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6/4 Trivia Night Flashcards | StudBud
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6/4 Trivia Night
6/4 Trivia Night
50 terms
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1
A client with a blood pH of 7.25 and PaCO₂ of 55 mmHg is in:
C. Respiratory acidosis
B. Respiratory alkalosis
A. Metabolic acidosis
D. Metabolic alkalosis
2
A client taking warfarin (Coumadin) should avoid excess intake of:
B. Vitamin K
A. Calcium
C. Iron
D. Vitamin D
3
(SATA) A client with a potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L may exhibit:
C. Hypertension
B. Bradycardia
A. Muscle weakness
D. ECG changes (U waves)
4
(SATA) Which are signs of meningitis?
A. Nuchal rigidity
D. Fever
B. Photophobia
C. Bradycardia
5
(SATA) Which are signs of sepsis?
D. Bradycardia
B. Tachycardia
A. Fever
C. Hypotension
6
A client with heart failure has crackles in the lungs and dyspnea. Which intervention takes priority?
A. Administer prescribed furosemide (Lasix)
B. Elevate the head of the bed
C. Monitor oxygen saturation
D. Restrict fluid intake
7
(SATA) Which are signs of pulmonary embolism?
D. Hemoptysis
C. Pleuritic chest pain
A. Sudden dyspnea
B. Bradycardia
8
(SATA) A client with diabetes insipidus is at risk for:
B. Dehydration
A. Hypernatremia
D. Hypotension
C. Hypokalemia
9
(SATA) Which are signs of opioid overdose?
A. Pinpoint pupils
C. Unresponsiveness
B. Respiratory depression
D. Hypertension
10
(SATA) A client with a chest tube should report:
B. Increased bubbling in water seal chamber
C. Mild chest discomfort
D. Sudden shortness of breath
A. Pink-tinged sputum
11
Which drug requires a daily trough level?
C. Insulin
B. Furosemide
A. Heparin
D. Vancomycin
12
(SATA) A client with hypothyroidism may exhibit:
C. Cold intolerance
D. Tachycardia
A. Fatigue
B. Weight gain
13
(SATA) Which are signs of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)?
B. Hyperthermia
C. Altered mental status
D. Hypotension
A. Muscle rigidity
14
A client with C. difficile should be placed on:
B. Droplet precautions
C. Airborne precautions
D. Standard precautions only
A. Contact precautions
15
Which finding is earliest in increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?
A. Decerebrate posturing
C. Fixed, dilated pupils
D. Bradycardia
B. Change in level of consciousness
16
Which electrolyte imbalance causes peaked T-waves on ECG?
A. Hypocalcemia
C. Hyponatremia
D. Hypomagnesemia
B. Hyperkalemia
17
Which medication should be held before dialysis?
C. Phosphate binders
D. Erythropoietin
B. Ferrous sulfate
A. Antihypertensives
18
(SATA) Which are symptoms of serotonin syndrome?
A. Agitation
B. Hyperthermia
D. Bradycardia
C. Diaphoresis
19
Which finding indicates a transfusion reaction?
D. Hyperglycemia
B. Bradycardia
A. Hypertension
C. Fever and chills
20
A client with myasthenia gravis should be monitored for:
A. Hyperactive reflexes
D. Bradycardia
C. Hypertension
B. Respiratory muscle weakness
21
A client with Addison’s disease should be taught to:
A. Increase sodium intake during stress
D. Limit potassium-rich foods
C. Avoid glucocorticoids
B. Restrict fluid intake
22
A client with Guillain-Barré syndrome is at greatest risk for:
B. Respiratory failure
A. Seizures
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hemorrhage
23
Which vaccine is contraindicated in pregnancy?
A. Tdap
C. MMR
B. Hepatitis B
D. Influenza (inactivated)
24
(SATA) A client with cirrhosis should avoid:
D. Fiber-rich foods
B. High-protein meals
A. Alcohol
C. Low-sodium foods
25
(SATA) Which are signs of digoxin toxicity?
