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Duplicate of Mock Quiz Bowl March 29, 2025 Flashcards | StudBud
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Duplicate of Mock Quiz Bowl March 29, 2025
Duplicate of Mock Quiz Bowl March 29, 2025
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1
Hallmarks of acute Wernicke’s disease except:
Ataxia
Global confusion
Tachycardia
Ophthalmoplegia
2
The following are considered high risk adenomas except:
villous features
containing high-grade dysplasia
any adenoma ≥1 cm in size
ulcerating adenoma
3
First line treatment for Giardia lamblia
Ivermectin
Albendazole
Metronidazole
Praziquantel
4
20/F sexually active entertainer consults you about cervical cancer screening. Which screening test will you recommend?
HPV testing
None
Pap smear cytology
Pap smear cytology + HPV testing
5
Acute allergic interstitial nephritis is most frequently associated with which category of medications?
Beta-blockers
Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs)
Antibiotics (e.g., penicillins)
Anticonvulsants
6
A 65 y/o male with memory lapses, apathy, disinhibition, compulsivity, empathy loss, overeating for 48 months.
Corticobasal syndrome
Frontotemporal lobe dementia
Huntington’s disease
Lewy body dementia
7
Shock is a manifestation of inadequate oxygen delivery (DO
2
) compared with cellular needs. The 2 major components are:
Stroke volume( SV) and heart rate (HR)
Preload and contractility
Hemoglobin and oxygen saturation of arterial blood (SaO2)
Cardiac output (CO) and arterial oxygen content (CaO2)
8
Monoclonal antibody safest for pregnancy
Canakinumab
Golimumab
Infliximab
Certolizumab
9
PPI is given in eosinophilic esophagitis. this is effective at improving eosinophilic inflammation by how much?
30-50%
80-90%
50-80%
10-20%
10
typical incubation period for Trichomonas vaginalis infection in women
1–5 days
60–90 days
30–45 days
5–28 days
11
What is the mechanism of action of venetoclax, a drug used in the treatment of CLL?
Tyrosine kinase inhibition
BCL-2 inhibition
Topoisomerase inhibition
DNA methylation inhibition
12
The primary cause of hypocalcemia in Vitamin D deficiency is
Increased renal calcium losses
Decreased renal calcium reabsorption
Decreased stimulation of PTH production
Decreased intestinal calcium reabsorption
13
Inflamed sacroiliac joints in SpA/AS have high levels of this cytokine
TNF
IL-6
IFN-alpha
IL-1
14
parasite most likely to cause progressive encephalitis in the immunocompromised, particularly those with HIV/AIDS
Toxoplasma gondii
Strongyloides stercoralis
Plasmodium falciparum
Trypanosoma brucei
15
TRUE regarding post-polio syndrome
prognosis is poor, progression to further weakness is fast
caused by progressive dysfunction and loss of motor neurons
thought to be due to persistence of reactivation of the polio virus
more common in males than females
16
True regarding monkeypox
Lymphadenopathy is a prominent feature
The lesions of the monkeypox tend to be in different stages of development
All of the above are true
Monkeys are the primary viral reservoir
17
What is the risk of malignancy in a patient with a follicular neoplasm (Bethesda classification)?
10-30%
50-75%
25-40%
5-10%
18
Suspicion of infections with certain organisms depends on cancer type. Which is the correct association?
Multiple myeloma – Streptococcus pneumoniae
Colon and rectal tumors – Salmonella spp
Chronic lymphocytic leukemia – herpes viruses
Hodgkin’s disease – Pneumocystis carinii
19
Which of the following toxins can cause flaccid paralysis?
Organophosphates
Cyanide
Carbon monoxide
Botulinum toxin
20
A multisystem, necrotizing vasculitis affecting small- and medium-sized arteries, sparing the lungs.
Granulomatosis with polyangiitis
Polyarteritis nodosa
Microscopic polyangiitis
Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis
21
Hyponatremia in lung cancer is usually caused by:
Occult hypothyroidism
Ectopic ACTH production
Concomitant adrenal insufficiency
Syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH)
22
ideal for “pill-in-the-pocket” approach for paroxysmal atrial fibrillation
Phenytoin
Propafenone
Ibutilide
Amiodarone
23
How many percent of patients who present with gallstone pancreatitis harbor a choledocholithiasis?
