Which are NOT considerations when creating an anesthetic protocol for a patient?

Tech bears ultimate legal responsibility for Rx-ing drugs

Which of the following statements regarding sevoflurane is true?

Is a better choice for mask induction than iso, Should not be used in total rebreathing system, Very rapid changes in anesthetic depth, Color coded yellow for easy identification

Which of the following would NOT be a reason for fasting patient prior to surgery?

Promote hypoglycemia in a neonatal or critical patient

Which of the following is true in regards to a balanced multimodal approach to anesthesia?

Two or more drugs are administered concurrently

Electrical activity of the heart

Why are patients fasted prior to anesthesia?

Anesthetic drugs may cause patients to become nauseated, Esophageal reflux may lead to esophagitis

A patient with 10% dehydration would exhibit which signs?

Loss skin turgor, dry MM, thready pulses, hypotension

Which statement about uncuffed ET tubes is true?

Generally used in very small animals like cats and exotics

If you were only able to evaluate three systems on preanesthetic PE, what would those be?

Neurologic, Cardiovascular, respiratory

Correct order of cranial nerves I-VI

Olfactory Optic Oculomotor, Trochlear, Trigeminal, Abducens

Which of the following regarding Doppler blood pressure monitoring is true?

Be sure to turn volume off or down when repositioning probe, Use only ultrasonic gel over the vessel, Must clip hair from area over vessel in question, Take average of 3-5 readings, ignoring spurious results

Which of the following is NOT true?

Ketamine, Bup, anabolic steroids are Schedule IV, Schedule I controlledsubstances have no accepted medical use, Schedule V higher abuse than Schedule II, Records must be kept for 1 year

