stud
bud
Sign up
Log in
Home
Library
Explore
SAT
More
Rasmussen Pharm Nursing Summer 2016 Flashcards | StudBud
Explore
/
Rasmussen Pharm Nursing Summer 2016
Rasmussen Pharm Nursing Summer 2016
156 terms
·
StudBud Administration
·
207 plays
ADN Nursing pharm
Flashcards
156 cards
F
Practice quiz
P
Host live
L
Questions
156
Answers
1
A pt. with CHF has been receiving digoxin for 1 week. An early sign of toxicity is . . .
bradypnea
vomiting
failure to thrive
tachycardia
2
Which type of antibiotic interacts with Ca, Fe, and Mg?
Cephalosporin
Macrolids
Tetracyline
Penicillins
3
Treatment for status epilepticus is:
Diazepam & lorazepam
Benztropine & MS Contin
buspirone & Atropine
donepezil & amytryptilline
4
What precautions should the nurse give to a patient taking an MAO inhibitor?
Take the medication with milk
Avoid walking without assistance
Take frequent naps
Avoid chocolate and cheese
5
Which two combinations of drugs should not be taken in combination?
amoxicillin and clavulanate
isoproterenol and propanolol
ASA and codiene
meperidine and promethazine
6
A common sign of an adverse reaction to a medication in the older client is?
a sudden change in mental staus
difficulty swallowing
shortness of breath
incontinence
7
What is the purpose of radioactive iodine?
to treat colon cancer
to help with GI distress
to treat hyperthyroidism
to treat hypothyroidism
8
Which instruction should a nurse give her diabetic client on a beta-blocker for hypertension?
Decrease intake of carbs while on the hypertensives.
Increase insulin intake by 2 times units daily each morning.
Monitor blood glucose levels and report hypoglycemia.
9
What is given for a Barbituate overdose?
Tylenol
Narcan
Romazicon
Charcoal
10
Which lab value will best reflect renal function in a client taking multiple medicines?
phosphorus
potassium levels
magnesium
creatinine clearance
11
What condition would benztropine be ordered for?
Motion Sickness
Paralytic ileus
Parkinsonism
Urinary Retention
12
What is a sign/symptom of Lithium toxicity?
Irregular Heartbeat
Vomiting
Depression
Insomnia
13
What medicine should you stress oral care due to gingival hyperplasia?
Phenytoin (Dilantin)
Epinephrine
Dantrolene (Dantrium)
Triopental (Penotal)
14
What is the normal gauge needle for an adult?
10-12 gauge
15-18 gauge
23-26 gauge
20-22 gauge
15
A patient is switched from lovodopa to ropinirole. Which is a side effect of ropinirole ?
Psychosis
Sleep attacks
Dry mouth
Postural hypotension
16
Which of the following drugs would the nurse question for a patient with a seizure disorder?
Valproic acid (Depakote), 150 mg BID
Amitriptyline (Elavil), 10 mg QID
Phenobarbital, 150 mg hs
Phenytoin (Dilantin), 100 mg TID
17
A drug ending in the suffix (pril) is considered a?
Beta agonist
H
ACE inhibitor
antifungal
18
Avoid foods with ____ when taking a (MAOI) monoamine oxidase inhibitor.
Tyramine
Apples
Oranges
Cookies
19
physician orders Cefaclor 100mg PO QID. Pharmacy supplies Cefaclor 125mg per 5 mL. How many mls
2 ml
4 ml
3 ml
5 ml
20
Which drug is often used when a patient has a penicillin allergy?
Chocolate
Tylenol
Macrolides (erythromycin)
Asprin
21
Order: 2,500 mcg; Pharmacy provides: 5 mg/mL. How many mL should be administered?
0.75 mL
0.5 mL
2 mL
1 mL
22
A patient is getting digoxin and lasix. Which symptoms must be reported
immediately
?
Night sweats and headache
Vomiting and halos around lights
Stomach upset and headache
Low blood pressure and dark urine
23
Which of these groups should be counseled to avoid the use of oral contraceptives?
