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AST practice exam #5
AST practice exam #5
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AST practice exam #5 for certification exam
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Questions
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1
From where do most intracranial aneurysms arise?
Cavernous sinus
Internal carotid
Circle of Willis
Ventricular system
2
In the presence of infection, the absorption rate of surgical gut is:
Not affected
Decreased
Increased
Terminated
3
A patient is instructed to be NPO for 8 hours prior to surgery to prevent:
Intestinal obstruction
Ulcer
Wound infection
Aspiration
4
Vitrectomy is the removal of the:
Gel from the eye
Opaque lens
Iris
Trabecular meshwork
5
Induced hypothermia is typically associated with which of the following surgical specialties?
Gynecology
Orthopedic
Cardiothoracic
Pediatric
6
Which of the following would be the least likely complication of suprapubic prostatectomy?
Embolism
Acute phlebitis
Hemorrhage
Acute epididymitis
7
Which of the following procedures requires preoperative high-level disinfection of the endoscope?
Bronchoscopy
Mediastinoscopy
Thoracoscopy
Laparoscopy
8
What is the most common cause of aortic aneurysm?
Hypotension
Atherosclerosis
Embolus
Thrombus
9
A short acting narcotic opioid given intramuscularly for preoperative sedation is:
Midazolam
Meperidine
Morphine sulfate
Methylprednisolone
10
Fertilization normally occurs in the:
Myometrium
Vaginal vault
Fallopian tube
Cervical os
11
A general consent form authorizes:
Receiving general anesthesia
Routine medical treatment
Experimental surgical treatment
Hazardous therapy
12
Which portion of the small intestine joins to the large intestine?
Ileum
Jejunum
Cecum
Duodenum
13
Which of the following is an obstetric complication resulting from overstimulation of the clotting processes?
Eclampsia
Disseminated intravascular coagulation
Dystocia
Placental abruption
14
What is the proper method for removing the knife blade from the handle when breaking down the Mayo stand?
Use fingers
Use a heavy hemostat or needle holder
Throw handle with knife blade in sharps container
Do not remove and place handle in instrument tray
15
When incubated, the EtO biological indicator can be read after:
12 hours
48 hours
72 hours
24 hours
16
A large, bony process found on the femur is a:
Trochanter
Olecranon
Condyle
Tubercle
17
What is the name of the instrument shown below?
Adson
Kocher
Dingman
Pean
18
What term refers to items remaining sterile indefinitely until the wrapping is compromised?
Time-related sterility
Contaminated-related sterility
Event-related sterility
Shelf-life sterility
19
Which space is entered during a thymectomy?
Interstitial
Mediastinum
Pleural cavity
Retroperitoneum
20
The thyroid gland consists of right and left lobes joined by the:
Isthmus
Larynx
Cricoid cartilage
Parathyroid gland
21
The large artery found posterior to the knee is the:
Tibial
Popliteal
Geniculate
Femoral
22
Liquid agents used to reduce microorganisms on the patients skin are:
Disinfectants
Sporicidals
Germicidals
Antiseptics
23
Which of the following is used to remove resected prostatic tissue during a TURP?
Pezzar
Ellik
Robinson
Foley
24
When storing information on the hard drive of a computer, what is clicked?
Open
Save
Enter
Delete
25
Which of the following surgical instruments is used to retract the lung?
Davidson
Kocher
Allison
Glover
26
The inner layer of an artery is the:
Adventitia
Viscera
Intima
Media
27
Which of the following instruments is not a retractor used during a prostatectomy?
Mason-Judd
Harrington
Gil Vernet
Denis-Browne
28
What immediate postoperative complication most often occurs with pediatric patients
Hypertension
Dysrhythmias
Airway difficulty
Electrolyte imbalance
29
Which of the following is responsible for causing transmission of spongiform encephalopathy?
Fungi
Prion
Bacteria
Parasites
30
The normal range of intraoperative pressure for the insufflator during a laparoscopy is:
3-6 mm Hg
12-15 mm Hg
9-12 mm Hg
6-9 mm Hg
31
which of the following preoperative procedures should be completed for the diabetic patient?
Antiembolic stockings placed on patient
Increase preoperative insulin dose
Increase preoperative medications
Preoperative meal to avoid hyperglycemia
32
Which two structures are identified and ligated during a cholecystectomy?
