in forensics?
Data analysis
Data storage
Data deletion
Data collection
152
Which framework helps in risk management?
NIST SP 800-53
ISO 9001
ISO 31000
ISO 14001
153
What is a best practice for data destruction?
Shredding documents
Throwing in trash
Ignoring policies
Burning files
154
What is essential for continuous improvement?
Ignoring past incidents
Feedback loop
No evaluations
Random updates
155
What triggers escalating reporting actions?
Incident classification
Runbook review
Stakeholder meeting
System audit
156
Which principle does Zero Trust reject?
Always Trust, Never Verify
Never Trust, Always Verify
Trust but Verify
Verify but Trust
157
What is the goal of incident mitigation?
Reduce transparency
Delay response
Increase confusion
Restore operations
158
How often should access permissions be reviewed?
Regularly
Every month
Once a year
Never
159
What is file carving used for?
Encrypting data
Creating backups
Recovering deleted files
Analyzing memory
160
What is the last step in forensics?
Data deletion
Data collection
Data storage
Data analysis
161
What is the role of public relations in recovery?
Spread misinformation
Maintain stakeholder trust
Ignore stakeholders
Delay communication
162
Micro-segmentation limits the spread of?
Users
Threats
Applications
Data
163
What is the purpose of a risk appetite statement?
Limits security measures
Increases risk exposure
Defines acceptable risks
Reduces compliance needs
164
What is the purpose of documenting data transfers?
To speed up processes
To ensure accountability
To hide information
To confuse investigators

