stud
bud
Sign up
Log in
Home
Library
Explore
SAT
More
Procedures Flashcards | StudBud
Explore
/
Procedures
Procedures
199 terms
·
StudBud Administration
·
2 plays
Imported from external platform
Flashcards
199 cards
F
Practice quiz
P
Host live
L
Questions
199
Answers
1
What is the appropriate CR angulation for the AP projection of the acromioclavicular joints (Pearson method)?
15 - 20 degrees cephalad
5 degrees cephalad
7 degrees caudad
0 degrees
2
In order to best demonstrate anatomy and physiology, a minimum of ___ views is required for extremity radiography
1
3
4
2
3
Sesamoid bones can be found in or around
the head of the first metatarsal
all of the above
the first carpometacarpal joint
the knee
4
Which of the following are the true ribs?
11 - 12
8 - 12
1 - 10
1 - 7
5
Which methods are used to demonstrate the intercondylar fossa of the knee?
Camp Coventry, lateral
Holmblad, Camp Coventry
Holmblad, lateral
Holmblad, Camp Coventry, lateral
6
The IR size when imaging the AP axial sacrum is
8 x 10
10 x 12
8 x 8
14 x 17
7
For AP axial Townes method in supine position, the CR is at which angle to the OML?
15 degrees
30 degrees
40 degrees
37 degrees
8
C-spine lateral projection displays overlapping of the pt's chin, what action should take place for better visualization
the patient should rotate their head
the patient should flex their neck
the patient should stand up straight, relax shoulders, lift chin
the patient should extend their neck
9
Which structure is best visualized in lateral skull imaging without rotation?
foramen magnum
C7
sella turcica
glabella
10
Hyperflexion of the axiolateral projection of the hip can elongate and foreshorten the image. This is known as
cutoff
shape distortion
graininess
overexposure
11
Ureteric compression would be used during an intravenous urogram in order to
prevent reflux of urine from the bladder into the kidneys
reduce the thickness of the abdomen, allowing for better contrast
accelerate the passage of urine from the kidneys to the bladder
permit better visualization of the renal collecting system & distal ureters
12
Which structure can be found on the distal radius?
head
tuberosity
neck
styloid process
13
The central ray for the lateral orbit projection is
perpendicular to the zygoma
1 inch superior to the clavical
perpendicular to the nasion
perpendicular, 2 inches superior to the EAM
14
Which of the following types of contrast media should be used for a patient with a history of a perforated ulcer?
air
oil-based contrast media
barium sulfate
iodinated water-soluble contrast
15
Which lateral projection of the foot should be performed in a pt that is being evaluated for pes planus (fallen arches)?
lateromedial (standing weight-bearing)
mediolateral (lateral recumbent position)
lateromedial (lateral recumbent position)
mediolateral (standing weight-bearing)
16
Swallowing dysfunction studies are performed with the patient in the _____ position.
Trendelenburg
Fowler's
recumbent
upright
17
Which duct originates directly from the gallbladder and continues medially where it joins the hepatic duct?
pancreatic duct
cystic duct
hepatic duct
common bile duct
18
Which term is given to the point where the distal ureters empty into the urinary bladder?
bladder wall
trigone
urethra
vesicoureteral junction
19
A fracture of the distal radius and ulna caused by falling onto an outstretched hand is a _______ fracture.
Boxers
Monteggias
Colles
Smiths
20
How should the central ray be directed for the tangential projection (Settegast method) of the patella?
parallel to the long axis of the lower leg
perpendicular to the long axis of the femur
variable, depending on the degree of knee flexion
45 degrees caudal
21
Which is demonstrated on the AP oblique projection of the wrist in external rotation?
pisiform
capitate
hamate
scaphoid
22
The condition of having calcified stones present in the ducts of the biliary system is
choledocholithiasis
urolithiasis
renolithiasis
cholelithiasis
23
Generally speaking, how much contrast media is administered for a voiding cystourethrogram?
450 - 625 mL
350 - 500 mL
200 - 400 mL
100 - 200 mL
24
Which of the following may be necessary to include the entirety of the tibia and fibula on radiographs of this area?
increased mAs
diagonal IR
decreased SID
increased OID
25
In the AP axial projection of the Sella turcica, the patient is positioned lying in which position?
supine
prone
lateral
lateral recumbent
26
The anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) corresponds to approximately which vertebral level?