Hepatic duct and portal vein
Cystic artery and cystic duct
Splenic artery and splenic vein
Right and left hepatic artery
33
Splenectomy places the patient at an increased risk for:
Infection
Diabetes
Jaundice
Cirrhosis
34
Knife blades should be loaded onto the handle with:
Allis clamp
DeBakey forceps
Sterile gloved hands
Needle holder
35
In severe aortic stenosis, all of the following are indications of valve replacement except:
Palpitations
Myocardial ischemia
Angina
Left ventricle hypertrophy
36
Which of the following ultrasonic devices can be used intraoperatively to assess the patency of arterial blood flow?
Spirometer
Lithotripter
Doppler probe
Stethoscope
37
Which skin prep is contraindicated for use around eyes +ears because of potential for corneal abrasions and ototoxicity?
Iodophors
Parachlorometaxylenol
Chlorhexidine
Isopropyl alcohol
38
Proper placement of the Foley catheter is confirmed prior to balloon inflation by which of the following?
Urine flowing out of catheter
Removal of 5 mL of air from the balloon
Secure connection to drainage bag
Collapse of catheter lumen
39
Which of the following vessels empties into the right atrium?
Pulmonary artery
Aortic arch
Superior vena cava
Pulmonary vein
40
A tissue specimen being sent to pathology for a frozen section is prepared by placing it into a:
Basin of water
Jar with methylene blue
Container without preservative
Jar with formalin
41
When should the first closing sponge, sharp and instrument count be completed?
Prior to closure of skin
Prior to closure of the muscle layer
Prior to the closure of the subcutaneous layer
Prior to closure of the body cavity
42
Which of the following is not a requirement when a patient is placed in the prone position?
Arms on armboards parallel to bed
Safety belt is placed below the knees
Bolsters placed under axillae
Head placed on donut
43
Leg extensor muscles:rectus femoris,vastus lateralis,vastus medialis and vastus intermedius are collectively called the:
Quadriceps femoris
Medial compartment
Peroneus longus
Popliteal fossa
44
Ethylene oxide sterilization destroys microbes by the process of:
Osmosis
Cavitation
Alkylation
Oxidation
45
Which of the following incisions would be performed for repair of a liver laceration?
Transverse
Midline
Pfannenstiel
McBurney
46
What must the circulating surgical technologist do when placing the patient in the supine position?
Confirm chest is not compromised
Place a pillow between the knees
Confirm ankles are not crossed
Place rolls under axillae
47
What controls the arrow on your monitor?
Mouse
Shift
Function keys
Enter
48
How many mins should a Frazier suction tip be immediate-use sterilized (flash sterilized) in a gravity steam sterilizer?
15
10
5
20
49
Which of the following clips is used for scalp hemostasis in cranial procedures?
Hemoclip
Raney
Backhaus
Filschie
50
Femoral rasps are used for which of the following reasons:
Expose the operative site
Inject bone cement into the intramedullary space
File the cortical bone
Prepare the intramedullary space for a prosthesis
51
If the broth in the steam sterilization biological indicator is yellow after incubation, what action should be taken?
Items must be immediately recalled
Sterile items should be immediately used
No action necessary
Indicates autoclave chamber needs cleaning
52
When using the EtO sterilization, the recommended aeration time for an aerator set at 140 degrees fahrenheit is:
12 hours
24 hours
10 hours
8 hours
53
At end of procedure, after patient has been transported out of the OR, the surgical technologist should remove the:
Gloves
Mask
Hair cover
Gown
54
What postoperative complication can result from excess or prolonged planar flexion?
Decubitus ulcer
Compartment syndrome
Sciatica
Foot drop
55
Just before the surgeon makes the skin incision, which of the following must be performed?
Time-out
Postoperative orders are completed
Verify placement of EKG electrodes
Mayo stand is correctly positioned
56
What device would the surgeon use to preserve facial motor and sensory functions during a parotidectomy?
Mass spectrometer
Doppler probe
Nerve stimulator
Ultrasound transducer
57
Where should the biological indicator test be placed on the steam sterilizer cart?