IA Final Flashcards | StudBud

IA Final

164 termsStudBud Administration4 plays

Imported from external platform

Flashcards164 cardsFPractice quizPHost liveL

Questions 164

Answers

1
What is the main goal of computer forensics?
Encrypt sensitive data
Recover lost data
Preserve evidence
Delete unwanted files
2
True or false: Steganography is a data recovery method.
True
False
3
Which practice ensures recovery plan effectiveness?
Regular testing
No documentation
Ignoring updates
Random changes
4
What is the benefit of a centralized incident management system?
Delay actions
Reduce transparency
Increase confusion
Organize response
5
What is the role of a forensics technician?
To document processes
To hide evidence
To alter data
To delete files
6
What is crucial for identifying anomalies?
Defining normal behavior
Random monitoring
Using outdated tools
Ignoring data flows
7
What is steganography?
Data concealment
Data recovery
Data encryption
Data analysis
8
True or false: Continuous improvement is optional.
False
True
9
True or false: All users should have the same access level.
False
True
10
True or false: Policies need regular updates.
False
True
11
What is a best practice for managing third-party risks?
Ignore vendor security
Use outdated contracts
Limit vendor access
Regular assessments
12
What helps detect unauthorized access?
No monitoring needed
Ignoring physical spaces
Physical security measures
Random checks
13
Why is stakeholder communication important in recovery?
Increases panic
Reduces uncertainty
Delays decisions
Spreads misinformation
14
True or false: All users need full access.
False
True
15
What is the role of automated containment tools?
Contain malware
Analyze threats
Track incidents
Block malicious processes
16
What is a RACI matrix used for?
Define roles
Track incidents
Contain malware
Analyze threats
17
True or false: Cybersecurity policies should be regularly reviewed.
True
False
18
What does 'magic numbers' refer to?
File type identifiers
File size indicators
File owner details
File encryption keys
19
What should be done with newly identified vulnerabilities?
Mitigate or document
Analyze threats
Track incidents
Contain malware
20
True or false: All data should be encrypted at rest.
False
True
21
What is the benefit of investigating alerts promptly?
Reduce transparency
Delay response
Identify threats early
Increase confusion
22
What is a memory dump?
Data encryption
Snapshot of RAM
File recovery
Data backup
23
True or false: Asset management is crucial for identifying vulnerabilities.
True
False
24
Which principle is least privilege?
Maximum access
Least Privilege Access
Full access for all
No access restrictions
25
True or false: Physical security and cybersecurity should be coordinated.
True
False
26
What ensures consistent incident categorization?
Runbook review
System audit
Stakeholder meeting
Defined categories
27
True or false: Detection processes should remain static.
False
True
28
Why is mapping data flows important?
Identifies security gaps
Increases data storage
Limits data access
Reduces data usage
29
What does checksum ensure?
Data was modified
Data remains unchanged
Data is lost
Data was tampered
30
Which tool guides real-time response workflow?
VPN
SIEM
Ticketing system
Firewall
31
True or false: Identity management reduces unauthorized access risks.
False
True
32
True or false: File carving can recover deleted files.
True
False
33
How should maintenance activities be logged?
Only for major repairs
With detailed records
Randomly
Not at all
34
What should be included in a vulnerability management plan?
Ignoring vulnerabilities
No documentation
Only annual reviews
Regular scanning and patching
35
How can organizations support affected customers?
Ignore concerns
Offer credit monitoring
Delay support
Spread misinformation
36
What is the goal of monitoring access?
Detect unauthorized access
Simplify processes
Reduce costs
Increase user access
37
True or false: RBAC assigns permissions based on roles.
True
False
38
What helps in understanding attack methods?
Using outdated data
Random guessing
Ignoring event logs
Thorough event analysis
39
True or false: Data-at-rest does not need protection.
False
True
40
What does RBAC ensure for users?
Access to necessary resources
Access to all resources
No access at all
Limited access only
41
True or false: MFA requires one form of ID.
True
False
42
Why is stakeholder briefing frequency important?
Ensures informed decisions
Delays actions
Creates confusion
Spreads misinformation
43
True or false: Categorizing data helps protect it.
False
True
44
What is Zero Trust's core principle?
Always Trust, Never Verify
Never Trust, Always Verify
Trust but Verify
Verify but Trust
45
True or false: Remote access should be unrestricted.
False
True
46
Which data source is NOT used in forensics?
System logs
Random user input
Memory dumps
Network traffic
47
What is a key principle of access management?
Random access
No restrictions
Maximum access
Least privilege
48
What is a key aspect of crisis communication plans?
Random messages
Clear messaging guidelines
No guidelines
Delayed responses
49
ZTAA manages access to an organization's?
Users
Data
Devices
Applications
50
What does Zero Trust aim to prevent?
Unauthorized access
Authorized access
No access at all
Limited access
51
What is a common implementation for recovery improvements?
Random changes
No documentation
Lessons learned register
Ignore past events
52
What enhances access control in Zero Trust?
Attribute-Based Access Control
No access control
Role-Based Access Control
Simple access control
53
True or false: External systems should be catalogued for security.
False
True
54
What is a vulnerability disclosure policy?
Contain malware
Report potential issues
Analyze threats
Track incidents
55
Which is a common ZTA step?
Limit data access
Create Access Policies
Ignore user roles
Increase firewall rules
56
True or false: Chain of custody is unimportant.
False
True
57
What does Zero Trust prioritize?
Verification over trust
