6/18 Trivia Night

Question 1

SATA: A client is admitted for a hypertensive crisis. Which medications should the nurse anticipate?

Accepted Answer

B. Nitroprusside IV, A. Labetalol IV, C. Nicardipine IV

Question 2

A nurse is monitoring a client on IV heparin. Which lab value requires immediate intervention?

Accepted Answer

D. Platelets 40,000

Question 3

Which sign is indicative of hypocalcemia?

Accepted Answer

C. Positive Trousseau’s sign

Question 4

A nurse should question an order for potassium chloride in which condition?

Accepted Answer

D. Renal failure

Question 5

A client with SIADH would most likely have which sodium level?

Accepted Answer

D. 120 mEq/L

Question 6

SATA: Which are signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?

Accepted Answer

B. Widened pulse pressure, C. Altered LOC, A. Bradycardia

Question 7

SATA: Which findings indicate right-sided heart failure?

Accepted Answer

A. Jugular vein distention (JVD), B. Peripheral edema, C. Hepatomegaly

Question 8

SATA: Which are signs of hyperthyroidism?

Accepted Answer

D. Tachycardia, A. Heat intolerance, C. Weight loss

Question 9

A nurse should monitor which lab value in a client taking spironolactone?

Accepted Answer

B. Potassium

Question 10

SATA: Which are expected findings in a client with peritonitis?

Accepted Answer

C. Hypotension, D. Rigid abdomen, B. Rebound tenderness

Question 11

SATA: A nurse is providing care for a client post-cardiac catheterization. Which interventions are appropriate?

Accepted Answer

B. Keep the affected leg straight, C. Check pedal pulses regularly, A. Monitor for bleeding at the insertion site

Question 12

SATA: A client with nephrotic syndrome is at risk for which complications?

Accepted Answer

A. Proteinuria, C. Edema, B. Hyperlipidemia

Question 13

SATA: Which assessment findings are expected in a client with Cushing’s syndrome?

Accepted Answer

D. Hypertension, A. Moon face, B. Buffalo hump

Question 14

SATA: A nurse is caring for a client with Addison’s disease. Which symptoms should be expected?

Accepted Answer

A. Hyperpigmentation, C. Fatigue, D. Weight loss

Question 15

Which patient should the nurse assess first?

Accepted Answer

B. A patient with a potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L

Question 16

The nurse knows which is the best site for IM injection in an infant?

Accepted Answer

C. Vastus lateralis

Question 17

Which finding suggests hypoglycemia in a diabetic patient?

Accepted Answer

B. Diaphoresis and confusion

Question 18

SATA: The nurse should implement which actions for a client with a chest tube?

Accepted Answer

D. Keep the drainage system below chest level, C. Assess for subcutaneous emphysema, B. Monitor for continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber

Question 19

SATA: A nurse is assessing a client with compartment syndrome. Which findings are concerning?

Accepted Answer

D. Pain unrelieved by opioids, C. Paresthesia, B. Pallor of the affected limb

Question 20

A client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) requires which initial treatment?

Accepted Answer

A. IV normal saline

Question 21

A client on warfarin therapy should avoid excessive intake of which vitamin?

Accepted Answer

A. Vitamin K

Question 22

SATA: A nurse is teaching about preventing dumping syndrome. Which instructions should be included?

Accepted Answer

C. Lie down after meals, B. Avoid simple carbohydrates, A. Eat small, frequent meals

Question 23

SATA: A client with a pneumothorax may exhibit which symptoms?

Accepted Answer

A. Decreased breath sounds on the affected side, B. Tracheal deviation (if tension pneumothorax), D. Sudden onset of dyspnea

Question 24

A nurse knows to monitor which electrolyte closely when administering furosemide (Lasix)?

Accepted Answer

A. Potassium

Question 25

The nurse should avoid administering which medication to a client with a history of penicillin allergy?