Middle second shelf
Bottom front
Top front
Top back
58
Which surgeon might provide operative exposure for the neurosurgeon in a transsphenoidal approach to the sella turcica?
Otorhinolaryngologist
Cardiothoracic surgeon
Interventional radiologist
Maxillofacial endodontist
59
The essential element of hemoglobin is:
Nitrogen
Iron
Sodium
Oxygen
60
Which of the following maintains the position of the uterus?
Levator muscle
Pubic stimulator
Suspensory ligament
Broad ligament
61
Which one of these microorganisms is least likely to be associated with wound infections?
Escherichia coli
Clostridium perfringens
Treponema pallidum
Staphylococcus
62
How often should biological testing of EtO sterilization be conducted?
Weekly
Every load
Monthly
Twice-a-week
63
In which procedure would the instrument shown below be used?
Hysterectomy
Lobectomy
Laminectomy
Nephrectomy
64
Which organelle contains digestive juices?
Ribosome
Nucleus
Mitochondria
Lysosome
65
A patient receives preoperative instructions to remove nail polish to:
Allow arterial blood to be drawn
Prevent infection
Prevent pulse oximeter malfunction
Allow completion of nucler medicine study
66
What does the term -scopy mean?
Probing
Viewing
Excision
Incision
67
During general anesthesia induction, which sense is the last to be experienced by the patient?
Taste
Hearing
Touch
Smell
68
Which of the following statements is true concerning cleaning the OR walls between surgical procedures?
Only clean walls splashed with blood or debris at end of day
Only clean walls at the end of the day
Clean areas of wall splashed with blood or debris
Clean all walls floor to ceiling
69
During a thyroidectomy, if all parathyroid glands are accidentally removed, what complication will occur?
Bradycardia
Tetany
Hemorrage
Thyroid storm
70
Type and cross match for blood is completed:
In the OR, just before the incision is made
If blood loss with replacement anticipated
On all hospital patients
On all surgical patients
71
The area of the brain that controls respiration is the:
Medulla oblongata
Cerebellum
Hypothalamus
Corpus callosum
72
Which of the following types of equipment would require preoperative draping by the surgical technologist?
Arthroscope
C-arm
ESU
Video monitor
73
What is the name of the retractor shown below?
Richardson
Deaver
Kelly
Harrington
74
What route of drug administration is parenteral?
Sublingual
Intravenous
Rectal
Transdermal
75
A suture used to retract a structure to the side of the operative field is a/an:
Retention suture
Traction suture
Bolster suture
Primary suture
76
The concave notch of the kidney through which the ureter exits is the:
Calyx
Capsule
Pyramid
Hilum
77
A midline xiphoid to pubis incision is commonly made for a/an:
Abdominal aortic aneurysmectomy
Appendectomy
Transverse colectomy
Nephrectomy
78
Dark blood in the sterile field could indicate?
Tachycardia
Hypovolemia
Hypoxia
Bradycardia
79
Which of the following instruments would be used to remove nasal polyps?
Knight nasal scissors
Krause nasal snare
Gruenwald nasal forceps
Antrum rasp
80
When helpingto turn over the OR between patients, the surgical technologist should:
Wipe down entire walls
Clean overhead lights after the last procedure of the day
Clean around the furniture
Use a clean mop head
81
Which of the following veins would be harvested during a CABG?
Subclavian
Popliteal
Saphenous
Femoral
82
Which of the following is a type of one-layer dressing?
Rigid
Bulky
Steri-strips
Pressure
83
An intraoperative mutagenic and carcinogenic hazard of laser use is:
Infectious waste
Waste gases
Laser plume
Static electricity
84
Where is the anterior chamber of the eye located?
Posterior to the iris and anterior to the lens
Posterior to the cornea and anterior to the lens
Posterior to the cornea and anterior to the iris
Posterior to the iris and anterior to the retina
85
A stent may be placed to identify the ureter during which of the following procedures?
Hip arthroplasty
Endarterectomy
Right colectomy
Craniotomy
86
A rapid-onset muscle relaxant used for intubation is:
Anectine
Morphine
Lanoxin
Pitocin
87
The purpose of creating an arteriovenous fistula is for:
Lavage
Hemodialysis
Chemotherapy
Hemostasis
88
Which stapling device would be used to create an anastomosis during a low anterior resection?