20%
80%
40%
60%
24
primary treatment for cyanide poisoning
Acetylcysteine
Hydroxocobalamin
Digoxin-specific antibody fragments
Sodium bicarbonate
25
an absolute contraindication to exercise stress testing
Aortic Regurgitation
Acute Myocarditis
Hypertrophic Obstructive Cardiomyopathy
Moderate Pulmonary Hypertension
26
Mutation in the human RYR2 gene and in CASQ2
CPVT
Long QT syndrome
Brugada syndrome
WPW syndrome
27
characterized by painful swelling of one or more costochondral articulations
Costochondritis
Tietze syndrome
Clubbing
Myofascial pain syndrome
28
increased [Ca2+]i related to spontaneous release of Ca2+ from the SR in cardiomyocytes with dispersion of repolarization
LQTS – associated cardiac arrhythmia
CPVT
WPW Syndrome
Brugada Syndrome
29
What is the necessary size of liver biopsy sample for assessment of liver fibrosis?
10-15 cm with 15 portal tracts
5-10 cm with 10 portal tracts
1.5- 2 cm with 10 portal tracts
2.5- 5 cm with 20 portal tracts
30
the leading cause of death in systemic sclerosis
Scleroderma renal crisis
Gastroesophageal reflux
Interstitial lung disease
Pulmonary artery hypertension
31
A 54-year-old male with seizures due to a left temporal lobe mass. Lab: thrombocytopenia, leukopenia. Best AED?
Valproic acid
Carbamazepine
Lamotrigine
Phenobarbital
32
The Eaton-Lambert syndrome, a paraneoplastic syndrome due to lung cancer, presents with:
Thrombophlebitis
Severe electrolyte imbalance
Myasthenia symptoms
Retinal blindness
33
Schistosoma specie most likely to cause infection through contact with freshwater bodies in Asia
S. haematobium
S. mansoni
S. mekongi
S. japonicum
34
The toxic compound in Amanita phalloides (death cap mushroom) is
Cyanide
Alpha-amanitin
Muscarine
Ricin
35
These hormones are known as hormones of satiety or those anorexigenic effects except
Glucagon Like Peptide 1 (GLP-1)
Cholecystokinin (CCK)
B-melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH)
Polypeptide YY (PYY)
36
40M with severe MS, atrial fibrillation, no other comorbidities, which following is appropriate for stroke prevention?
Coumadin
Aspirin
None since the CHADS score is low
Dabigatran
37
A patient with opioid overdose will typically present with
Mydriasis, hypertension, and hyperthermia
SLUDGE symptoms
Dry skin, hallucinations, and tachycardia
Miosis, respiratory depression, and coma
38
In steakhouse syndrome, this lesion causes intermittent food impaction:
Schatzki’s ring
B ring
Zenker’s diverticula
A ring
39
Provides insight into the adequacy of oxygen delivery in patients with shock
SVR (systemic vascular resistance)
ScvO2 (central venous oxygen saturation)
SVO2 (mixed venous oxygen saturation)
PCWP (pulmonary capillary wedge pressure)
40
In dysphagia lusoria, the esophagus is compressed by what artery arising from the descending aorta
aberrant right subclavian artery
posterior intercostal arteries
anterior intercostal arteries
aberrant brachiocephalic artery
41
Type III respiratory failure is commonly seen in
Perioperative period
Shock
Late phase of ARDS
Early stage of ARDS
42
In CPPD, this gene may undergo mutations that increase elaboration and extracellular transport of pyrophosphate
NLRP3
ANKH
HLA-B27
HLA-B5801
43
Treatment for TNF-Receptor Associated Periodic Syndrome (TRAPS)
CTLR4-inhibition
IL-1 inhibition
IL-6 inhibition
RANKL-inhibition
44
True of cancer and smoking
Cervical cancer is tobacco related
Light- and low-tar cigarettes are safer
Smokers who quit completely are less likely to be successful
Tobacco use causes more deaths from cancer than cardiovascular disease
45
Dihydropyridines CCB associated with increased risk of mortality when given during acute myocardial infarction
Nicardipine
Felodipine
Nisoldipine
Nifedipine
46
binds to TGF-beta is recently approved to benefit patients with thalassemia by enhancing late-stage erythropoiesis
Folic acid
PEG-Interferon
Erythopoeitin alpha
Luspatercept
47
Which of these occurs FIRST in the ischemic cascade?
Micro-Infarction
Decreased Subendocardial Perfusion
Regional Wall Motion Abnormalities
Decreased Segmental Perfusion
48
Infiltrative heart disease/inflammatory disease causes of AV block, except
sarcoidosis
amyloidosis
reactive arthritis (Reiter’s syndrome), SLE, RA
Lenègre’s disease
49
reversible cause of sinus node dysfunction, EXCEPT
hyperthyroidism
hypothermia
sleep apnea
COVID-19
50
This aneurysmal size has 6% risk of rupture in the first year of identification and may remain high indefinitely
At least >2.5 cm
At least >1.5 cm
At least >3.5 cm
At least >1 cm
51
How would you prepare a patient for RAI therapy?