Women who had an abortion
Women who smoke heavily
Women who have had an IUD in the past
Women who have given birth
24
A client takes a dose of albuterol (Ventolin) before bed. Which is a normal side effect?
Insomnia
Urticaria
Sleepiness
Tinnitus
25
What PT teaching should be included with MAO I?
avoid walking without assistance
avoid chocolate and cheese
avoid fruit
take medication with milk
26
What is an action of sympathomimetics (adrenergics)?
Constricted pupils
Increase muscle tone
Decrease BP
Increase BP
27
What is the abbreviation for right ear?
OD
AD
OU
AS
28
what is the pregnancy risk category for methotrexate?
A
X
D
C
29
What patients should not receive an attenuated vaccine?
Teens
Immunocompromised patients
Children
Pregnant women
30
What scheduled class do antitussives fall under?
Schedule V
Schedule II
Schedule IV
Schedule I
31
Adrenergics are known as
Flight and Rest
Fight or Flight
Rest and Digest
Catch and Release
32
Which of the following is not a side effect of epinephrine?
Nervousness
Tremor
Pupil relaxation
Insomnia
33
Client in ED has benzodiazepine toxicity due to an overdose. Which is the nursing priority?
Prepare the client for gastric lavage
Identify the clients level of orientation
Administer flumazenil (Romazicon)
Infuse IV fluids
34
Which situation necessitates the use of restraints on a client?
The client is confused.
Medical evaluation and written provider orders.
The family requests restraints for safety.
Insufficient staffing on the unit
35
What is an example of an SSRI drug?
Dexedrine
Acetaminophen
Ritalin
Lexapro
36
Adverse reaction that could occur from lidocaine used during skin laceration repair?
fever
tachycardia
hypertension
seizures
37
What is the most commonly prescribed medication to aid patients with sleep disorders?
Triptan
Anesthetic
Sedative-hypnotic
Analeptic
38
Which data indicates that simvastatin (Zocor), an HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor, is effective?
The clients cholesterol level is 180mg/dL.
The clients bp is 132/80
The clients HDL is 35 mg/dL.
The clients LDL is 180 mg/dL.
39
When taking Fluoroquinolones, the client should report what to the health care provider?
Calf pain
Diaphoresis
Constipation
Nausea and vomiting
40
What is important for a nurse teaching a patient about secobarbital?
It is intermediate-acting that can cause REM rebound
It is short-acting and may cause one to awaken early
It is intermediate-acting that can cause a hangover effect
It is a long-acting that can be associated with dependence
41
IV infusion of gentamicin at 0900 will take 1 hr to infuse. When should peak level be checked?
1000
1100
1130
1030
42
What lab value best reflects renal function while taking multiple medications?
Creatine clearance
Sodium levels
Potassium levels
Calcium levels
43
Good oral care is based on the nurses knowledge that Phenytoin has what effect on oral tissue?
Promotes bacterial growth at the gum lines
It erodes and destroys tooth enamal
Causes hyperplasia of the gums
Increases alkalinity of oral secretions
44
Why would a myasthenia patient need to take their anticholinesterase med 1 hour before meals?
Prevents blood sugar from dropping
Allows the medication to kick in making it easier to chew
Medication is irritating to stomach
Medication can cause vomiting so waiting will prevent that
45
Convert 100 kg into lbs.
22 lbs
66 lbs
220 lbs
440 lbs
46
Right not included in the ten Rights of Medication Administration
Right Evaluation
Right for Consul
Right assessment
Right Education
47
What part of the eye should you put erythromycin ointment in the eyes to prevent infection?
under the eyelid
by the optic disc
on the cornea
in the lower conjunctival sac
48
Which class of drugs enhances GABA?
benzodiazepines
dopamine
vasopressin
barbituates
49
8 oz + 1 cup + 240 mL is how many cups?