User self-assessment
Random checks
Trust over verification
58
What is essential for impact assessment?
Formal assessment process
Random evaluations
Only IT involvement
Ignoring data sensitivity
59
Which is not a ZTA step?
Deploy firewalls
Monitor access
Assess risks
Implement policies
60
True or false: Supply chain risks are irrelevant to cybersecurity.
False
True
61
What should be communicated during detection?
No communication needed
Detection alerts
Only internal emails
Ignoring alerts
62
What helps in monitoring external service providers?
Ignoring third parties
No contracts needed
Random checks
Formal monitoring requirements
63
True or false: Regular backups are unnecessary.
True
False
64
What is the purpose of post-incident reviews?
Identify root causes
Reduce transparency
Increase confusion
Delay response
65
How often should recovery strategies be reviewed?
Once a decade
Quarterly or biannually
Daily
Never
66
How can organizations validate updated strategies?
Random checks
Periodic testing
Ignore feedback
No testing
67
Which access control uses various attributes?
Discretionary Access Control
Role-Based Access Control
Attribute-Based Access Control
Mandatory Access Control
68
Which platform maintains audit trail of communications?
VPN
SIEM
Firewall
Incident management tool
69
What is a key component of incident response plans?
No communication
Ignoring incidents
Clear roles and responsibilities
Random actions
70
Which strategy helps repair reputation post-incident?
Secrecy
Ignore issues
Blame others
Transparent communication
71
What is a key benefit of maintaining an asset inventory?
Complicates management
Reduces attack surface
Limits access control
Increases costs
72
What does Zero Trust focus on?
Assume Breach
User convenience
Trust but verify
Open access
73
Why involve cross-functional teams in recovery?
Increase costs
Validate coordination
Delay recovery
Reduce communication
74
What is a system image?
A system snapshot
A memory dump
A file type
A data backup
75
How can feedback loops improve recovery plans?
Create confusion
Ignore improvements
Ensure alignment
Delay updates
76
What is a key benefit of lessons learned?
Increased downtime
Higher costs
More errors
Improved future recovery
77
True or false: Identity proof is always needed.
True
False
78
What does continuous authorization involve?
User self-assessment
One-time verification
Periodic checks only
Ongoing monitoring and decisions
79
Which tool helps in automated asset discovery?
Data backup tool
Antivirus software
Firewall
Network scanner
80
What is the purpose of sharing incident information?
Reduce transparency
Increase confusion
Delay actions
Coordinate response
81
What should be aligned with recovery strategies?
Random goals
Business objectives
No objectives
Personal opinions
82
Why incorporate lessons learned into response plans?
Increase confusion
Delay actions
Reduce transparency
Improve future response
83
What does SBOM stand for?
System Backup of Materials
Software Bill of Materials
Software Base of Management
Security Bill of Management
84
True or false: Anomaly detection is part of forensics.
True
False
85
How does ABAC enhance security?
No access control
Simple access control
Granular access control
Broad access control
86
What is a best practice for detection processes?
No documentation
Regular testing
Random evaluations
Ignoring tests
87
True or false: Anomalous activity indicates normal behavior.
False
True
88
Key aspects of ZTN do not include?
Meeting regulatory compliance
User authentication
Access control
Data encryption
89
True or false: ABAC uses user attributes.
True
False
90
Which principle aligns with ZTAA?
Some principles
None of the above
All of the above
Only one principle
91
What should be established for alert thresholds?
Ignoring alerts
Vague guidelines
Clear escalation criteria
No thresholds needed
92
What is a benefit of structured communication plans?
Delays recovery
Increases confusion
Reduces clarity
Builds trust
93
What is the goal of incident response planning?
Increase costs
Limit communication
Reduce staff training
Minimize downtime
94
True or false: Users access only needed apps.
True
False
95
Which is a common implementation for risk management?
Risk register
User access log
Incident report
Data backup plan
96
What should be included in a containment strategy?
Execute plan
Analyze impact
Notify stakeholders
Isolate systems
97
Which is a common implementation for monitoring?
CCTV systems
Manual checks only
Basic alarms
No monitoring tools
98
Which is a common implementation for vulnerability management?
One-time assessments
Manual reviews only
Automated scans
Ignoring vulnerabilities
99
What role do legal teams play in communication?
Ensure accuracy
Spread rumors
Ignore facts
Delay responses
100
What is the role of continuous authorization?
Limit access to admins only
Adjust access permissions
Set static permissions
Ignore user behavior
101
What is crucial for effective crisis communication?
Designated spokespersons
Random speakers
Delayed response
No guidelines
102
Which exercise validates response processes?
System audit
Stakeholder meeting
Tabletop exercise
Runbook review
103
What is a benefit of centralized collaboration platforms?
Increased confusion
No updates
Delayed communication
Real-time updates
104
What is the role of a Response Coordinator?
Contain malware
Track incidents
Initiate calls
Analyze threats
105
What does volatile memory refer to?
Permanent storage
Backup files
File metadata
Temporary data
106
What is a key aspect of ZTN?
Data backups
User training
Periodic reviews
Continuous monitoring
107
True or false: Cybersecurity training is optional for employees.
True
False
108
What does mapping data flows identify?
Data origins
Data sizes
Data types
Data destinations
109
Why share threat intelligence with external parties?
Increase confusion
Delay actions
Build collective defense
Reduce transparency
110
How can organizations reduce misinformation impact?
Monitor social media
Ignore rumors
Delay response
Spread false news