EEA
GIA
LDS
TA
89
What is the proper way to remove a patient from the lithotomy position?
Lower stirrups, then remove legs
Lower each leg separately
Lower legs together slowly in unison
Lower legs together quickly in unison
90
What does the term symbiosis mean?
Anaerobic organism
Organisms that destroy each other
Relationship between unlike species of organisms
Aerobic organism
91
What is the surgical procedure for reducing testosterone in prostate cancer?
Varicocelectomy
Orchiectomy
Hydrocelectomy
Vasectomy
92
Which closed wound drainage device requires being connected to a bulb evacuator?
Cigarette drain
Stryker
Hemovac
Jackson-Pratt
93
Which of the following vitamins is essential for the clotting process?
B
D
K
A
94
Which vein drain the small intestine?
Gastric
Inferior vena cava
Hepatic portal
Hepatic
95
During which step of an abdominal hysterectomy would the instrument shown below be used?
Make last cut to free the uterus
Enlarge peritoneal incision
Mobilize paracervical fascia
Dissect bladder from uterus
96
What would the preoperative diagnosis be for an infant undergoing craniectomy?
Myelomeningocele
Anencephaly
Artiovenous malformation
Craniosynostosis
97
Which of the following is part of the immune system?
Thyroid
Liver
Spleen
Pancreas
98
Which of the following describes the time from incision to the dressing application?
Postoperative
Interoperative
Preoperative
Intraoperative
99
The instrument shown below is used during a/an:
Rhinoplasty
Gastrectomy
Thyroidectomy
Myringoplasty
100
Wound dressings should be opened:
After the skin incision is made
After last count is completed
Just before skin closure is started
During skin closure
101
A specimen that is 5 centimeters is equal to:
4 inches
3 inches
5 inches
2 inches
102
What anatomical structure is Mersilene tape sutured around during a cerclage?
Cervix
Ligaments
Fallopian tubes
Uterus
103
Which of the following statements concerning peel-packs is correct?
When labeling with felt-tip marker write on the plastic side
Use staples to close a peel pack
Position peel packs plastic side facing plastic side
Use chemical indicator tape to hold multiple items together
104
Which of the following can cause lumbosacral strain in the lithotomy position?
Buttocks extend past table break
Safety strap is placed too tightly
Arm boards placed beyond 90 degrees
Stirrups not properly padded
105
What incision is frequently used for pediatric aortic coarctation repair?
Median sternotomy
Posterolateral thoracotomy
Anterolateral thoracotomy
Thoracoabdominal
106
If the surgeon uses a knife blade to incise the oral mucosa, the preferred blade is:
20
10
11
12
107
Which anatomical structure is removed during a total hip arthroplasty?
Condyle
Fossa
Femoral head
Trochanter
108
What type of needle is used when suturing the skin?
Reverse cutting
Conventional cutting
Tapered
Side cutting
109
The structure that facilitates the exchange of nutrients and wastes between the fetus and mother is the:
Placenta
Endometrium
Amniotic fluid
Umbilical cord
110
Prior to being placed in the EtO sterilizer, items must:
Be completely dry
Not be heat sensitive
Have residual water on their surface
Be lubricated with oil
111
Which of the following must be completed preoperatively if a patient underwent a barium study the day of surgery?
Urinalysis
Enema
Colonoscopy
Gastrostomy
112
What is the smallest microorganism that requires a host cell for replication?
Fungi
Amoeba
Bacteria
Virus
113
The instruments shown below are used to dilate the:
Intranasal antrostomy
Urethra
Cervix
Coronary artery
114
When the surgical technologist is breaking down the backtable, instruments with ratchets should be:
Placed in a basin with saline for transport to decontamination
Run through the steam flash sterilizer before transport to decontamination
Pl in basin with enzymatic solution in open position for transprt to decon.
Closed and placed in instrument tray for transport to decontamination
115
Which of the following is a liquid chemical sterilant often used for sterilizing endoscopes with a cycle time of 30 mins
Glutaraldehyde
Peracetic acid
Isopropyl alcohol
Sodium hypochlorite
116
What dietary substance enhances the production of collagen?
Vitamins
Protein
Carbohydrates
Fats
117
What body system aids in the metastatic spread of cancer cells?