L3
L5
S1
S3
27
Double-contrast upper GI exams are generally preferable to single contrast exams because
they better demonstrate the lining and rugal folds of the stomach
less barium is used for the procedure
they result in less patient dose
it is easier for the patient to tolerate the study
28
Which pathological condition can be seen on the AP oblique (Judet method) projections of the pelvis?
avascular necrosis
congenital hip dysplasia
osteoarthritis
acetabular fracture
29
In order to obtain a radiographic image of the first finger in the AP projection, the hand should be placed in the
lateromedial position
PA oblique position
45 degree oblique position
PA position
30
AP thoracic spine collimation should
closely collimated laterally to edges of spine without cutting off anatomy
closely collimated to the edges of spine, without cutting off anatomy
close lateral collimation to soft tissue margins of upper neck
be lateral collimation of 4-5 inches wide, lengthwise
31
What is the name of the view with the CR directed 30 degrees caudad to enter 3" above the nasion?
PA mandible
AP axial (modified Townes)
TMJ
PA skull
32
Which of the following is the largest carpal bone?
hamate
scaphoid
trapezium
capitate
33
The male pelvis is ______ when compared to the female pelvis.
narrower, shallow, and less flared
wider, deeper, less flared
narrower, deeper and more flared
narrower, deeper, and less flared
34
A narrowing of the airway on the AP neck radiograph can be indicative of
ARDS (acute respiratory distress syndrome)
pneumonia
croup (whooping cough)
RSV (respiratory syncytial virus)
35
Which projection would best demonstrate a separation of the acromioclaviclar joint?
AP axial
AP oblique
AP, with weights
AP, without weights
36
Which of the following positions/projections is best for evaluation of the glenoid cavity?
AP oblique (Grashey)
PA oblique (scapular Y)
PA axial oblique
transthoracic lateral (Lawrence)
37
For the sthenic patient, the central ray is directed to the level of ____ for imaging of the stomach.
L5
L3
L1
T12
38
In which type of fracture does the fracture fragment(s) pierce the skin and create an open wound?
closed
Monteggia
compound
torus
39
Which bone contains the medial malleolus?
5th metatarsal
talus
fibula
tibia
40
In a lateral modified Schuller view, the CR should be 25 degrees caudad, exiting the lowermost TMJ to best demonstrate
skull
axiolateral TMJ
cervical spine 3
facial bones
41
Which structure comprising the knee joint is located on the tibial plateau?
meniscus
ACL
bursa
MCL
42
The central ray is directed _____ for the inferosuperior axial projection of the shoulder joint
15-30 degrees horizontally (toward the patient)
45 degrees horizontally (toward the patient)
15-30 degrees caudal
5 degrees cephalad
43
The lateral projection of the hand in full extension can best be used to demonstrate
fractures
foreign body
rheumatoid arthritis
dislocations
44
Which is the appropriate central ray angulation for the AP axial projection of the foot?
15 degrees caudal
10 degrees cephalic
20 to 25 degrees cephalic
45 degrees caudal
45
When positioning for oblique sacroiliac joints in an LPO position, which part is imaged?
right
lateral
left
anterior
46
Which of the following muscles is part of the rotator cuff?
teres major
subscapularis
deltoid
trapezium
47
For the PA projection of the sternoclavicular joints, the level of T2-T3 can be localized by palpating the
sternal body
Jugular notch
xiphoid process
sternal angle
48
For a nephrotomogram, the central ray should be directed
1 inch superior to the iliac crest
midway between the iliac crest and the xiphoid process
at the level of the ASIS
at the level of the iliac crest
49
Which pathology affecting the esophagus occurs secondary to portal hypertension?
Barrett esophagus
esophageal varices
Esophageal atresia
gastroesophageal reflux disease
50
When performing a cross-table mediolateral projection of the hip, what position is the patient in?
Trendelenburg
lateral recumbent
prone
supine
51
How much obliquity is required for the PA oblique projection of the hand?
10 degrees
45 degrees
30 degrees
15 to 20 degrees
52
When performing the Judet method, what anatomy is being imaged?
knee
lumbar spine
elbow
acetabulum
53
How are radiographs of the hands, wrist, feet, and toes displayed (hung)?
digits horizontal and pointed to the right
digits positioned toward the floor
digits positioned toward the ceiling
digits horizontal and pointed toward the left
54
Which two structures meet at the bregma?
parietal, frontal, and sphenoid bones
sagittal and lambdoidal sutures
lambdoidal and coronal sutures
sagittal and coronal sutures
55
When imaging facial bones in a PA axial Caldwell position, the IR size should be
14 x 11 inches
10 x 12 inches
6 x 6 inches
10 x 10 inches
56
Which of the following angulations should be used for the AP projection of the ankle?