Recombinant TSH administered as two daily consecutive injections
Decrease her dose of levothyroxine to 1mcg/kg before RAI
The target of serum TSH > 25 at the time of 131-I therapy
Low-iodine diet for 2 to 3 weeks
52
The pathophysiology of the notable increase in MCV in hemolytic anemia is attributed to which of the following?
Unstable globin chain accumulation
Reticulocytosis
Physiologic autophagy
Increase in G6PD generation
53
Which of the following features best distinguishes a nephritic syndrome from a nephrotic syndrome?
Serum albumin <2.5 g/dL
RBC casts and dysmorphic RBCs
Hyperlipidemia and lipiduria
Proteinuria exceeding 3.5 g/day
54
antiarrhythmic associated with sinus node dysfunction, EXCEPT
ivabradine
phenothiazine
quinidine
flecainide
55
drug of choice for a patient with preexcited atrial fibrillation with normal BP
Verapamil
Adenosine
Digoxin
Procainamide
56
classic ECG seen in hypothermia
Empty choice
Empty choice
Empty choice
Empty choice
57
In the NLST study, low dose CT was found to detect more early stage lung cancers and reduce mortality by 20% in patients
with a 30+ pack year smoking history
former smokers who had quit < 15 years prior
aged 55 - 74 years
all of the above
58
Which of the following drugs can cause malignant hyperthermia?
Atropine
Propofol
Succinylcholine
Benzodiazepines
59
minimum heart rate percentage a patient must achieve for the treadmill exercise test to be considered diagnostic
90%
75%
80%
85%
60
Which of the following causes "Monday disease" (fluctuating headache and dizziness in factory workers)?
Mercury
Carbon monoxide
Lead
Nitroglycerin
61
Accounts for 80% of cases of cardiogenic shock complicating acute myocardial infarction:
Cardiac tamponade
Ventricular septal rupture
Severe mitral regurgitation
Left ventricular failure
62
A patient from an endemic area has hematuria, dysuria, and lower abdominal pain. Urine shows terminal-spined eggs.
Schistosoma haematobium
Enterobius vermicularis
Schistosoma mansoni
Schistosoma japonicum
63
In esophageal foreign body impaction, what medication can be tried to dislodge the impacted body prior to endoscopy?
Glucagon
Proton pump inhibitor
Erythromycin
Metoclopromide
64
This medication increases claudication distance by 40-60% and improves measures of quality of life
Pentoxifylline
Beta-blockers
Cilostazol
Statins
65
a risk factor for testicular germ cell tumor
Multiple sex partners
Cryptorchidism
HIV infection
Recurrent orchitis or epididymitis
66
Initial resuscitation in sepsis and septic shock except:
Norepinephrine is the first line vasopressor
Target of MAP 65 is recommended for patients requiring vasopressors
Hydroxyethyl starches is recommended to reduce the norepinephrine dose
Saline or balance crystalloids are recommended for fluids
67
converts type 2 or type 3 Brugada pattern ECG to a type 1 pattern
Digoxin
Adenosine
Diltiazem
Ajmaline
68
Which type of lung cancer is often characterized by evidence of early metastases at the time of diagnosis?
Squamous cell
Oat cell
Large cell
Adenocarcinoma
69
What is this lesion?
Gastric ulcer
Internal hemorrhoids
Esophageal varix
Colon Polyp
70
30M with high serum calcium, elevated PTH, normal vitamin D, and low urine calcium. Diagnosis?
Familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia
Milk alkali syndrome
Malignancy related hypercalcemia
Granulomatous disease
71
strongly predicts increased risk of perioperative CV complications in patients >40 years undergoing major surgery
serum creatinine = 1.5mg/dL
presence of an S3 gallop
active cigarette smoking
mitral stenosis with calculated valve area of 2.0cm2
72
According to the Universal Definitions of Myocardial Injury and Infarction, "Stent Restenosis" is classified as
IV-C
IV-A
IV-B
V
73
Which of the following is a secondary cause of nephrotic syndrome?
Membranous nephropathy (primary)
Diabetic nephropathy
Membranoproliferative GN (primary)
Minimal Change Disease
74
Which of the following findings is an indication for initiating dialysis in this patient with tumor lysis syndrome?
Serum K+ >10 meq/L
Serum creatinine >10 mg/dL
Symptomatic hypercalcemia present
Serum uric acid >15 mg/dL
75
64M presented with sudden LSW. CT was negative.
Reversible Ischemic neurologic deficit
Reversible cerebral vasoconstrictive syndrome
Acute ischemic stroke
Transient ischemic attack
76
What is the mechanism of action of bisphosphonates in the treatment of osteoporosis?