Respiratory
Reproductive
Limbic
Lymphatic
118
What type of heart rate does tachycardia describe?
Fast
Slow
Normal
Absent
119
What procedure should the first scrub ST set when a female patient is undergoing a repair for a cystocele and rectocele?
Anterior and posterior colporrhaphy
Myomectomy
Abdominal hysterectomy
D&C
120
Which portion of the stomach is superior to the esophageal sphincter?
Fundus
Pylorus
Antrum
Body
121
Which instrument will the surgeon use to free the entrapped orbital fat during repair of an orbital floor fracture?
Senn
Freer
Chalazion
Rongeur
122
Which of the following is an incision into the tympanic membrane for the removal of accumulated fluid?
Stapedotomy
Otoplasty
Tympanoplasty
Myringotomy
123
In the event that a child requires emergency surgery, but the parents cannot be located to sign the surgical consent:
Consent is signed by a court of law
No consent is required
Consent is signed by surgeon
Consent is signed by two consulting physicians
124
How often should the steam sterilizing machine's strainer be cleaned?
After each use
Once-a-week
During annual maintenance
Daily
125
Which nerve could be compressed against the humerus in the prone position?
Radial
Tibial
Brachial
Peroneal
126
Which of the following sutures is contraindicated in the process of infection?
Chromic
Steel
Polypropylene
Silk
127
Which medication is contraindicated for patients with a history of malignant hyperthermia?
Vecuronium
Papaverine
Dantrolene
Succinylcholine
128
Which of the following is the order for postoperative case management?
Remove gown+gloves; don nonsterile gloves,remove drapes;breakdown backtable
Rmvdrape;rmv gown+glove;on non sterileglove;preservesterilefld until pt lvs
Remove gown+drapes; remove gloves+don nonsterile gloves;break downbacktable
Rmv drape;preserve sterile fld unt pt leaves;rmvgown+glove;don nonste glove
129
Which of the following factors is used to determine the inflation pressure of a tourniquet?
Length of surgery
Patient's age
Type of incision
Previous surgeries
130
What does pneumonectomy mean?
Incision into the trachea
Removal of air from pleura
Removal of the lung
Incision into the bronchi
131
The gravity steam sterilization process can be rendered ineffective if the:
Packs are loosely arranged on cart
Temperature is below 250 degrees
Steam quality is 97%
Air is removed
132
The closing sponge count should be initiated at the:
Operative field
Mayo stand
Kick bucket
Backtable
133
The vascular, fibrous covering of bone is the:
Aponeurosis
Epiphysis
Endosteum
Periosteum
134
The instrument below is used to:
Resect tendon
Extend incision
Cut bone
Split muscle
135
Which of the following is inserted into the tympanic membrane incision during a myringotomy?
Fascial graft
PE tube
Weck-Cel sponge
Speculum
136
Which tank would be brought into the OR if a surgical technologist is preparing an oscillating saw?
Compressed air
Compressed nitrogen
Nitrous oxide
Freon
137
Another name for a corneal transplant procedure is:
Diathermy
Scleral buckle
Keratoplasty
Vitrectomy
138
How many hours must the steam biological indicator be incubated before recording the results?
8
16
32
24
139
Packing material would be placed as a dressing after surgery on the:
Chest
Neck
Rectum
Knee
140
The instrument shown below is used to:
Dissect tendon
Dissect periosteum from bone
Smooth jagged ends of bone
Cut bone
141
The local freezing of diseased tissue to facilitate removal without bleeding is:
Cryosurgery
Harmonic scalpel
Diathermy
Electrocautery
142
Which of the following conditions might require use of a Silastic urethral catheter?
Latex allergy
Hypospadius
Stress incontinence
Prostatic hypertrophy
143
Which of the following is a type of meniscal tear?
Greenstick
Bucket handle
Capsular
Comminuted
144
Which area is prepped first when performing the skin prep for a skin grafting procedure?
Only recipient site
Donor site
Both sites together
Recipient site
145
Which of the following is the proper method for handling disposable suction containers when turning over an OR?
Place container in waste disposal
Wipe down outside of container and place in biohazard bag for disposal
Transport with instruments in case cart to decontamination room
Empty contants in hopper and place in waste container
146
What type of solution is recommended for cleaning the OR floors during room turnover?