0 degrees
10 degrees caudad
15 - 20 degrees cephalad
5 degrees caudad
57
Which of the following best demonstrates the zygomatic arches free of superimposition?
AP axial Townes
PA skull
lateral nasal bones
parietoacanthial waters for orbits
58
The ____ projection for cranium imaging would result in less exposure to the lens of the eye
lateral
AP
PA
oblique
59
Which structure must be included on the AP projection of the abdomen with the patient upright?
greater trochanters
diaphragms
bladder
pubic symphysis
60
In oblique position anterior or posterior of the thoracic spine, the central ray should be
centered to T12
centered to L1
centered to T7
centered to C7
61
Which central ray angulation would be used for the PA projection of the patella?
15 degrees cephalad
5 degrees cephalad
0 degrees
20 degrees cephalad
62
Where is the central ray directed when performing a PA mandible?
at the parietal bone
perpendicular to the lips
centered to the EAM
perpendicular to the nasion
63
Which of the following is the primary function of the small bowel?
elimination of waste
absorption of nutrients
absorption of water
all of the above
64
When imaging the nasal bones in the lateral projection, what is the most important radiographic criteria?
include the soft tissue
nasal bones should be demonstrated without rotation
only collimate from top to bottom
nasal bones should be on the lateral aspect of the IR
65
How should a patient be positioned when imaging the lateral sacrum and coccyx?
ensure pelvis and body are in a true AP position
hyperflex the neck if the patient is capable
knees flexed, support placed between knees and ankles
hyperextend the neck if the patient is capable
66
Which of the following features are unique to the female pelvis? Heavier build, oval inlet, wide outlet
heavier build, oval inlet
heavier build, oval inlet, wide outlet (all 3)
oval inlet, wide outlet
heavier build, wide outlet
67
Which of the following are the recommended positions for the oblique projection of the shoulder (scapular Y)
AP
RAO or LAO
transthoracic
RPO or LPO
68
What degree of obliqueness should the patient be positioned to visualize lumbar spine zygapophyseal joints?
70 degrees
45 degrees
90 degrees
15 degrees
69
What amount of rotation for the lower limbs is required for the AP projection of the pelvis?
15-20 degrees
20-30 degrees
35-45 degrees
10 degrees
70
Which joint is an example of amphiarthrosis?
intercarpal
knee
hip
elbow
71
Which structure carries bile to the small intestine?
common bile duct
hepatic duct
pancreatic duct
cystic duct
72
When imaging facial bones in a PA axial Caldwell position, the SID should be
30 inches
60 inches
40 inches
72 inches
73
How much obliquity is required for the AP oblique projection of the elbow in medial rotation?
30 degrees
10 degrees
45 degrees
70 degrees
74
Which provides guidelines for appropriate dose-efficient imaging for pediatric patients?
DEP
Image Gently
Image Wisely
NRC
75
Which SID is recommended for the lateral projection of the sternum?
30 inches
72 inches
48 inches
40 inches
76
Which positioning landmark corresponds to the level of the pubic symphysis?
greater trochanter
lesser tubercle
ASIS
iliac crest
77
Where is the central ray directed for the PA projection of the finger (2nd - 5th digit)
3rd MCP joint
MIP joint
DIP joint
PIP joint
78
The xyphoid process of the sternum corresponds to the level of
T10
T7
T2
T5
79
Which structures are demonstrated on the AP oblique projection of the elbow in medial rotation?
olecranon process within the olecranon fossa
coronoid process
blue and yellow
radial head
80
The _____ is the middle and second longest section of the small intestine.
ileum
Duodenum
ilium
jejunem
81
When imaging for the Judet method, the patient should do what during exposure?
pant
increase respirations
suspend respirations
breathe slow and shallow
82
Which method can be used to perform a lateral projection of the shoulder if the affected arm is immobile due to injury?
Pearson (AC view)
Camp-coventry (tunnel view)
Lawrence (transthoracic view)
Norgaard (ball-catcher view)
83
The AP projection of the hip uses which central ray angulation?
15-20 degrees
10 degrees
perpendicular
5 degrees
84
What is the proper CR angulation for the lateral projection of the ankle?
5 degrees cephalad
7 degrees cephalad
10 to 15 degrees caudad
0 degrees
85
Which joint is located between the distal and middle phalanges?