B. Visual disturbances
D. Bradycardia
A. Nausea/vomiting
C. Hypertension
26
A client with a PE should be positioned in:
C. High Fowler’s
D. Trendelenburg
B. Prone
A. Supine
27
A client with a pneumothorax has a chest tube. What indicates a complication?
D. Mild subcutaneous emphysema
A. Bubbling in the water seal chamber
C. Sudden absence of drainage
B. Pink-tinged sputum
28
Which condition causes a low platelet count?
A. Polycythemia
D. Sickle cell anemia
B. Hemophilia
C. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
29
A client with a potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L should avoid:
A. Apples
D. Bananas
C. Carrots
B. Chicken
30
(SATA) A client with a spinal cord injury at T4 is at risk for:
D. Hyperactive reflexes
B. Orthostatic hypotension
C. Pressure ulcers
A. Autonomic dysreflexia
31
(SATA) Which are signs of malignant hyperthermia?
D. Hyperthermia
C. Hypotension
A. Tachycardia
B. Muscle rigidity
32
A client with Parkinson’s disease is at greatest risk for:
A. Falls
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Fluid overload
B. Hypertension
33
Which is a sign of magnesium sulfate toxicity?
C. Tachycardia
D. Hyperglycemia
A. Hypertension
B. Absent deep tendon reflexes
34
(SATA) Which are side effects of prednisone?
A. Hyperglycemia
D. Mood swings
C. Weight gain
B. Hypokalemia
35
(SATA) A client with a latex allergy may react to:
A. Apples
D. Chestnuts
C. Bananas
B. Avocados
36
Which medication requires monitoring for tinnitus?
D. Lisinopril
B. Aspirin
C. Metoprolol
A. Furosemide
37
(SATA) A client with rheumatoid arthritis may experience:
D. Fatigue
C. Morning stiffness
B. Symmetrical joint pain
A. Bone spurs
38
A client with diabetes reports dizziness. Blood glucose is 52 mg/dL. What should the nurse do first?
D. Recheck glucose in 15 minutes
A. Administer glucagon
B. Give 15 g of fast-acting carbohydrates
C. Notify the provider
39
A client with a head injury has clear drainage from the nose. What action should the nurse take?
D. Place the client in Trendelenburg
A. Suction the nose
C. Test drainage for glucose
B. Administer antihistamines
40
A post-op client has absent bowel sounds and abdominal distension. The nurse suspects:
B. Diverticulitis
C. Cholecystitis
A. Gastroenteritis
D. Paralytic ileus
41
(SATA) Which are signs of compartment syndrome?
C. Paresthesia
D. Pallor
A. Severe pain unrelieved by meds
B. Bradycardia
42
(SATA) Which are symptoms of hypoglycemia?
C. Shakiness
D. Confusion
A. Hypertension
B. Sweating
43
(SATA) A client with a TPN infusion should be monitored for:
D. Fluid overload
C. Hypokalemia
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Infection at the IV site
44
(SATA) A client with COPD should be taught to:
A. Increase oxygen flow if short of breath
C. Use pursed-lip breathing
B. Avoid smoking
D. Get vaccinated for flu/pneumonia
45
(SATA) A post-op client is at risk for DVT. Which interventions help prevent it?
A. Early ambulation
C. Sequential compression devices
D. Hydration
B. Bed rest
46
Which finding is a sign of lithium toxicity?
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Bradycardia
B. Coarse tremors
A. Hypertension
47
A client with a new ileostomy should be taught to:
D. Expect liquid stools long-term
B. Limit fluid intake
C. Avoid high-fiber foods
A. Monitor for dehydration
48
(SATA) A client with a colostomy should avoid:
A. Lean meats
C. Gas-producing foods
D. Low-fiber foods
B. Carbonated beverages
49
(SATA) Which interventions prevent ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP)?
D. Sedation holidays
A. Suction every hour
B. Perform oral care every 2-4 hours
C. Elevate HOB 30-45°
50
(SATA) A client with pancreatitis should avoid:
C. Lean proteins
A. Clear liquids
B. High-fat foods
D. Alcohol