Detergent- disinfection
Hydrogen peroxide
Isopropyl alcohol
Sodium hypochlorite
147
Braided nonabsorbable sutures should not be used in infected in infected wounds because suture crevices:
Cause necrosis of tissues
Cause excessive postoperative pain
Lead to pooling of tissue fluids
Can harbor bacteria that travel length of suture
148
What block involves medication being injected into subarachnoid space?
Regional
Nerve
Bier
Spinal
149
What nerve is at greatest risk during thyroidectomy?
Cervical sympathetic chain
Recurrent laryngeal
Vagus
Inferior laryngeal
150
The surgical tech must maintain the sterility of the backtable and Mayo stand until the patient is out of OR for which:
Laminectomy
Tonsillectomy
Rhinoplasty
Tympanoplasty
151
What is the primary responsibility of the first scrub surgical technologist during a cardiac arrest in the OR?
Assist the circulator
Assist the anesthesia provider
Protect the sterile field
Give CPR to the patient
152
Which of the following would contraindicate preoperatively setting up the cell saver machine?
Sponges will be used during procedure
Patient is on preoperative steroids
Patient has cancer
Patient received preoperative blood transfusion
153
Which of the following vessels arises from the right ventricle of the heart?
Descending aorta
Pulmonary artery
Pulmonary vein
Ascending aorta
154
A sustained contraction produced by rapid stimuli is called:
Twitch
Torsion
Tension
Tetany
155
What does the suffix-ectomy mean?
Anastomosis
Opening
Incision
Excision
156
Where should the EtO biological indicator be placed in the load?
Side
Front
Center
Back
157
Which of the following has legal significance in the mishandling of a bullet?
Damage to tissue while removing specimen
Tearing surgical gloves
Damaging ballistic markings
Contaminating the specimen
158
A urinary tract infection, following a cystoscopy, is an example of what type of infection?
Healthcare-associated infection
Community-acquired infection
Latent
Recurrent
159
What is used to determine the position of cannulated screws during repair of a femoral neck fracture?
Ruler
Broach
Canal reamer
Guide pins
160
Which item listed below should the surgical technologist confirm is available for a nerve repair?
CUSA
Nd: YAG Laser
Loupes
Cryotherapy unit
161
When is the surgical consent typically signed?
Before preoperative medications are administered
After preoperative medications are administered
After the IV has been inserted
Just before general anesthesia is administered
162
What is the lining of the thoracic cavity?
Pericardium
Peritoneum
Parietal
Pleura
163
What is considered the operative stage of anesthesia?
First
Fourth
Third
Second
164
The pulse rate of pregnant patients:
Increases
Does not change
Decreases
Fluctuates
165
Which laser can be used on light and dark tissues?
Carbon dioxide
Nd: YAG
Excimer
Argon
166
Which surgical procedure may require a suprapubic catheter to drain the urinary bladder?
Prostatectomy
Caesarean section
Appendectomy
Cloward procedure
167
What type of dressing would usually be used for a laparotomy procedure?
Pressure
One-layer
Bolster
Wet-to-wet
168
A linen pack to be steam sterilized must not weigh more than:
4 lbs
12 lbs
16 lbs
8 lbs
169
The purpose of the kidney elevator is to:
Stabilize the patient
Increase the space between the lower rib and iliac crest
Facilitate respiration of the dependent lung
Increase the intercostal spaces
170
To prevent deep-vein thrombosis in the bariatric patient, what preoperative drug is given?
Nitroglycerine
Heparin
Mannitol
Vitamin K
171
What specialized retractors are used during a rotator cuff repair?
Hibbs
Bankart
Hohmann
Taylor
172
When performing the surgical scrub, the hands and arms are considered:
Surgically clean
Sanitized
Disinfected
Sterile
173
The cup-like extensions of the renal pelvis that collect urine from the pyramids are:
Cortex
Calyces
Papillae
Medulla
174
What implant is used for individuals with sensorineural deafness?
Internal hearing aid
Stapes implant
Cochlear implant
Fascial graft
175
The body's first line of defense against infection is:
Immune response
Intact skin
Hair follicles
Respiratory tract