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Anesthesia Final

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Vet 240

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Questions 155

Answers

1
An agent w/ higher solubility coefficient will have ____ induction/recovery than a lower agent
Longer
Smoother
Shorter
Rougher
2
Perception of a painful stimulus
hypnosis
nocicpetion
analgesia
anesthesia
3
Why would a patient become apneic after overzealous IPPV?
PaCO2 levels are too low
PaO2 levels are too low
PaO2 levels are too high
PaCO2 levels are too high
4
Anticholinergic drugs like atropine cause an increase in SLUDGE
False
True
5
What is considered the minimum acceptable heart rate in anesthetized feline patient?
120 bpm
100 bpm
140 bpm
80 bpm
6
When discussing pain pathway, perception is unaffected or blocked by which of the following?
Alpha 2 agonists
NSAIDs
Inhalant anesthetics
Opioids
7
Boxers, giant breed dogs and ALL cats appear to have increased sensitivity to acepromazine
False
True
8
Which are NOT considerations when creating an anesthetic protocol for a patient?
Tech bears ultimate legal responsibility for Rx-ing drugs
Availability of equipment or facilities
How painful we anticipate procedure to be
Timing or urgency of the procedure
9
Which of the following statements regarding sevoflurane is true?
Is a better choice for mask induction than iso
Should not be used in total rebreathing system
Very rapid changes in anesthetic depth
Color coded yellow for easy identification
10
At min, anesthetist should record physiologic parameters in the anesthetic log ____
every minute
every 8 minutes
every 5 minutes
every 10 minutes
11
Alpha 2 agonists increase blood glucose levels by suppressing insulin release
False
True
12
Which of the following would NOT be a reason for fasting patient prior to surgery?
Endoscopy to obtain duodenal biopsies is to be performed
Avoid regurgitation
Promote hypoglycemia in a neonatal or critical patient
Gastrotomy will be performed to remove gastric foreign body
13
How is maintenance fluid rate calculated?
60 ml/kg/24hours
5 ml/kg/hr
60 ml/kg/hour
10-20 ml/kg
14
Nocicpetive pain is described as a burning, tingling sensation
False
True
15
Which is NOT a desirable characteristic of alpha 2 agonists?
Antagonists/reversal agents exist
Provide analgesia, moderate to heavy sedation
Provide moderate to heavy sedation
None of the above
16
Which would NOT cause pale mucous membranes in anesthetized patient
Hypoxia
Hypotension
Anemia
Hyperthermia
17
Which of the following is true in regards to a balanced multimodal approach to anesthesia?
Minimizes benefits of each agent
Drugs can be administered in larger doses/volumes
Two or more drugs are administered concurrently
Maximizes adverse effects of each agent
18
As a class, inhalant anesthetic agents have little effect on cardio and resp systems
False
True
19
Ketamine/diazepam can be used as an IM induction agent
False
True
20
State of CNS depression and drowsiness with reduced awareness of surroundings
Sedation
Narcosis
Tranquilization
Anesthesia
21
Blue mucous membranes in an anesthetized patient would be caused by all EXCEPT
Anemia
Apnea
Hypoxia
Obstructed ET tube
22
IV catheters are placed in anesthetic Ps to safely/easily admin drugs and fluids
False
True
23
State of reduced anxiety and relaxation but still aware of surroundings with NO CNS depression
Hypnosis
Sedation
Tranquilization
Anesthesia
24
When performing IPPV or pressure check, manometer should never read higher than ________
20 mmHG
15 mmHG
15 cm H2O
20 cm H2O
25
2 types of inhalant anesthetic agents used in vet med are organic gases and volatile liquids
True
False
26
Volatile agents can be used in both non-precision and precision vaporizers
True
False
27
A high risk patient with pre-existing systemic disease would be assessed which grade?
ASA I
ASA IV
ASA III
ASA II
28
Cardiac afterload can also be thought of as a function of systemic vascular resistance
False
True
29
EKG measures what?
Amount of CO2 present in expired air
Electrical activity of the heart
Systolic blood pressure only
Percent of hemoglobin that is saturated with O2
30
Why are patients fasted prior to anesthesia?
None of these
Anesthetic drugs may cause patients to become nauseated
Esophageal reflux may lead to esophagitis
Swallowing reflex + lower esophageal sphincter tone increase
31
A patient with 10% dehydration would exhibit which signs?
None of these
Mod skin turgor with dry MM, weak pulse, tachycardia
Loss skin turgor, dry MM, thready pulses, hypotension