Increasing osteoclast activity
Inhibiting bone resorption by osteoclasts
Increasing calcium absorption from the gut
Stimulating parathyroid hormone secretion
77
In Primary Biliary Cholangitis treatment, what is the dose used for UDCA?
25-30 mg/kg/day
13-15 mg/kg/day
5-10 mg/kg/day
20-23 mg/kg/day
78
TRISS trial in septic shock recommends red blood cell transfusion:
For Hgb < 9 g/dL
For Hgb < 7g/dL
By individualized approach
To achieve Hgb > 10 g/dL
79
A child with abdominal pain, weight loss, and a cystic liver lesion. Noted was frequent contact with dogs. diagnosis?
Echinococcosis (hydatid disease)
Amebic liver abscess
Ascariasis
Schistosomiasis
80
In ambulatory pH monitoring, an abnormal result indicative of GERD is defined as:
At least 1 episode wherein pH was <1
More than 30% height of acid exposure
At least 1 episode of acid exposure every hour
pH <4 with values exceeding 5% of the time
81
Which of the following medications has the lowest Hba1C reduction?
Biguanides
Thiazolidinediones
SGLT2
DPP4
82
A high reticulocyte count in a patient with anemia most likely indicates:
Aplastic anemia
Blood loss or hemolysis
Vitamin B12 deficiency
Iron deficiency
83
Which of the following statement regarding peptic ulcers is NOT TRUE?
Ulcers with flat pigmented spots have a 10% risk of rebleeding
A clean-based ulcer is associated with a low risk (3–5%) of rebleeding
Endoscopic therapy of ulcers with high-risk stigmata lowers the rebleeding
An ulcer with a sentinel clot already has low risk of re-bleeding of 5%
84
The following are biochemical markers of bone formation except
Serum Osteocalcin
Serum propeptide of type I procollagen
Serum bone specific alkaline phosphatase
Serum cross linked N-telopeptide
85
the minimum number of sampled lymph nodes to accurately define tumor stage
10 lymph nodes
20 lymph nodes
12 lymph nodes
16 lymph nodes
86
What is the most likely causes of sudden death in Ischemic Heart Disease?
Myocardial Rupture
Acute Cerebral Hypoperfusion
Ventricular Arrhythmias
Sudden Systolic Dysfunction
87
54M with CML in chronic phase was on imatinib for three months, yet his WBC count remains elevated. Next best step?
Discontinue imatinib and monitor the patient
Switch to dasatinib or nilotinib
Perform mutational analysis for BCR-ABL kinase domain mutations
Increase the dose of imatinib
88
What amount of zinc per liter of diarrhea is present in patients with secretory diarrhea?
14%
12%
10%
18%
89
Superior sulcus tumors represent a distinct subset of Stage III disease. They are characterized by the following except:
Invasion of the paravertebral sympathetic chain may be present
involve lung apex, 2nd and 3rd ribs, brachial plexus and adjacent vertebrae
associated with Horner’s syndrome
may present with ptosis, miosis and anhidrosis
90
In acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL), which cell lineage marker is most commonly found in B-cell ALL?
CD19
CD3
CD33
CD13
91
International society of hypertension guidelines (2020), initial first line drugs, EXCEPT
beta blockers
calcium channel Blockers
ACE Inhibitors
angiotensin receptor blockers
92
Erythema multiforme is most commonly caused by
drugs
viral infection
bacterial infection
chlamydial infection
93
the most common drug-induced cutaneous reaction
Urticaria
Erythema multiforme
Stevens-Johnson syndrome
Morbilliform eruption
94
Staging for small cell lung cancer is a distinct two-stage system. What excludes limited stage disease?
Disease can be encompassed within a tolerable radiation port.
SVC obstruction
contralateral supraclavicular LN, recurrent laryngeal nerve involvement
Ipsilateral malignant pleural effusion
95
Right ventricle–left ventricle systolic pressure relationship with inspiration is concordant in
constrictive pericarditis
restrictive pericarditis
effusive-constrictive pericarditis
cardiac tamponade
96
Which of the following patients is periprocedural antibiotic prophylaxis recommended?
Patients with synthetic vascular graft undergoing any endoscopic procedure
Any patient with prosthetic joints undergoing any endoscopic procedure
Solid lesion of the Upper GI tract undergoing EUS-FNA
liver cirrhosis and acute upper GI bleeding undergoing endoscopy
97
This is highly correlated with body fat and is related to disease risk
Waist/Hip Ratio
BMI
Weight
Waist Circumference
98
Which of the following is the primary management strategy for a patient with uncomplicated dengue fever?
