Pharm block 1

Who assigns the generic name for a drug? (2-13)

Which indirect-acting cholinergic agonist would you caution prescribing to someone with peptic ulcer disease? (4-25)

b-blockers are irrevesible. (5-64)

Which of the below is an approved use of gapapentin? (1-8)

What clinical use might you use Dobutamine (Dobutrex)? (5-29)

Pt has a creatinine clearance of 23 mL/min and their normal dose of levoflaxin is 500/day. What would change? (3-56)

Ibuprofen is an example of what? (1-13)

An endocrine gland secretes its products into a duct. (4-7)

Which drug has the quickest induction speed? (6-15)

A patient can take Carvedilol (Coreg) with food in order to reduce the risk of what? (5-69)

Which schedule of drug does testosterone fall under? (1-34)

Which schedule of drug has effects described as "limited physical or psychological dependence"? (1-34)

Which type of medication is given to facilitate amnesia during an operation? (6-6)

Pilocarpine (Isopto Carpine) is used to elicit what? (4-16)

B2 agonists have a greater efficacy for COPD. (4-52)

All full-service MTFs are required to ensure these medications are available. (1-53)

In which phase of drug development is the goal to gather data on efficacy, safety, and dosage using a small group?(1-57)

Which drug can cause rhabdomyolysis in healthy pediatric patients? (6-36)

What is the only noncompetitive acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used for on a regular basis? (4-28)

What side effect are you most likely to experience while using Scopolamine (Transderm Scop)? (4-54)

Which of the below are risks associated with toxicity of inhaled anesthetic agents? (6-17)

An example of phase II metabolism reaction: (3-37)

Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors act on acetylcholine receptors in what way? (4-6)

If you are looking to treat diarrhea, what receptor antagonist would you choose? (4-34)

What kind of adrenergic agonist is the precursor for methamphetamine? (5-52)

Isoproterenol (Isuprel) causes excitatory effects. (5-27)

Trihexyphenidyl (Artane) is used to treat what? (4-57)

What is a drug that binds to the same receptor as an agonist but induces an opposite pharmacological response? (3-83)

This occurs as a result of to continuous prolonged exposure of receptors to drugs. (3-89)

Quantal response is defined as the number of subjects showing an "all-or-nothing" response. (3-76)

When using Formoterol (Foradil), what do you have to worry about becoming too low? (5-40/42)

When treating benign prostatic hypertrophy with Tamsulosin (Flomax), what adverse effect is not reversible? (5-61/62)

Cardiac cells are an example of what muscarinic receptors? (4-7)

Which drug has the quickest recovery? (6-15)

You prescribe a drug for incontinence. Patient reports constipation side effect. What drug was most likely given? (4-47)

Which drug is the least common (of the ones provided) to cause methemoglobinemia? (6-46)

Which drug can be used as an off-label treatment for Tourette Syndrome? (5-37)

Which drug regulation requires pharmacists to offer counseling to Medicaid patients? (1-49)

Which cholinergic agonist would you need to monitor for seizures? (4-24)

You are faxing a prescription for a hospice patient. What must you remember to note on it? (1-38)

At high doses, what effects would you expect from Epineprhine? (5-22/13)

What routes can Ketamine (Ketalar) be administered? (6-24)

What best describes how the drugs that are given to Alzheimer's Disease patients work in the CNS? Name one. (4-31)

You could expect a drug interaction between Pseudoephedrine (Sudafed) and what other drug? (5-52/55)

A proportionality constant that relates the total drug in the body to the plasma concentration of the drug. (3-31)

A prodrug is what type of metabolite? (3-40)

Which type of receptor cell is pre-synaptic? (5-13/16)

Where in the GI tract would ibuprofen be more likely to ionize? (3-10/11)

Normal cells secrete these local chemicals that are rapidly destroyed. Do not enter blood or travel in the body.(4-5)

Which of the following is a leading cause of injury and avoidable harm in health care systems? (1-28)

You prescribe a pt a prodrug and you find out they are also ingesting an inducer, what would you expect to see? (3-45)

How would you monitor a patient on phenylephrine? (5-34)

Which of the below is most likely to cause metabolic acidosis? (6-26)

Succinylcholine (Quelicin) should be utilized for procedures lasting how long? (6-35)

Which best describes FDA pregnancy category X? (1-43)

Which is not a possible result of an anticholinergic drug? (4-35)

What is the max quantity of a schedule II prescription under federal law? (1-36)

Which drug is primarily used to treat irritable bowel syndrome? (4-49)

What is the last part of the body to become paralyzed during the use of neuromuscular blocking agents? (6-33)

Whhich is not an adverse effect you would expect with Dopamine (Intropin)? (5-25)

Highly water soluble drugs are more likely to cross the blood brain barrier. (3-34)

Which of the following is true regarding first-pass metabolism? (3-36)

What best describes the result of a synthetic reaction? (3-39)

What medication is a convulsant antidote for nerve agents? (4-41)

Which is considered part of the peripheral compartments in the two compartment model? (3-29)

In early pregnancy, teratogenic agents may induce what? (1-42)

Which of the below is not a factor when determining control of schedules? (1-33)

What affect might you see with someone on monoamine oxidase inhibitors if they are given Norepinephrine(Levophed)?(5-21)

What route of administration of Ketamine (Ketalar) most likely to cause respiratory depression? (6-24)

Which of the below can result in either bradycardia or tachycardia? (6-26)

Who determines is a drug should be Rx or OTC? (1-6)

What category of alteration in drug metabolism can Stevens-Johnson Syndrome fall into with carbamazepine? (3-47)

Acetylcholine has action at what receptors? (4-6)

Off-label uses for drugs are approved by the FDA as safe and effective. (1-7)

Ibuprofen will ionize and cross membranes to be absorbed in the stomach. (3-14)

All of the below are factors that encourage noncompliance except which? (1-18)

How many refills are allowed on schedule III drugs? (1-15)

Which item is not mandatory under patient information on a prescription? (1-12)

What is most important about the effects of Pralidoxime (2-PAM, Protopam)? (4-41)

You give a postpartum patient Bathanechol (Urecholine). What result are you trying to elicit? (4-21)

Esmolol (Brevibloc) is what type of B Adrenergic blocking agent? (5-66/67)

How much can you order as refills on Dextroamphetamine (Dexedrine) for treatment of ADHD? (5-44)

For someone with Child-Pugh class A, how would you instruct them to take metronidazole? (3-48)

Alkalinizing the urine wwill increase the elimination of an acidic drug. (3-17)

What drug regulation requires government pre-approval of drugs? (1-46)

Raynaud's Disease can be improved by what type of adrenergic antagonist?

Which of the following is acceptable on a prescription? (1-25)

What medication might you prescribe for treatment of PTSD? (5-59)

What form is used for a written DoD prescription? (1-12)

What drug do you suspect if a patient has these symptoms: bradycardia, weight loss, and erectile disfunction?(5-66)

What drug regulation was created in response to fatal poisoning, requiring drugs be shown safe before marketing? (1-46)

Pt at to ER with bronchoconstriction and miosis, unsure of what medication. What do you think is most likely? (4-12/10)

What are the FDA required subsections in the labeling titled? (1-44)

Schedule I drugs are eligible for 1 refill. (1-15)

Which route of transmission has approximately the same limited bioavailability as oral? (3-24)