Mild skin turgor w/ tacky MM
32
Which statement about uncuffed ET tubes is true?
Reduces exposure to WAGs
Reduces amount of oxygen and vapor required
Reduces risk of aspiration
Generally used in very small animals like cats and exotics
33
Determined by monitoring jaw tone
hyporeflexia
nociception
muscle relaxation
noxious stimulus
34
Non-rebreathing systems are generally recommended for patients that weigh
Less than 7 kg
More than 15 lbs
25 lbs or less
Greater than 7 kg
35
If you were only able to evaluate three systems on preanesthetic PE, what would those be?
Hepatic Cardiovascular, renal
Pulmonary, hepatic, cardiovascular
Neurologic, Cardiovascular, respiratory
Cardiovascular, renal, pulmonary
36
Correct order of cranial nerves I-VI
Olfactory Optic Oculomotor Trigeminal, Trochlear, Abducens
Olfactory Optic Oculomotor, Trochlear, Trigeminal, Abducens
Optic Olfactory Oculomotor, Trochlear, Trigeminal, Accessory
Olfactory Optic Oculomotor, Trochlear, Trigeminal, Accessory
37
An 18 ga IV catheter is _____ in diameter than a 22 ga IV catheter
Smaller
Larger
38
During hypotension, preload is decreased. Body maintains cardiac output by increasing heartrate
False
True
39
All inhalant anesthetic machines should have which of the following?
Precision vaporizer
Nitrous oxide flowmeter
Anesthetic waste gas scavenger
CO2 absorber canister
40
Which is an example of a crystalloid?
Whole blood
Dextrose
Packed red blood cells
Fresh frozen plasma
41
Stage where swallowing/gagging reflexes diminish until point where ET intubation is possible
Stage I
Stage III, Plane 2
Stage III, Plane 1
Stage II
42
In practice, you may need some form of tranquilization, sedation or anesthesia to accomplish...
Examination
All of these
Surgical procedures
External coaptation
43
Which of the following non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs is cyclooxygenase-1 selective?
Meloxicam
Deracoxib
Carprofen
Acetylsalicylic acid
44
The stimulus to breathe is due to rising levels of which molecule in the blood
Hemoglobin
K+
CO2
O2
45
Which of the following regarding Doppler blood pressure monitoring is true?
Be sure to turn volume off or down when repositioning probe
Use only ultrasonic gel over the vessel
Must clip hair from area over vessel in question
Take average of 3-5 readings, ignoring spurious results
46
Which of the following is NOT true?
Ketamine, Bup, anabolic steroids are Schedule IV
Schedule I controlledsubstances have no accepted medical use
Schedule V higher abuse than Schedule II
Records must be kept for 1 year
47
Canine fluid shock rate is ______, Feline fluid shock rate is ________
3 ml/kg/hr, 5 ml/kg/hr
5 ml/kg/hr, 3 ml/kg/hr
55 ml/kg, 90 ml/kg
60 ml/kg/day, 30 ml/kg/day
48
Which of the following is an example of a colloid?
Saline
Plasmalyte
Lactated Ringer's Solution
Packed Red Blood Cells
49
Colloids are small molecules which readily leave vascular space. Provide water, electrolytes
True
False
50
Murmurs over left 5th intercostal space would be associated with which CV?
Aortic
Tricuspid
Pulmonic
Mitral
51
Tank induction carries less risk for staff exposure to WAGs than mask induction
False
True
52
Desflurane requires a heated vaporizer due to its low boiling point
False
True
53
Always remember to completely close the pop-off valve AFTER performing pressure check/leak test
True
False
54
Ketamine provides patients with little to no analgesia for somatic pain
True
False
55
Cole ET tubes are used in birds due to incomplete tracheal rings which can be ruptured
False
True
56
Correct ET intubation technique for cattle
Direct visualization
Digital palpation
Blind intubation
57
Precision vaporizers achieve controlled/limited vaporization through temp+pressure compensation
False
True
58
The pulse oximeter measures which of the following parameters?
Amount of CO2 present in expired air
Percent of hemoglobin that is saturated with O2
Systolic blood pressure only
Electrical activity of the heart
59
B1 antagonists like timolo, atenolol and propranolol aka beta blockers
False
True
60
Absence of pain perception or relief of pain without loss of consciousness
analgesia
noxious stimulus
anesthesia
nociception
61
Obstructive shock is NOT caused by which of the following conditions
Cardiac tamponade
Acute hemorrhage
Gastric Dilation and Volvulus
Caval syndrome
62
What is the function of cranial nerve XII?
Sensory
Motor
Both
63
When providing assisted ventilation/IPPV, which is true?
Anesthetist should smell isoflurane
Patient's chest should not move
Pop off valve is open
Pressure in circuit should not exceed 20 cmH20