3 Cups
3 mL
24 Cups
5 Cups
50
Which would be most important and require investigation on assessment of skin of an 85 yr old?
ecchymoses on both forearms
Cherry hemangiomas across the anterior and posterior trunk
Tenting of the skin on the back of hands
Nevi on the neck and head
51
What type of lung sounds are heard on a health patient
High-pitched blowing sounds
Crackles
Adventitious
Vesicular
52
Tetracycline's are contraindicated in:
Infection
Pregnancy
Mental Health Disease
Renal Disease
53
Patient experiences pulmonary edema because the RN forgot to give AM Meds. What can RN face?
Tort
Negligence
Slander
Assault charge
54
Patient taking Flagyl should avoid:
Blueberries
Alcohol
Pizza
Grapefruit Juice
55
What is a known side effect of heparin?
Thrombocytopenia
Leukopenia
Tinnitus
Diarrhea
56
A nurse is providing instructions to a client regarding Accupril. The nurse tells the client:
to discontinue the medication if nausea occurs
to rise slowly from a lying to a sitting position
that a therapeutic effect will be noted immediately
to take the medication with food only
57
The nurse should monitor the patient receiving phenytoin for which side effect?
HTN
Gum Erosion
Nose Bleeds
Psychosis
58
Walter is admitted to hospital due to Tylenol overdose. Which organ will this effect most?
Liver
Adrenal Glands
Kidney
Lungs
59
Overdoses of acetaminophen can precipitate life-threatening abnormalities in which organ?
Lungs
Adrenal Glands
Liver
Kidney
60
What is the legal responsibility for a medication given to a patient that they were allergic to
The physician's responsibility
The nurses's responsibility
The pharmacist's responsibility
The pharmasist, physician, and nurse
61
Which type of drugs can cause a ruptured Achilles tendon?
Tetracyclines
Antifungals
Cephalosporins
Quinolones
62
Patients who are allergic to IV contrast are commonly allergic to what?
Shellfish
Soy
Eggs
Acidic fruits
63
What symptom does valporic acid treat?
Indigestion
Diarrhea
Seizure
Migraine
64
4 clients have received chemotherapy. Which client should the nurse see first
The client with nausea and vomiting
The client with a fever of 100.3 F
The client with diarrhea and mouth sores
The client with lightly bleeding gums
65
the nurse if putting erthromycin in a newborn's eye. Where is the correct place to put it?
In the conjuctival sac
By the optic disc
Under the lid
On the cornea
66
Which drug for rheumatoid arthritis has both an anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive effect?
Azathioprine (Imuran)
Gold sodium thiomalate (Myochrysine)
Prednisone (Deltasone)
Naproxen (Naprosyn)
67
AD
left eye
right ear
left ear
right eye
68
Adrenergics...
Increase bowel and bladder contractility
elevated heart rate and blood pressure, open airways
lower heart rate
cause constipation
69
Normal blood urea nitrogen range (BUN) is?
13-17 g/dl
4,500-11,000 mms
10-20 mg/dl
0.5-1.2 mg/dl
70
Which of the following is true when educating patients about penicillin therapy?
must be taken at evenly spaced intervals
if taking oral contraceptives, you must use a back up
make save leftover meds for future illnesses
signs of a allergic reaction, continue meds and call dr
71
RN order to give IM penicillin, patient states rash from penicillin. What do you do?
Administer dose
Ad,minister oral antihistamine at the same time
Ask provider to change the RX to oral form
withhold medication
72
What insulin should never be mixed with another insulin?
Lantus
Regular insulin
Humalog
NPH
73
What class of antibiotics can discolor teeth?
Cephalosporins
Tetracycline
NSAIDS
Penicillins
74
What does Ciproflaxin treat?
UTI
TB
Tendon pain
Bacterial Meningitis
75
The nurse should monitor a pat receiving phenytoin for what side effect?
nosebleeds
psychosis
hypertension
gum erosion
76
What mm in a Tuberculin Skin test results in a positive screening
4 mm
1 mm
3 mm
5 mm
77
What foods should patients with anemia eat?
chicken liver and apricots
bananas and lobster
tomatoes and cheese
potatoes and rice
78
Which is least likely to influence the potential for a client to comply with lithium therapy?