PIP
DIP
CMC
MCP
86
The _____ are demonstrated in profile on a correctly positioned AP projection of the pelvis.
sciatic notch
lesser tubercles
lesser trochanters
greater trochanters
87
Which is true regarding the AP projection of the chest compared to the PA projection?
none of the above.
the clavicles are projected lower
the mediastinum appears narrower
the heart shadow is magnified
88
The occipital bone is in which aspect of the skull?
medial
posterior
anterior
lateral
89
The centeral ray is directed to _____ for the AP supine projection of the abdomen
level of the ASIS
level of the iliac crest
1.5 inches inferior to the ASIS
1 inch superior to the iliac crest
90
When imaging an obese patient, which of these will simultaneously reduce patient dose and improve image quality?
increase mAs
increase collimation
increase grid ratio
increase kVp
91
The ______ metatarsal is the only metatarsal that contains a tuberosity.
2nd
1st
5th
4th
92
The _____ projection of the ankle will demonstrate the ankle mortise joint open and free of superimposition
lateral
AP oblique, 45-degree rotation
AP
AP oblique, 15-20 degree internal rotation
93
Where is the central ray directed for the 15-30 minute radiograph for the PA projection of the small bowel?
2 inches above the iliac crest
at the level of the ASIS
1 inch inferior to the ASIS
at the level of the iliac crest
94
In oblique lumbar spine images, the RAO displays which zygapophyseal joints?
left posterior zygapophyseal joints
right anterior zygapophyseal joints
left anterior zygapophyseal joints
right posterior zygapophyseal joints
95
In a PA Axial Caldwell projection, the central ray is directed to what structure?
perpendicular to the nasion
30 degrees caudad to a point
15 degrees cephalad to the nasion
15 degrees caudad to the nasion
96
What structures are included or best seen in the PA cranium projection?
PA axial mandible
axiolateral TMJ
frontal bone, lateral cranial walls, frontal sinuses, crista galli
foramen magnum
97
Which of the following inserts on the tibial tuberosity?
patellar tendon
quadriceps tendon
plantar fascia
achilles tendon
98
Which type of fracture results in the production of a triangular-shaped fragment of bone?
torus
spiral
butterfly
oblique
99
What anatomy does the AP axial (modified Towne) method best display?
mandible
nasal bone
occipital bone
TMJ
100
Which thoracic vertebrae resemble the lumbar vertebrae?
T5
T12
T9
T1
101
During an ERCP, the endoscope is advanced to the
pyloric antrum
jejunem
duodenum
ileum
102
Radiographs of the _______ are most commonly performed for the assessment of bone age.
right femur and knee
pelvis
lumbar spine
non-dominant hand and wrist
103
Which structure is demonstrated in profile on the AP oblique projection of the wrist?
trapezium
hamate
capitate
pisiform
104
Which pathological condition is best demonstrated on weight-bearing views of the knees?
Osgood-Schlatter disease
ligament tear
fracture
osteoarthritis
105
The central ray for the AP axial projection of the sacroiliac joints is which of the following
direct CR to midline, centered 2 inches below the level of the ASIS
perpendicular CR to midline, about 2 inches above the ASIS
perpendicular CR to midline, 2 inches below the ASIS
direct CR to midline, centered 2 inches above the ASIS
106
The AP oblique projection (Norgaard method) of the hand will best demonstrate
osteoarthritis
rheumatoid arthritis
dislocations
fracture
107
The AP axial inlet projection of the pelvis CR is which of the following
caudal 40 degrees, midline at level of ASIS
cephalad 60 degrees, midline at level of iliac crest
cephalad 40 degree, midline at level of ASIS
caudal 60 degrees, midline at level of iliac crest
108
Which of the following is the most commonly fractured carpal bone?
hamate
scaphoid
capitate
trapezium
109
Waters projections should be imaged using which size image receptor?
6 x 1
8 x 15
10 x 12
8 x 17
110
The purpose of the oblique T-spine is to visualize which of the following?
xyphoid process
zygapophyseal joints
lateral vertebrae
anterior vertebrae
111
Which will be demonstrated in profile on the AP oblique projection of the elbow in lateral rotation?
coracoid process
radial tuberosity
olecranon process
coronoid process
112
There are ____ bones in the adult hand.