64
Which of the following statements regarding constant rate infusions is NOT true?
Utilized during both intra- and post- operative periods
Form of multimodal analgesia
Provide excellent analgesia
Less labor intensive than other methods of analgesia
65
Which of the following are true in regards to cardiac output?
CO= SV x HR
CO can be affected by the autonomic nervous system
CO is the amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute
All of these
66
During which stage of anesthesia do swallowing reflexes diminish so ET intubation is possible?
Stage III, Plane 1
Stage II
Stage III, Plane 2
Stage I
67
Signalment is important because breed or species specific agents may exist
False
True
68
Crystalloids consist of large molecules and provide oncotic support. Don't leave vascular space
True
False
69
Oxygen flush valve is an excellent way to deliver 100% oxygen to a P on non-rebreathing circuit
True
False
70
ET tubes made of rubber are very rigid and do not absorb cleaners/disinfectants
False
True
71
Obstructive shock is NOT caused by which of the following conditions?
Caval syndrome
Cardiac tamponade
Acute hemorrhage
Gastric Dilation and Volvulus
72
Which of the following allows room air into anesthetic system if neg pressure becomes too great
Pop off valve
Inspiratory flutter valve
None of these
Reservoir bag
73
RR of ___ in anesthetized canine is cause of concern
20 brpm
12 brpm
16 brpm
8 brpm
74
Which is true about butorphanol?
Very good sedative and antitussive
indicated for moderate to severe pain
provides 4-6 hours of analgesia
reverse effects of pure agonists
75
Which statement about IV catheter placement is NOT true?
Always recommend IV cath be placed prior to induction
Select largest IV catheter that can be safely placed
Less difficult to place IV prior to induction than in crisis
Central line catheters are most commonly used IV
76
Pulmonary veins are the only blood vessels which carry deoxygenated blood away from the heart
False
True
77
Ideally, in a patient under general anesthesia _______
PaO2 and PaCO2 should be equal
PaO2 should be high, PaCO2 should be high
PaO2 should be low, PaCO2 should be low
PaO2 should be high, PaCO2 should be low
78
Which is the accurate cardiac conduction pathway?
SA node, AV node, Bundle of HIS, Bundle branches, Purkinje
AV node, SA node, Bundle of HIs, Bundle branches, Purkinje
SA node, AV node, Bundle branches, Bundle of HIS, Purkinje
SV node, AV node, Bundle of HIS, Bundle branches, Purkinje
79
Nitrous oxide effectively decreases MAC of other inhalant anesthetic agents through second gas
False
True
80
General anesthesia blocks the pain pathway at the nociceptor
False
True
81
Dextran and hetastarch are examples of synthetic colloids
False
True
82
Vinyl plastic ET tubes resistant to cracking and fitted w/ low volume, high pressure cuffs
True
False
83
In the US, Isoflurane is labelled for use in dogs and cats
True
False
84
Which of the following receptor types are found in the sympathetic nervous system?
Muscarinic
Nicotinic
Alpha 1, Alpha 2
Beta 1, Beta 2
85
Lidocaine is a safe and effective antiarrhythmic when administered IV to dogs and cats
False
True
86
A patient with 5% dehydration exhibit which clinical signs
Mild skin turgor with tacky MM
None of the these
Mod skin turgor with dry MM, weak pulse, tachycardia
Loss of skin turgor, dry MM. Thready pulses, hypotension
87
Telazol is a commercially available agent containing both benzo and a ________
Phenothiazine tranquilizer
alpha 2 agonist
Cyclohexamine dissociative
Opioid
88
Propofol would be contraindicated in which of the following
None of these
Respiratory disease
An elective procedure in known epileptic patient
Liver/kidney disease
89
Murmurs assoc with which CV will be best auscultated over the right fourth intercostal space?
Pulmonic
Mitral
Tricuspid
Aortic
90
Zolazepam is available as a single-agent formulation
True
False
91
What is the function of cranial nerve X?
Motor
Both
Sensory
92
Which is NOT true about cyclohexamine dissociative agents?
Easily reversed using competitive antagonists
Characterized by a cataleptic state
Also referred to as NMDA antagonists
Provide superficial analgesia
93
Phenothiazine tranquilizers provide adequate analgesia for minor surgical procedures
True
False
94
Which of the following statements regarding firocoxib is true?
Cyclooxygenase-1 selective
Available in both injectable and oral formulations
Labelled for use in dogs and horses
Most similar to acetylsalicylic acid and phenylbutazone
95
What is the function of the glossopharyngeal nerve?