Supportive care with fluid management and analgesia
Administration of corticosteroids
Use of antiviral agents such as oseltamivir
Antibiotic therapy to prevent secondary bacterial infections
99
Symptomatic proximal esophageal webs and iron-deficiency anemia in middle-aged women constitutes which syndrome?
Booerhave’s syndrome
Paterson- Kelly syndrome
Dysphagia lusoria
Steakhouse syndrome
100
The most appropriate initial step in distinguishing between prerenal, intrinsic, or postrenal causes
24-hour urine protein quantification
Serum electrolytes and acid-base status
Urinalysis and urine microscopy
Renal biopsy
101
Human leukocyte antigen related to Sjogren’s Syndrome
HLA-B29
HLA-DQA2*0703
HLA-DQA1*0501
HLA-B27*012
102
The hallmark sign of hydrogen sulfide poisoning is
Rotten egg odor
Blue skin discoloration
Green urine
Hypoglycemia
103
Which of the following correctly matches the recommended frequency for diabetes-related complication screenings?
Diabetes-related neuropathy examination: 2-4 times a year
Diabetes-related kidney disease testing: 1-2 times a year
Diabetes-related eye examination: every 6- 12 months
Diabetes-related foot examination: 1–2 times/year by patient
104
A generalized seizure disorder that appears in adolescence, characterized by bilateral myoclonic jerks
Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy
Dravet syndrome
Lennox Gastaut syndrome
Mesial temporal lobe epilepsy
105
The pathophysiology of splenomegaly in acquired hemolytic anemia is attributed to which of the following:
Increased extrahepatic pressure
Loss of cell membrane area
Congenital etiology
Extramedullary hematopoiesis
106
heavy metal poisoning is treated with British Anti-Lewisite (dimercaprol)
lead
iron
mercury
arsenic
107
Which of the following has the LEAST utility in the management of limited-disease small-cell lung cancer?
Chemotherapy
Prophylactic cranial irradiation
Surgery
Thoracic radiation therapy
108
beta-blocker without partial agonist activity
Acetabutolol
Labetalol
Bisoprolol
Pindolol
109
most serious maternal complication of mechanical heart valves in pregnancy
acute coronary syndrome
ventricular arrhythmias
valve thrombosis
cerebrovascular disease
110
Which of the following clinical parameters confers higher risk of cancer in patients with solitary pulmonary nodules?
Never smoker
Diameter of 1.0 cm
Spiculated nodule margin
Smoking cessation >7 years
111
76F demented came in with headache, aphasia, and RSW. CT scan: left frontal hemorrhage. Least likely cause of bleed?
Amyloid angiopathy
Arteriovenous malformation
Hypertensive hemorrhages
Metastatic brain tumor
112
primary mechanism of toxicity in acetaminophen overdose
Blockade of NMDA receptors
Competitive antagonism at opioid receptors
Depletion of glutathione leading to hepatic injury
Inhibition of cytochrome P450 enzymes
113
Traveler with fever, headache, myalgia post trip to sub-Saharan Africa showing banana-shaped gametocyte Likely organism?
Plasmodium knowlesi
Plasmodium falciparum
Plasmodium vivax
Plasmodium malariae
114
Diagnostic of sepsis and predicts poorer outcomes according to the most recent sepsis consensus guidelines:
Increase of at least 2 points from the baseline SOFA score
At least 1 point in the qSOFA score
Increase of 3 points from baseline APACHE II score
APACHE II + SOFA score > 4 points
115
Solitary pulmonary nodules with HIGH risk of cancer are characterized by the following, except:
Occurring in a current smoker (>20 cigarettes/day)
≥ 2.3 cm in diameter
Occurring in a patient who never quit smoking
Smooth or scalloped nodule margins (corona radiata or spiculated)
116
Current recommendation: targeted temperature management between 32-36°C for at least 24 hrs for cardiac arrest patients
With labile GCS after ROSC
Without meaningful response after ROSC
With minimal eye opening and regard after ROSC
With verbal response after < 15 minutes to ROSC
117
In patients with small bowel bleeding, what is the most common finding in capsule endoscopy seen in 50-70% of patients?
Small bowel mass
Vascular ectasia
Small intestinal ulcer
Inflammatory bowel disease
118
Which urinary sediment finding is most characteristic of glomerulonephritis in the setting of acute nephritic syndrome?
Waxy casts
Fatty casts (oval fat bodies)
Red blood cell casts
Granular “muddy brown” casts
119
What is this lesion
Vascular ectasia
Arteriovenous malformation
Persistent caliber artery
Mallory-Weiss tear
120
76/M with generalized seizure from intracranial metastasis sought consult. Antiepileptic medication to be avoided?