The potential side effects of lithium
What their friends think of his need to take medication
The impact of lithium on their energy level & lifestyle
The need for consistent blood level monitoring
79
With Cholinergic drugs you will not experience?
Increased peristalsis
Increased Heart Rate
Increase in Sweat Glands
Dilation of Blood Vessels
80
An adverse effect of barbiturates used for general anesthesia is:
visual halucinations
hypotension and and tachycardia
hypertension and bradycardia
anixiety
81
Order: 10 mg; Pharmacy Provides: 20 mg per tablet. How many tablets should be given?
4 tablets
2 tablet
1 tablet
0.5 tablet
82
Which drug can cause Red-Man Syndrome?
vancocin (vancomycin)
Bicillin
Desmopressin
rocephin (ceftrioxone)
83
When giving intradermal TB skin test what angle do you insert the needle
10-15
90
30-40
45
84
What drug is used in treating Parkinson's Disease?
Barclofen (Lioresal)
Selegiline (Elderprly)
Memantine (Namenda)
Zolpidem (Ambiem)
85
Where does disintegration of enteric-coated tablets occur?
Small intestine
Stomach
Colon
Liver
86
The most serious adverse effect of tricyclic antidepressant overdose is...
Cardiac arrhythmias
Seizures
Metabolic acidosis
Hyperprexia
87
Side effects of Dopamine analogues
GI bleeding
Respiratory depression
Dyskinesias
Confusion and insomnia
88
A male is having tonic-clonic seizures. What should the nurse do first?
Elevate the head of the head
Take measures to prevent injury
Place a tongue blade in the client's mouth
Restrain the client's arms and legs
89
How many mL's are in 1 ounce?
100
60
30
1,000
90
Pertussis (whooping cough) vaccines are administered where?
Intradermal
PO
Sub Q
IM
91
What herbal supplement increases the effect of warfarin?
Bitter Melon
Ginkgo Biloba
Marijuana
Thistle
92
Contraindication for topical corticosteriod in male patient with atopic dermatitis (eczema)
viral infection
parasite infection
bacterial infection
spirochete infection
93
When assessing clients for a penicillin allergy,which symptom may not be a hypersentivity react
uticaria
edema
wheezing
nausea
94
Which is a side effect of analgesic?
No Bowel Movement for 3 days
Bruising
Decreased Platelet Count
Elevated Heart Rate
95
What is Donepezil indicated for?
Treatment of seizures
Relief of anxiety
Alzheimer's disease
Parkinson's disease
96
What side effect should be most important to recognize when giving ziprasidone (Geodon)
epigastric pain
increase in QT interval
diarrhea
drowsiness
97
Patient has been ordered cyclobenzaprine (for muscle spasms), which also may be ordered?
Both A and B
None of the above
Rest
Physical therapy
98
A nurse should not administer more than _mL per intramuscular or _mL per subcutaneous injection
3mL; 1mL
5mL; 2mL
2mL; 2mL
5mL; 1mL
99
What are the three interactions of aminoglycosides?
Advil, Penicillin, Vitamin B12
Coumadin, Penicillin, Loop Diuretics
Grapefruit juice, coumadin, tylenol
Loop, Diuretics, Penicillin, Potassium
100
82 year old female presents with new onset confusion. She is incontinent. Which order fits?
Admit for observation and Neuro exam
New Dx of dementia
CT of head
CBC, U/A, IV Antiboitic
101
Patients who are allergic to intravenous contrast media are usually also allergic to which?
Acidic fruits
Soy
Eggs
Shellfish
102
A child weighing 44 lbs would weigh how many kilograms?
88 kg
20 kg
27 kg
33 kg
103
The nurse is giving an IV vesicant chemo med. Highest priority complication?