Both
Sensory
Motor
96
NOT true when sizing an ET tube to fit your patient
Measuring width of nasal septum not as accurate in brachy
Most cats require b/t 10mm and 11.5mm
Measure from P's incisors to thoracic inlet
Most accurate way to measure ETtube width to palpate trachea
97
Which of the following drugs are NOT alpha 2 agonists?
Xylazine
Atipamezole
Yohimbine
Dexmedetomidine
98
Cyclohexamine dissociative agents can cause seizures in cats when used as sole agents
True
False
99
Barbiturates from shortest to longest acting
Metho, thio, pheno
Pento, thio, metho
Pheno, thio, pento
Pheno, pento, thio
100
What is the function of cranial nerve XII?
Both
Sensory
Motor
101
Obese animals may experience problems with which of the following before and after anesthesia
Venipuncture
Auscultation
Dyspnea at rest
Assessing dehydration status
102
Which of the following does not pertain to circulatory shock?
Responds to IV volume rescusctation
Characterized by loss of intravascular volume
Can be treated with crystalloid fluids in shock dose
Can be treated with colloid fluids administered asap
103
All inhalant anesthetic agents are potent cardiopulmonary depressants
True
False
104
Which is true about MAC?
measures solubility+used to compare strength of agents
Agent with higher MAC produces more rapid anesthetia
concentration of inhalant agent that produces Sx plane
MAC inversely related to potency
105
Which of the following regarding diastolic blood pressure is NOT true?
can be measured accurately with a Doppler unit
least accurate when measured by oscillometric
blood pressure measured during ventricular filling
Affected by changes in afterload
106
A patient must be at a surgical plane of anesthesia for ET intubation to be successful
False
True
107
Which statement about IPPV is NOT true?
IPPV also known as "bagging" a patient
IPPV can be life saving in patients with closed pneumothorax
IPPV can be used to prevent atelectasis
IPPV can be used to change anesthetic depth
108
Cardiovascular collapse and apnea. Pupils fully dilated/ unresponsive. Immediate resuscitation
Stage III, Plane 3
Stage III, Plane 2
Stage IV
Stage III, Plane 1
109
Select the neurotransmitter for the sympathetic nervous system
Norepinephrine (NE)
Epinephrine (epi)
None of these
Acetylcholine (Ach)
110
The normal blood pressure range for canine and feline patients is:
120/80 mmHg
100/70 mmHg
120/80 cmH2O
80/120 cmH2O
111
Ruminants should never have water withheld prior to anesthesia, would increase risk of bloat
True
False
112
Deep plane of anesthesia w/ significant cardio/resp depression. PLR very sluggish, eyes central
Stage III, Plane 2
Stage IV
Stage III, Plane 3
Stage III, Plane 1
113
Morphine is a pure opioid antagonist and is the benchmark we use to compare potency of opioids
True
False
114
Correct ET tube placement technique in canines and felines
blind intubation
direct visualization
digital palpation
115
Which of the following are NOT indications for IV fluid therapy?
Maintain cardiac output and perfusion
Ensure that IV catheter remains patent
Replace insensible fluid losses during surgery
None of these
116
Which of the following areas are typically NOT a source of leaks in an anesthetic machine?
The soda lime canister
Vaporizer
Reservoir/rebreathing
Flow meter
117
Fluid therapy is usually indicated in cases of circulatory shock
True
False
118
Which of these are NOT important aspects of recording controlled substances in practice?
Surgery log
Controlled Substance log
None of these
Patient's medical record
119
Experience excitement prior to losing consciousness. Exaggerated reflexes common
Stage II
Stage III, Plane 2
Stage III, Plane 1
Stage I
120
A patient assessed an ASA Grade I may require which?
Standard protocols and techniques
Stabilization/optimization prior to anesthesia
Modifications to the anesthetic protocol
Dedicated anesthetist assigned for duration of procedure
121
An anticholinergic drug would cause a/an _____ in SLUDGE
Increase
Decrease
122
At both light and deep planes of anesthesia, a patient's eyes are in a ______ position
ventral
temporal
central
eccentric
123
Some anesthetic drugs may not be as safe or as effective in anxious/aggressive animals
True
False
124
What is the name and function for cranial nerve VII?
None of these
Vagus, Sensory
Vestibulocochlear, Motor
Vagus, Motor
125
Negative effects of cyclohexamine dissociative agents are decreased by using what drugs?
Benzodiazepine agents
Hypnotic agents
Anticholinergics
Schedule III
126
Which of the following pertains to cardiac preload?