Phenytoin
Leviteracetam
Lamotrigine
Topiramate
121
What is the most common ablative modality used for endoscopic treatment of Barrett’s esophagus?
Argon plasma coagulation
Endoscopic submucosal dissection
Endoscopic mucosal resection
Radiofrequency ablation
122
Which of the following is a common symptom of acute iron poisoning?
Hyperglycemia
Hypotension
Metabolic alkalosis
Constipation
123
Type of hereditary predisposition for a 40M with colorectal cancer with strong family history of cancer?
Lynch Syndrome
Turcot Syndrome
Polyposis coli
MYH-Associated Polyposis
124
The 4 major cell types of lung cancer include small or oat cell, squamous or epidermoid, adenocarcinoma, and
Sarcoma
Large cell
Mucoepidermoid
Bronchioloalveolar
125
Vinyl chloride is a carcinogen for which type of cancer?
Angiosarcoma
Nonsmall cell lung cancer
Hepatocellular cance
Small cell lung cancer
126
Which of the following agents can cause nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity?
Beta-blockers
Acetaminophen
Aspirin
Gentamicin
127
In regions where
Trypanosoma cruzi
is endemic, what is the primary vector for transmission of Chagas disease?
tsetse fly
Aedes mosquito
triatome bug
sandfly
128
The following feature is true to most patients with hemolytic anemia?
Increased LDH
High haptoglobin
Decreased MCV
Hyposplenism
129
intensity of the murmurs increased in maneuvers that increase LV afterload, EXCEPT
MVP
AR
MR
VSD
130
Which antidote is used for benzodiazepine overdose?
Protamine sulfate
Atropine
Flumazenil
Naloxone
131
POCUS evaluation of ________ can help in the assessment of intravascular filling and fluid tolerance
Pleural space fluid
Presence of A- lines
Inferior vena cava collapsibility
Left ventricular ejection fraction
132
Which of the following chromosomal abnormalities is most commonly associated with chronic myeloid leukemia?
inv(16)
t(15;17)
t(9;22)
t(8;21)
133
What is a leading cause of previously unexplained acute pancreatitis?
Intraductal papillary mucinous neoplasm
Microlithiasis
Medications
Pancreatic divisum
134
triad of neutropenia, splenomegaly and nodular RA
Felty’s triad
Virchow’s triad
Ramsay-Hunt syndrome
Felty’s syndrome
135
Trousseau’s syndrome, a paraneoplastic syndrome associated with lung cancer, refers to:
Retinal embolization
Acanthosis nigricans
Migratory thrombophlebitis
Marantic endocarditis
136
MV mode preserving patient effort and allowing ventilator synchrony; however apneic episodes may be possible
AC-PC
PR-VC
AC-VC
Pressure support
137
most common cause of seizures in adults >60 years old
Illicit drug use
Brain tumor
Trauma
Cerebrovascular disease
138
This is one of the first and most prominent biochemical abnormalities in people living with obesity
Decrease Leptin
Elevated HDL
Elevated Insulin
Elevated LDL
139
Pancoast syndrome, which presents with shoulder/arm pain and Horner’s syndrome, is commonly associated with:
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Lung cancer
Thyroid cancer
Esophageal cancer
140
ARDS typically characterized by a shift from neutrophil-to lymphocyte-predominant pulmonary infiltrates
Hyalinization phase
Proliferative phase
Fibrotic phase
Exudative phase
141
Patients in classic cardiogenic shock but with failure to respond to initial interventions are in
Stage A
Stage B
Stage C
Stage D
142
Which of the following nephrotic syndromes is most commonly associated with HIV infection, heroin use, and obesity?
Membranoproliferative GN
Membranous nephropathy
Focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis (FSGS)
Minimal Change Disease (MCD)
143
How many percent of patients who present with hematochezia have bleeding from the colon?