32
27
8
14
113
Which of the following is a non-functional study of the urinary system?
intravenous urography
all of the above are functional studies
voiding cystourethography
retrograde urography
114
Which positioning and centering guidelines should be followed for the plantodorsal axial projection of the calcaneus?
patient recumbent
red and blue
40 degree cephalic central ray angle
affected foot in plantar flexion
115
Beam filtration is employed to reduce:
deep organ dose
bone marrow dose
fetal dose
skin dose
116
The CR angulation for the AP projection of the shoulder is
0 degrees
10 to 15 degrees caudad
5 degrees caudad
25 degrees cephalad
117
What anatomy of the skull consists of a body, two lesser wings, two greater wings, two pterygoid plates, and hamuli?
ethmoid bone
sphenoid bone
temporal bones
occipital bone
118
When imaging the sella turcica laterally, the central ray should be at what angle to the IR?
angled 30 degrees caudal
angled 50 degrees caudal
angled 50 degrees cephalic
perpendicular
119
The CR for oblique sacroiliac joints is which of the following?
CR is perpendicular, directed 1 inch above the level of the iliac crest
CR is perpendicular, directed 4 inches medial to upside ASIS
CR is perpendicular, directed at the level of the iliac crest
CR is perpendicular, directed 1 inch medial to upside ASIS
120
The esophagus is located _____ to the trachea.
anterior
posterior
medially
laterally
121
Which position of the hand will best demonstrate the scaphoid bone of the wrist?
lateral
radial deviation
ulnar deviation
PA
122
The foot contains ______ tarsal bones.
8
5
6
7
123
Which of the following represents appropriate image evaluation criteria for the lateral projection of the elbow?
olecranon process in profile
red and yellow
radial tuberosity in profile
superimposed humeral epicondyles
124
Which positioning landmark should be used for the PA projection of the chest?
inferior angle of the scapulae
inferior costal angle
vertebra prominens
scapular spine
125
In which position is the patient in for a voiding cystourethography?
lithotomy
lateral recumbent
Sim's
Trendelenburg
126
Which is a fracture involving the growth plates?
Osgood-Schlatter
butterfly
Salter-Harris
greenstick
127
Radiopharmaceuticals used for nuclear medicine procedures are transported for delivery using
duffel bags
ammo cans
corrugated cardboard boxes
coolers
128
The lateral projection of the patella utilizes a central ray angulation of
10 degrees caudad
7 degrees cephalad
0 degrees
5 degrees cephalad
129
During a fluoroscopic swallowing evaluation, who observes the patient and sets up their treatment plan?
primary care physician
radiologic oncologist
speech pathologist
radiographer
130
What would be the best practice for a tech performing a lateral trauma facial bone x-ray?
have the patient in a prone position
have the patient in the supine, dorsal decubitus position
have the patient stand
have the patient upright
131
Where is the IR centered for an AP pelvis?
2 inches below the iliac crest
at the level of the iliac crest
midway between the ASIS and pubic symphysis
2 inches superior to the ASIS
132
When positioning for a SMV mandible, what is the minimum SID used?
40 inches
72 inches
30 inches
60 inches
133
The structures shown for a nonforeshortened AP projection of the sacrum displays the
T12 and L1-L4
SI joints and T12-L4
SI joints and coccyx
SI joints and L5-S1
134
When performing a trauma cross-table lateral of the C-spine, it is very important that the patient's head and neck are
free of collar
stabilized
free to move
none of the above
135
Which type of fracture results in three or more fracture fragments being produced?
butterfly
greenstick
comminuted
spiral
136
Which structure of the pharynx prevents aspiration?
tongue
uvula
epiglottis
arytenoid cartilage
137
How much knee flexion is required for a lateral projection of the patella?
5 to 10 degrees
15 to 20 degrees
10 to 15 degrees
0 degrees
138
Which of the following is most clearly demonstrated on the plantodorsal axial projection of the calcaneus?
all of the above
calcaneal tuberosity
subtalar joint
tuberosity of the 5th metatarsal
139
Which of the following is found on the anterior surface of the tiba?
intercondylar eminence
tibial tuberosity
coronoid process
epicondyle
140
For PA axial projection of the facial bones (Caldwell method), what is the angle of the CR?
15 degrees cephalic
25 degrees cephalic
45 degrees cephalic
15 degrees caudal
141
During surgical cholangiography, contrast media is administered in the gallbladder and billiary system:
using a T-tube catheter
intravenously
intrathecally
orally
142
How much knee flexion is required for the PA axial (Homblad method) of the intercondylar fossa?