Accepted Answer

C. Ceftriaxone

Question 26

A nurse is caring for a client with status epilepticus. What is the priority medication?

Accepted Answer

C. IV lorazepam

Question 27

A nurse administers IV potassium chloride. Which action is incorrect?

Accepted Answer

C. Giving IV push

Question 28

A client with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. Which lab should be monitored?

Accepted Answer

A. INR

Question 29

SATA: Which are risk factors for peptic ulcer disease?

Accepted Answer

B. NSAID use, A. H. pylori infection, D. Smoking

Question 30

A nurse should question which order for a client with increased ICP?

Accepted Answer

C. Encourage coughing and deep breathing

Question 31

SATA: Which interventions help prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in hospitalized patients?

Accepted Answer

A. Early ambulation, D. Leg elevation, B. Sequential compression devices (SCDs)

Question 32

SATA: Which interventions are appropriate for a client experiencing autonomic dysreflexia?

Accepted Answer

D. Remove restrictive clothing, B. Elevate the head of the bed, A. Check for bladder distention

Question 33

A patient with myasthenia gravis is experiencing a cholinergic crisis. What is the priority action?

Accepted Answer

B. Stop anticholinesterase medications

Question 34

A client with cirrhosis and ascites is at risk for which complication?

Accepted Answer

D. Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis

Question 35

SATA: Which are priority interventions for a client experiencing septic shock?

Accepted Answer

D. Vasopressors if hypotensive, A. IV fluid resuscitation, B. Broad-spectrum antibiotics

Question 36

Which client is at highest risk for developing aspiration pneumonia?

Accepted Answer

B. A client with dysphagia post-stroke

Question 37

SATA: Which dietary recommendations are appropriate for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD)?

Accepted Answer

A. Low sodium diet, C. Limit phosphorus intake, B. Restrict potassium-rich foods

Question 38

SATA: Which are risk factors for osteoporosis?

Accepted Answer

B. Postmenopausal status, C. Low calcium intake, D. Long-term corticosteroid use

Question 39

Which action is incorrect when suctioning a tracheostomy?

Accepted Answer

A. Suctioning for 20 seconds

Question 40

A nurse knows that which cranial nerve is responsible for pupil constriction?

Accepted Answer

A. Cranial nerve III

Question 41

SATA: Which interventions are appropriate for a client with pneumonia?

Accepted Answer

D. Elevate the head of the bed, A. Encourage incentive spirometry, B. Increase fluid intake

Question 42

SATA: A nurse is caring for a client with pancreatitis. Which findings are expected?

Accepted Answer

C. Cullen’s sign, A. Severe epigastric pain, D. Elevated amylase and lipase

Question 43

The nurse knows a positive Kernig’s sign indicates:

Accepted Answer

B. Meningitis

Question 44

SATA: A client with a chest tube should be monitored for which complications?

Accepted Answer

C. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber, D. Tracheal deviation, A. Subcutaneous emphysema

Question 45

SATA: A nurse is educating a client on lithium therapy. Which statements indicate proper understanding?

Accepted Answer

D. "Dehydration can increase lithium toxicity risk.", B. "I should maintain normal sodium intake.", C. "I need regular blood draws to monitor levels."

Question 46

A nurse assesses a client post-thyroidectomy. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

Accepted Answer

B. Stridor

Question 47

A nurse administers naloxone for opioid overdose. What should they assess next?

Accepted Answer

A. Respiratory status

Question 48

Which finding indicates an adverse effect of digoxin?

Accepted Answer

C. Bradycardia

Question 49

SATA: A nurse assesses a client with Guillain-Barré syndrome. Which findings are expected?

Accepted Answer

B. Absent deep tendon reflexes, D. Respiratory muscle involvement, A. Ascending muscle weakness

Question 50

Which EKG change is most concerning in a client with hyperkalemia?

Accepted Answer

B. Peaked T waves

6/18 Trivia Night

Questions 50

6/18 Trivia Night

Questions 50