85%
100%
90%
75%
144
Most common site of spinal cord compression in malignancy
thoracic
cervical
sacral
lumbar
145
Type of extracorporeal gas exchange given to a patient both in shock and requiring full respiratory support:
ECCO2R
VA-ECMO
DPMAS
VV-ECMO
146
Initial intervention for patients with pulseless electrical activity:
IV epinephrine
Insert central line
Intubate
Chest compressions
147
Recommended adjunctive IV steroid dose for refractory septic shock:
IV hydrocortisone 150 mg/day
IV hydrocortisone 50 mg every 6 hours
IV hydrocortisone 300 mg/day
IV hydrocortisone 50 mg every 8 hours
148
In a patient with AKI and severe metabolic acidosis, intravenous sodium bicarbonate therapy is generally indicated to:
Rapidly lower serum potassium to hypokalemic levels
Replace lost chloride in the setting of hyperchloremia
Temporarily buffer acidemia while definitive measures are arranged
Correct mild acidemia when pH is near normal
149
Typically presents with reduced SVR, compensatory increase in CO, and low CVP
GI bleeding
Sepsis
Burns
Cardiac tamponade
150
parasitic infection commonly associated with the consumption of undercooked pork
Trichinella spiralis
Ascaris lumbricoides
Taenia saginata
Toxoplasma gondii
151
syncope or cardiac arrest during sudden auditory stimuli or emotional upset
Reduced repolarizing current IKs due to mutation in KCNQ1 gene
Reduced repolarizing current IKr due to mutation in KCNH2 gene
Delayed inactivation of the INa due to mutations in SCN5A gene
Gain of function mutation in SCN5A gene
152
The antidote for methanol poisoning is:
Deferoxamine
Atropine
N-acetylcysteine
Ethanol or fomepizole
153
A patient with lead poisoning may present with
Confusion and ataxia
Hypertension, basophilic stippling, and anemia
Hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis
Bradycardia and hypotension
154
This is associated with a higher risk of PUD, premalignant gastric lesions, and gastric cancer
pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs)
DU-promoting gene A (dupA)
Vac-A
pathogenicity island (cag-PAI)
155
A patient with SLUDGE (salivation, lacrimation, urination, diarrhea, GI distress, and emesis). most likely cause?
Opioids
Anticholinergics
Organophosphates
Beta-blockers
156
estimated METS for carrying objects 60-90 pounds
3-5 METS
>9 METS
7-9 METS
5-7 METS
157
Pauci-immune crescentic glomerulonephritis is most commonly associated with which of the following serologic markers?
ANCA
Anti-phospholipid
Anti-dsDNA
Anti-GBM
158
An absolute contraindication to Fibrinolysis
DBP > 110mmHg
Current use of anticoagulation
Prolonged CPR > 10 minutes
Active Menstruation
159
auscultatory finding expected in patients with LBBB and aortic stenosis (images on INSPIRATION and EXPIRATION)
Empty choice
Empty choice
Empty choice
Empty choice
160
Second most common cause of dementia
Parkinson disease dementia
Alzheimer’s dementia
Benign forgetfulness of the elderly
Vascular dementia
161
This is independently associated with higher risk for metabolic syndrome, diabetes mellitus and cardiovascular disease
Weight
Waist Circumference
Waist/Hip Ratio
BMI
162
The edema seen in nephrotic syndrome is primarily due to:
Marked hyperglycemia
Low plasma oncotic pressure from hypoalbuminemia
Excess RBC breakdown products in the plasma
Vasculitis of the small vessels
163
A disorder with tender trigger points, sleep disturbance, exaggerated pain, sensitivity, and minimal lab abnormalities.
Chronic fatigue syndrome
Polymyositis
Reactive arthritis
Fibromyalgia
164
Sliding hiatal hernia results from weakening of which ligament?
Coronary ligament
Central tendon
Phrenoesophageal ligament
Cardiophrenic ligament
165
63F with recent osteoporotic hip fracture started on teriparatide. What is a key limitation to the use of this therapy?
Risk of osteonecrosis of the jaw
Risk of hypercalcemia
Duration of therapy limited to 2 years
Requirement for intravenous administration
166
Preferred DVT prophylaxis in high risk critically-ill patients:
Low-molecular-weight heparin
Sequential compression devices
Direct oral anticoagulants
Unfractionated heparin
167
Mutation in the human RYR2 gene and in CASQ2
CPVT
Brugada syndrome
Long QT syndrome
WPW syndrome
168
Type I RPGN is primarily associated with:
Deposition of amyloid in the mesangium
Anti-glomerular basement membrane (anti-GBM) antibodies
Immune complex deposition (e.g., IgA nephropathy)
Pauci-immune pattern (e.g., ANCA-associated)
169
features favors VT over SVT
fusion beats
long-short cycle sequence
termination by carotid massage
onset with premature p wave
170
A patient presents with tinnitus, respiratory alkalosis followed by metabolic acidosis. What is the most likely cause?
Organophosphates
Carbon monoxide
Lead
Aspirin (salicylates)
171
Most common initial symptom of malignant spinal cord compression
Leg weakness
Seizure
Loss of bladder control
Back pain
172
What is the most common viral pathogen complicating organ transplantation?
Epstein barr virus
Herpes simplex virus
BK virus
Cytomegalovirus
173
beta blocker contraindicated during pregnancy
Bisoprolol
Atenolol
Nebivolol
Carvedilol
174
Right ventricle systolic pressure is >60 mmHg in
effusive-constrictive pericarditis
cardiac tamponade
restrictive pericarditis
constrictive pericarditis
175
Which of the following patients has the highest priority (status 1) in the liver transplant waiting list?
