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5/28 Trivia Night Flashcards | StudBud
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5/28 Trivia Night
5/28 Trivia Night
50 terms
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1
A client with Guillain-Barré syndrome is at risk for:
D. Bone fractures
B. Respiratory failure
C. Seizures
A. Hyperglycemia
2
A priority intervention for a client with acute pancreatitis is:
B. High-fat diet
C. IV potassium
D. NPO status
A. Ambulation
3
(SATA) Which are symptoms of meningitis?
A. Nuchal rigidity
C. Fever
B. Bradycardia
D. Photophobia
4
(SATA) Which are signs of sepsis?
A. Fever
D. Hypotension
B. Tachycardia
C. Bradycardia
5
(SATA) Which interventions are appropriate for a client with heart failure?
C. Administer diuretics as ordered
A. Monitor daily weights
B. Restrict sodium intake
D. Encourage fluid overload
6
(SATA) Which are symptoms of hypoglycemia?
D. Hypertension
B. Shakiness
A. Diaphoresis
C. Confusion
7
Which finding is a late sign of increased ICP?
A. Nausea
B. Headache
C. Cushing’s triad (hypertension, bradycardia, irregular respirations)
D. Pupil dilation
8
(SATA) Which are interventions for a client with a GI bleed?
B. Encourage NSAIDs
C. Prepare for endoscopy
D. Administer PPIs
A. Monitor hemoglobin
9
(SATA) Which are interventions for a client with a stroke?
D. Elevate HOB 30 degrees
C. Monitor for seizures
A. Restrict fluids
B. Assess swallowing
10
Which vaccine is live and contraindicated in pregnancy?
D. Pneumococcal
C. Hepatitis B
B. Tdap
A. MMR
11
A client with a spinal cord injury at T4 is at risk for:
C. Hyperthyroidism
B. Hypoglycemia
A. Autonomic dysreflexia
D. Anemia
12
(SATA) Which foods are high in potassium?
A. Bananas
B. Spinach
C. White bread
D. Oranges
13
(SATA) Which are risk factors for DVT?
C. Smoking
D. Prolonged immobility
A. Hypertension
B. Obesity
14
A client with Parkinson’s disease is at greatest risk for:
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Aspiration pneumonia
D. Hypercalcemia
A. Hypoglycemia
15
(SATA) Which are signs of hypocalcemia?
A. Bradycardia
C. Muscle weakness
B. Positive Chvostek’s sign
D. Positive Trousseau’s sign
16
(SATA) Which are signs of neuroleptic malignant syndrome?
C. Hypotension
B. Altered mental status
A. Muscle rigidity
D. Hyperthermia
17
(SATA) Which are symptoms of hyperthyroidism?
C. Heat intolerance
B. Tachycardia
D. Bradycardia
A. Weight loss
18
(SATA) Which are signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity?
D. Loss of deep tendon reflexes
C. Hypotension
A. Tachycardia
B. Respiratory depression
19
A client with myasthenia gravis should be monitored for:
B. Respiratory muscle weakness
D. Bradycardia
C. Hypertension
A. Hyperactive reflexes
20
(SATA) Which are complications of immobility?
A. Hyperglycemia
C. Atelectasis
D. Pressure ulcers
B. Deep vein thrombosis
21
(SATA) Which are signs of alcohol withdrawal?
B. Hypotension
D. Hallucinations
A. Tachycardia
C. Tremors
22
Which medication should be avoided in a client with gout?
B. Lisinopril
A. Omeprazole
C. Metformin
D. Hydrochlorothiazide
23
Which lab result indicates pernicious anemia?
A. Low vitamin B12
C. Low folate
B. High iron
D. High WBC
24
A client with a pulmonary embolism would likely exhibit:
B. Bradycardia
A. Hyperactive bowel sounds
D. Sudden dyspnea
C. Hypotension
25
A client with Addison’s disease is prescribed fludrocortisone. What is the drug’s primary action?