111
Select tools that fit within?
None of the above
Technology and budgetary
Only budget
Only technology
112
Which tool helps track compliance with regulations?
Manual logs
Email notifications
GRC platform
Social media updates
113
What is a best practice for identity management?
Use weak passwords
Limit access to all
Ignore user roles
Use single sign-on
114
What is the primary goal of recovery planning?
Minimize downtime
Expand business
Reduce staff
Increase profits
115
What is a common method for protecting data-in-transit?
Open networks
Unencrypted emails
Transport-level encryption
Plain text transfer
116
What is the purpose of a system log?
To delete files
To track system events
To encrypt data
To store user data
117
What is vital for detecting malicious code?
Ignoring updates
Random scans
Behavior-based tools
No tools needed
118
True or false: Cybersecurity roles should be clearly defined.
False
True
119
What does file signature indicate?
File location
File type
File owner
File size
120
Why conduct forensic analysis?
Increase confusion
Reduce transparency
Delay response
Uncover root cause
121
What does 'volatile' mean in forensics?
Permanent
Hidden
Temporary
Encrypted
122
What is the first step in response planning?
Execute plan
Analyze impact
Notify stakeholders
Contain incident
123
Why is empathy important in post-incident communication?
Increases distrust
Rebuilds trust
Delays recovery
Spreads fear
124
Is there one standard for Zero Trust?
True
False
125
True or false: User activity monitoring is optional.
False
True
126
What is the first step in incident containment?
Analyze impact
Isolate systems
Notify stakeholders
Execute plan
127
An application-centric approach includes?
Only security measures
Only user access
All of the above
Only data management
128
What helps prioritize response efforts?
Stakeholder meeting
Runbook review
System audit
Impact assessment
129
Which technology helps protect physical access?
Social media checks
Email verification
Password protection
Biometric systems
130
True or false: Zero Trust is outdated.
False
True
131
How do automated tools aid recovery?
Slow down process
Complicate tasks
Reduce manual errors
Increase errors
132
What is the significance of a checksum?
To speed up processes
To delete files
To hide data
To verify data integrity
133
What is the benefit of updating response strategies?
Reduce transparency
Prepare for threats
Delay actions
Increase confusion
134
What should organizations understand during incidents?
Duration of the incident
Scope of the incident
Cost of the incident
Number of users affected
135
What is a VEX document?
A compliance document
A software update
A vulnerability report
A security advisory
136
True or false: Regular audits are unnecessary for software management.
False
True
137
What is a key feature of Zero Trust?
Always verify access
Limited verification
Trust by default
Occasional checks
138
Why is version-controlled documentation important?
Ignore updates
Delay recovery
Confuse stakeholders
Access latest procedures
139
True or false: Regular training is unnecessary for cybersecurity roles.
True
False
140
Which tool aids in capturing traffic patterns?
Basic firewalls
NetFlow analyzers
Old routers
Manual logs
141
True or false: Metadata is irrelevant in forensics.
False
True
142
What is a benefit of conducting business impact analyses?
Limit resource allocation
Reduce compliance efforts
Increase operational risks
Estimate costs of downtime
143
What is a benefit of MFA?
One form of ID
Only password needed
No ID required
Two forms of ID
144
What is the impact of timely recovery communication?
Delays recovery
Spreads rumors
Increases panic
Reduces confusion
145
What is a benefit of using multi-factor authentication?
More passwords to remember
Slower access
Less user control
Increased security
146
True or false: Continuous monitoring is unnecessary.
True
False
147
Why is a formal incident response plan important?
Delays response
Increases confusion
Minimizes damage
Reduces transparency
148
What is a key aspect of supply chain risk management?
Limiting supplier contracts
Reducing supplier costs
Ignoring vendor security
Vetting new suppliers
149
Which document outlines cybersecurity roles?
Data flow diagram
Compliance matrix
Incident report
RACI chart
150
Which is a common implementation for vulnerability scans?
No tools needed
Automated tools
Manual checks only
Ignoring scans
151
What is the first step in forensics?
Data analysis
Data storage
Data deletion
Data collection
152
Which framework helps in risk management?
NIST SP 800-53
ISO 9001
ISO 31000
ISO 14001
153
What is a best practice for data destruction?
Shredding documents
Throwing in trash
Ignoring policies
Burning files
154
What is essential for continuous improvement?
Ignoring past incidents
Feedback loop
No evaluations
Random updates
155
What triggers escalating reporting actions?
Incident classification
Runbook review
Stakeholder meeting
System audit
156
Which principle does Zero Trust reject?
Always Trust, Never Verify
Never Trust, Always Verify
Trust but Verify
Verify but Trust
157
What is the goal of incident mitigation?
Reduce transparency
Delay response
Increase confusion
Restore operations
158
How often should access permissions be reviewed?
Regularly
Every month
Once a year
Never
159
What is file carving used for?
Encrypting data
Creating backups
Recovering deleted files
Analyzing memory
160
What is the last step in forensics?
Data deletion
Data collection
Data storage
Data analysis
161
What is the role of public relations in recovery?
Spread misinformation
Maintain stakeholder trust
Ignore stakeholders
Delay communication
162
Micro-segmentation limits the spread of?
Users
Threats
Applications
Data
163
What is the purpose of a risk appetite statement?
Limits security measures
Increases risk exposure
Defines acceptable risks
Reduces compliance needs
164
What is the purpose of documenting data transfers?
To speed up processes
To ensure accountability
To hide information
To confuse investigators