Liver cirrhosis patients with MELD more than 15
Liver cirrhosis with portopulmonary hypertension
Fulminant hepatic failure
Young age (Less than 60 years old)
176
estimated LDL reduction that statins offer
50-60%
25-50%
15-25%
10-15%
177
class III antiarrhythmic that causes prolongation of QT at slower heart rates
amiodarone
sotalol
dofetilide
ibutilide
178
This will provide a marker for recurrent or residual disease in medullary thyroid carcinoma
Anti-thyroid peroxidase
Serum calcitonin
Serum CEA
Anti-Thyroglobulin
179
The following are risk factors for hepatocellular carcinoma except
Hepatitis A infection
Liver cirrhosis
non-alcholic steatohepatitis
Hemochromatosis
180
In patients with HOCM, atrial fibrillation, and CHADSVASC 0, which of the following can be given for stroke prevention
Aspirin
None
Warfarin
Clopidogrel
181
usual ablation target of a typical AVNRT circuit
Fast pathway
Slow pathway
Anterolateral accessory pathway
Coronary sinus
182
cancer therapy often causing severe autoimmune reactions like myositis, polymyalgia rheumatica, and polyarthritis.
Herceptin
Entrectinib
Doxorubicin
Pembrolizumab
183
23M came in for weakness and chest discomfort. History of paternal sudden death at 36 years. Loss of function of gene?
RYR2 gene
ANK2 gene
SCN5A gene
KCNJ2 gene
184
Primary peripheral nervous system (PNS) disorders in critically-ill patients except:
Wound botulism
Guillain-Barré syndrome
Neuromuscular blockade during intubation
Myasthenia gravis
185
The most common type of lung cancer occurring in never smokers, women and younger adults:
Squamous
Large cell
Adenocarcinoma
Small cell (or oat cell)
186
This offers >80% chance of cure and improved QoL among patients with severe thalassemia on chronic transfusion support
Gene therapy
Intrauterine transfusion
Luspatercept
Hematopoietic stem cell transplant
187
Anti-fibrotic under study for most autoimmune related ILDs
Mycophenolate mofetil
Nintedanib
Cyclophosphamide
Pirfenidone
188
Which of the following stages of Schistosoma infection is most critical for initiating transmission to humans?
Adult female worm
Cercariae
Schistosomula
Miracidium
189
Criteria for Ventilator-associated Pneumonia (VAP) except:
Increasing FiO2 requirement
Positive microbial culture from oral secretions
New opacities on chest x-ray
≥ 48 hours after initiating mechanical ventilation
190
flecainide when used in patients post MI was associated with increased mortality compared to placebo
CONFIRM
HARMONY
PERMIT-1
CAST
191
syncope or cardiac arrest during exertion, particularly swimming
LQTS-3
LQTS-2
LQTS-4
LQTS-1
192
biologic inhibiting T cell co-stimulation by blocking CD28-CD80/86 interactions and inhibiting antigen-presenting cells
Adalimumab
Avacopan
Abatacept
Denosumab
193
coronary artery lesion carrying the highest risk for cardiovascular events
50% Left Anterior Descending
50% Left Circumflex Artery
50% Right Coronary Artery
None of the above: These are all low-risk lesions
194
Which of the following stages of Schistosoma infection is most commonly detected in humans?
Schistosomula
Adult male worms
Schistosoma eggs
Cercariae
195
Initial antimicrobial therapy for immunocompetent patients with severe sepsis and allergy to β-lactam antibiotics
Aztreonam
Piperacillin-tazobactam
Imimpenem-cilastatin
Doripenem
196
antiarrhythmic associated with sinus node dysfunction, EXCEPT
phenothiazine
ivabradine
flecainide
quinidine
197
A 28 y/o male with history of LOC during stress. EEG shows intermittent discharges on bilateral temporal lobes. Seizure?
Focal onset
Unknown onset
Not a seizure, it is a probable syncopal attack
Generalized onset
198
Short-term hyperventilation to target PaCO
2
30-35 mmHg in cases of increased ICP may be done based on this mechanism:
Hypocapnia decreases cerebral blood flow
Hypercapnia decreases cerebral blood flow
Alkalosis increases cerebral blood flow
Acidosis decreases cerebral blood volume
199
Sudden loss of effective circulation due to cardiac/vascular factors that may reverse spontaneously or with intervention
Cardiac arrest
Sudden cardiac death
Cardiopulmonary death
Cardiovascular collapse
200
A "cherry-red" skin appearance at autopsy is characteristic of poisoning by
Cyanide
Carbon dioxide
Carbon monoxide
Methanol