A rash on the client's extremeties
Stomatitis lesion in the mouth
Severe nausea and vomiting
Complaints of pain at site of infusion
104
What drug class blocks the signs of hypoglycemia?
Antipyretics
Beta Blockers
Alpha
Ace Inhibitors
105
Which body organ is the major site of drug metabolism?
Lung
Skin
Liver
Kidney
106
What is a side effect of heparin?
Thrombocytopenia
diarrhea
Excess thirst
Anxiety
107
Which drug has a potential interaction with garlic?
Digoxin
Warfarin
Phenytoin
Acetaminophen
108
How should statins be administered?
Without meals in the evening
With milk in the afternoon
After a full meal
1st thing in the morning
109
What anti-neoplastic/nitrogen mustard do you have to watch for kidney toxicity with?
methotrexate
folic acid
cyclophosphamide
Aztrenonam
110
Which is false about therapeutics uses of Thionamides?
prevents oxidation of iodide
inhibits conversion of T4 into T3
blocks the synthesis of thyroid hormones
treatment for Grave's disease
111
What is the proper method when mixing a short and long acting insulin?
pull 1/2 long acting, then short, then balance of long
cannot mix these type of insulins
pull short acting in the syringe first
pull long acting in the syringe first
112
After falling from a roof a man needs an open airway, the best method to do this is:
Modified head tilt-chin lift
Flexed position
Jaw thrust maneuver
Head tilt-chin lift
113
What short acting benzodiazepine is used for conscious sedation?
Midazolam
Chlordiazepoxide
Lorazepam
Diazepam
114
A client with a malignant brain tumor. Which anticipated med will the doctor prescribe?
Erythropoietin (Epogen), a biological response modifier.
Octreotide (Sandostatin), a pituitary suppressant.
Phenytoin (Dilantin), an anticonvulsant.
Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan), an alkylating agent, IVPB.
115
Phenobarbitol should be used cautiously with patients with what?
diabetes
increased motor activity
hepatic dysfunction
seizure disorder
116
A client tells the nurse that her skin is dry and irritated. Which product would help?
glycerin emollient
acetic acid solution
aspercreame
myoflex
117
What is the most important assessment before administering Metoprolol (Lopressor) to a client?
Take their blood pressure
Take their tempurature
Check them for peripheral edema
Check their lung sounds
118
Which instruction should the nurse include to a female patient who is taking zolpidem?
allow at least 6 hr for sleep when taking zolpiderm
notify the provider if you plan to become pregnant
take the medication 1 hour before you plan to go to sleep
to increase effectiveness of zolpidem, take it with a meal
119
Epinephrine is given to a client with allergic reaction. The primary purpose of this med is to
stop the systemic release of histamine produced by cells
counteract the formation of antibodies
elevated blood pressure and dilate constricting bronchi
increase the number of white blood cells
120
What immunoglobulins are released during an allergic response?
IgA
IgE
IgD
IgG
121
What category of drugs have names that end in, "-lol"?
Insulins
Benzos
Beta Blockers
Ace Inhibitors
122
Which is incorrect about insulin?
store below 60 degrees Fahrenheit
discard after 1 month
avoid proximity to sunlight
store at room temperature
123
A nurse notices a clumpy precipitate inside the insulin vial. The nurse should:
shake the vial in an attempt to disperse the clumps
draw up and administer the dose
warm the bottle under running water to dissolve the clump
draw the dose from a new vial
124
Where is erythromycin eliminated?
Kidneys
Bowel
Bile
Sweat
125
Immediately discontinuing the use of benzodiazepines will NOT cause hallucinations.
false
true
126
Coumadin 9mg pharmacy provides 3mg tablets. How many do you give?
2 tablets
9 tablets
1 tablet
3 tablets
127
What position do you put patients in when giving vaginal medications?