Also thought of as end diastolic volume
None of these
volume/pressure of blood within ventricle at end of diastole
Affected by venous return
127
Which of the following are properties of halothane?
Partially metabolized by the liver
Associated with malignant hyperthermia
Poor analgesic
Color coded red for easy ID
128
Adverse effects of local anesthetic agents include all EXCEPT
Seizure activity
Gastrointestinal ulceration
Cardiovascular collapse
Self-mutilation
129
Drug induced sleep from which the patient is not easily aroused
Narcosis
Sedation
Hypnosis
Anesthesia
130
Alpha 2 agonists increase blood glucose levels by suppressing insulin release
True
False
131
How often should the anesthetist apply lubricant to the eyes of an anesthetized patient?
every 60 minutes
every 90 minutes
every 15 minutes
every 5 minutes
132
Which is NOT a property of the idea inhalant agent?
good muscle relazation
Inexpensive
no residual analgesia
capable of rapid induction and recovery
133
EKG monitor provides information on all of the following EXCEPT:
specific diagnosis of cardiac arrhythmias
Myocardial depolarization and repolarization
regurgitant blood flow caused by valvular insufficiency
an accurate heart rate
134
Conscious/disoriented. Voluntary movement usually w/ ataxia. Reflexes present, become recumbent
Stage I
Stage III, Plane 2
Stage II
Stage III, Plane 1
135
Which about bupivacaine is true?
Never be administered IV
Rapid onset of action and longer action than lidocaine
contraindicated for use in dental nerve blocks
Rapid onset of action and shorter action than lidocaine
136
Anesthetic doses should be calculated based on an animal's actual body weight
False
True
137
Which is NOT reason that P is maintained on 100% oxygen after turning off anesthetic vaporizer
O2 requirements can increase up to 600% during recovery
None of these
flush anesthetic gas from patient's lungs
to prevent hypoxia
138
P's CRT is prolonged, MM are pale, abdominal resp. Not a safe plane of anesthesia
Stage III, Plane 3
Stage III, Plane 1
Stage III, Plane 4
Stage III, Plane 2
139
Barbiturate agents sensitize myocardium to catecholamines, increase risk of arrhythmias
True
False
140
Which is contraindicated to treat hypercapnia in anesthetized patient?
Perform IPPV
Decrease anesthetic vaporizer setting
Increase O2 flow rate
Increase anesthetic vaporizer setting
141
OTC NSAIDs are safe alternative to prescription NSAIDs if a client is concerned about cost
True
False
142
Liver failure has been associated with repeated oral dosing of diazepam in cats
False
True
143
B-1 antagonists like timolol, atenolol and propranolol are also known as "beta-blockers"
False
True
144
In anesthetized patient, mean arterial blood pressure should always be above what value
90 mmHg
100 mmHg
120 mmHg
60 mmHg
145
If ET tube is too long for P, there will be increased ___________
V/Q mismatch
Ventilation
Hypoxia
Dead space
146
Which of the following statements regarding MAC are NOT true?
balanced multimodal protocol can decrease MAC volatile agent
Expressed as percent and corresponds w/settings on vaporizer
1.5x the MAC will provide Sx plane of anesthesia
Length of anesthetic procedure will decrease MAC of agent
147
Which is NOT true about atropine
Has a short onset of action when administered IV
Should be administered IM in case of emergency
Anticholinergic drug of choice for emergencies
Increases heart rate
148
A patient's previous med hx should include which?
Is the pet fasted?
Any history of chronic disease or conditions?
Has pet been anesthetized before?
None of these
149
The ___ are located b/t ventricles and the great vessels exiting the heart
AV valves
Semilunar valves
Neither of these
150
A patient with slight to mild systemic disturbances + compensating for disease processes
ASA I
ASA III
ASA IV
ASA II
151
Loss of sensation in part/whole body, generally induced by a drug that depresses nervous tissue
Anesthesia
Tranquilization
Hypnosis
Sedation
152
If X has a MAC of 4.2 and Y has MAC of 3.5, then X is ____ potent than Y
More
Less
Equally
153
Cox 2 mediates prostaglandins with housekeeping functions such as protecting GI mucosa
False
True
154
Which of the following regarding precision vaporizers is NOT true?
Color coded for easy identification
Insulated so they can compensate for ambient temperature
They are vaporizers in circuit
Are agent specific
155
______ can occur due to rapid recovery from sevo inhalant anesthesia
analgesia
emergence delirium
second gas effect
diffusion hypoxia

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