B. Increases potassium excretion
C. Stimulates aldosterone secretion
A. Promotes sodium retention
D. Suppresses cortisol production
26
A client with tuberculosis should be placed on:
B. Contact precautions
A. Airborne precautions
D. Standard precautions
C. Droplet precautions
27
(SATA) Which interventions are appropriate for a client with acute pancreatitis?
A. NPO status
C. High-fat diet
D. Pain management
B. IV fluids
28
(SATA) Which are side effects of furosemide?
D. Hypercalcemia
A. Hypokalemia
B. Ototoxicity
C. Dehydration
29
Which finding in a newborn suggests Hirschsprung’s disease?
B. Projectile vomiting
A. Hypoactive reflexes
D. Failure to pass meconium within 48 hours
C. Excessive weight gain
30
The best indicator of fluid volume deficit in an infant is:
A. Sunken fontanelles
B. Bradycardia
D. Polyuria
C. Hypertension
31
A client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) would exhibit which lab finding?
B. Hyponatremia
A. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypocalcemia
C. Hyperglycemia
32
(SATA) Which are risk factors for osteoporosis?
D. Hypertension
A. Postmenopausal status
C. Low calcium intake
B. Long-term corticosteroid use
33
A client with hypothyroidism should avoid:
B. High-fiber foods
D. NSAIDs
A. Iron supplements
C. Sedatives
34
(SATA) Which are signs of malignant hyperthermia?
B. Tachycardia
A. Bradycardia
C. Hyperthermia
D. Muscle rigidity
35
(SATA) Which clients are at risk for hyperkalemia?
D. Crushing injuries
A. Renal failure
C. Diuretic therapy
B. ACE inhibitor use
36
Which finding is most concerning in a client taking warfarin?
C. Slight bruising
B. Mild headache
D. Dry mouth
A. Hematuria
37
(SATA) Which are side effects of corticosteroids?
D. Hypotension
C. Mood changes
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Weight gain
38
A client with diabetic ketoacidosis would have:
B. Bradypnea
C. Kussmaul respirations
D. Hypoglycemia
A. Hypertension
39
(SATA) Which are complications of uncontrolled diabetes mellitus?
A. Peripheral neuropathy
D. Retinopathy
C. Nephropathy
B. Hypothyroidism
40
A priority nursing action for a client with a tension pneumothorax is:
B. Administer IV fluids
C. Elevate the head of the bed
D. Apply a nasal cannula
A. Prepare for chest tube insertion
41
(SATA) Which are signs of opioid withdrawal?
D. Diaphoresis
C. Restlessness
A. Bradycardia
B. Dilated pupils
42
(SATA) Which are symptoms of a transient ischemic attack (TIA)?
C. Seizures
D. Vision changes
A. Sudden weakness
B. Slurred speech
43
Which drug requires weekly CBC monitoring?
A. Lisinopril
B. Metoprolol
C. Clozapine
D. Sertraline
44
Which medication should be held before dialysis?
C. Erythropoietin
B. Antihypertensives
A. Phosphate binders
D. Iron supplements
45
Which condition is a contraindication for metformin?
A. Hypertension
C. Asthma
B. Renal failure
D. Osteoporosis
46
Which finding indicates digoxin toxicity?
D. Hyperkalemia
B. Visual disturbances (yellow halos)
A. Hypertension
C. Tachycardia
47
(SATA) Which symptoms indicate lithium toxicity?
B. Hypertension
A. Coarse tremors
D. Confusion
C. Severe diarrhea
48
A priority nursing intervention for a client with Bell’s palsy is:
A. Speech therapy
B. Eye protection (artificial tears, patch)
C. High-sodium diet
D. Immobilization of the face
49
(SATA) Which are interventions for a client with COPD?
A. Pursed-lip breathing
C. High-carb diet
B. Low-flow oxygen
D. Fluid restriction
50
A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease should avoid which medication?
C. Aspirin
B. Acetaminophen
A. Diphenhydramine
D. Ondansetron