Sims
Supine
Lateral
Low Fowlers
128
Which antibiotic often causes C-Dif
Vancomycin
Rocephin
Cipro
Minocycline
129
A client who uses OTC Phenylephrine nasal spray asks the nurse how the medication works?
it is absorbed after you swallow it to act as a decongestant
destroys the invading organisms that cause colds and flu
it coats the nasal passage to reduce swelling
Shrink swelling in nose by tightening the bloodvessels there
130
A client is receiving Bethanechol, this used to treat what condition?
Urinary Retention
Delayed Gastric emptying
Gastroesophageal reflux disease
Glaucoma
131
A patient is started on Dopamine via peripheral iv site. Which effect should the nurse monitor?
Pitting edema
Hypotension
Petechia
Tissue Necrosis
132
What 2 medications cause a disulfiram like reaction
Metoprolol & Lasix
Zoloft & Oxycodone
Metronidazole & Doxycycline
Docusate & Multivitamin
133
A medication is due at 2100 what is the correct time to give and chart the medication?
11:00pm
9:00am
11:00am
9:00pm
134
A patient has heart rate of 34 and blood pressure of 76/48. Which medication would you give?
Dopamine
Atropine
Epinephrine
Dobutamine
135
What is an early sign of digitalis toxicity for a 2 y.o CHF patient taking digoxin?
tachycardia
bradypnea
vomiting
failure to thrive
136
Which of the following adverse effects is associated with levothyroxine therapy?
Hypotension
Tachycardia
Constipation
Bradycardia
137
What is one of the symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome?
nausea
excitability
hallucinations
severe muscle stiffness
138
What is Antabuse prescribed to treat?
heroine addiction
alcholism
opioid overdose
cocaine addiction
139
Macrolides are best known for which side effect?
Sudden Cardiac Death
Uritcaria
Polyuria
Tinnitus
140
People with Pernicious anemia cant absorb B12 because of what deficiency?
Extrinsic Factor
Folic Acid
Gastrin
Intrinsic Factor
141
Benztropine is used to treat?
Dancing Fever
Parkinsonism
Urinary Retention
Paralytic ileus
142
Which barbiturate is a long acting anti- epileptic?
luminal (Phenobarbital)
dantrolene (pantrium)
prozom (Estazolam)
nembutal (Pentobarbital)
143
What is appropriate client education about insulin injections?
use the same site
use site where severely bruised
rotate injection sites
allow less than 1 inch between sites
144
A drug ending in the suffix (azole) is considered a?
antifungal
Beta agonist
Ace inhibitor
antibacterial
145
Can't see, can't spit, can't pee, can't poop. What drug causes these symptoms?
Atricept
Tetracycline
Buspar
Atropine
146
nurse is giving a patient an antibiotic.How will nurse verify he is giving it to right person
Check Patient wristband and ask them name and DOB
Check the patient's room number on the census list
Call patient by their name
Read the patient chart on the back of the door
147
Carbamazepine is used for what condition?
Dehydration
Epilepsy and Bipolar Disorder
Fever
Sleep Disorder
148
What medication can not be crushed?
Tylenol
Lisinopril
Aspirin
Depakote
149
Which of the following drug levels are not therapeutic?
Lithium 1.4
Dilantin 1.4
Digoxin 1.8
Theophylline 15
150
Erythromycin can cause which frequent side effect?
Severe diarrhea
Abdominal cramping
Yellow discoloration to the white part of the eye
Yellow-colored skin
151
What would be given to reverse the effects of a Benzodiazepine?
Buprenorphine
Active Charcoal
Flumazenil
Naloxone
152
What's the antibiotic combination that is used to treat C-Diff?
Rocephin & Iron
Vancomycin &Flagyl
Vancomycin & Penicillin
Doxycycline &Flagyl
153
Main side effect of a to quick infusion of Vancomycin?
Fever
SOB
Flushing
HTN
154
Common side effect of influenza vaccine
Constipation
Pain at the injection site
Tinnitus
Blurred vision
155
How many milligrams (mg) are there in 1 gram?
1
100
1000
10
156
12 year old prescribed methylphenidate. What should the nurse monitor?
Temperature
Intake and Output
Height and Weight
Respirations