70 degrees
45 degrees
60 degrees
20 degrees
143
When positioning for an AP pelvic x-ray, which of the following best describes the position of the part?
respirations should be continued
position the grid so that it is 2 inches above the iliac crest
rotate the patient's legs laterally, approx 15 degrees when able
center to MSP to the midline of the grid; pelvis should not be rotated
144
The talar domes are best demonstrated on the _____ projection of the ankle
AP oblique, 45 degree lateral rotation
AP oblique, 45 degree medial rotation
AP oblique, 15 - 20 degree medial rotation
AP
145
When positioning for PA axial oblique projection of the acetabulum (Teufel method), the patient is in which position?
supine
semiprone
erect
prone
146
During pelvic image evaluation, femoral necks should ______ and greater trochanters in profile.
not be foreshortened
be relaxed
be foreshortened
be angled
147
When imaging the AP axial coccyx projection, the central ray is
angled 30 degrees caudad, 2 inches above pubic symphysis
angled 10 degrees cephalad, 2 inches above the pubic symphysis
angled 10 degrees caudad, 2 inches above pubic symphysis
angled 30 degrees cephalad, 2 inches above the pubic symphysis
148
Where is the contrast injected for a shoulder arthrogram?
Glenoid cavity
at the inferior angle of the scapula
supraspinous bursa
1/2 inch below the coracoid process
149
The Kite's method for radiography of the foot is best used for the demonstration of which pathological condition?
talipes equinovarus
fracture
hallux vargus deformity
pes planus
150
The technologist should explain to the patient that during skull imaging exposures the patient must
take slow, deep respirations
take slow shallow breaths
suspend respirations
take a deep breath in and hold it
151
Which structure is best demonstrated on a patient in the LAO position during a barium enema?
right colic flexure
transverse colon
left colic flexure
rectum
152
What type of injection is used for myelography?
intrathecal
intravenous
intramuscular
enteral
153
Which projection will best demonstrate the intercondylar fossa of the knee?
tangential (Settegast method)
PA axial (Camp Coventry method)
AP
Lateral
154
Which of the following is a contraindication of an ERCP?
pancreatitis
gallstones
choledocholithiasis
biliary stenosis
155
Which of the following is best demonstrated on the AP oblique projection of the knee in medial rotation?
intercondylar fossa
intercondylar eminence
proximal tibiofibular joint
distal tibiofibular joint
156
Which of the following are associated with the male urethra?
prostatic urethra
penile urethra
cavernous urethra
red and blue only
157
The annual effective dose for localized areas of the skin/hands/feet for a non-occupationally exposed person is
15 mSv
0.5 mSv
1 mSv
50 mSv
158
Generally speaking, _______ kVp values should be used during fluoroscopy exams to limit patient dose.
moderate
low
kVp and patient dose are unrelated during fluoroscopy
high
159
Which of the following is AP sacrum central ray?
CR angled 35 degrees cephalad, 2 inches above pubic symphysis
CR angled 15 degrees caudal, 2 inches above pubic symphysis
CR angled 15 degrees cephalad, 2 inches above pubic symphysis
CR angled 35 degrees caudal, 2 inches above pubic symphysis
160
The AP axial outlet projection of the pelvis CR is which of the following
higher CR angle for men vs women
angled 20 to 35 degrees for males and 30 to 45 degrees for females
angled equally for both males and females
angled 30 to 45 degrees for males and 20 to 35 degrees for females
161
Which term is given to joints that are freely movable?
amphiarthroses
diarthroses
triathroses
synarthroses
162
The hallux contains _____ phalanges.
3
1
2
4
163
Which of the following serves as the major point of attachment for the Achilles tendon?
calcaneus
medial malleolus
tibial tuberosity
tuberosity of the 5th metatarsal
164
Which of the following would be included as part of a bone survey?
blue and yellow
shoulder
skull
all long bones of the body
165
How many phalanges can be found in the 1st digit?
1
3
2
4
166
Which describes the centering point for the PA oblique projection of the sternoclavicular (SC) joints?
Level of T5, 1.5 inches lateral from MSP to lowered side
Level of T7, to the MSP
Level of T2-T3, 1.5 inches lateral from MSP to raised side
Level of T2-T3, 1.5 inches lateral from MSP to lowered side
167
Which position/projection of the urinary bladder best demonstrates the vesicoureteral junction?
lateral
AP
AP Axial
AP oblique (RPO/LPO)
168
Which projection of the shoulder is most useful for demonstrating an anterior or posterior dislocation?
AP oblique (Grashey method)
PA oblique (scapular Y)
AP
inferosuperior axial
169
The AP axial projection of the clavicle utilizes a central ray angle of
45 degrees cephalad
10 to 15 degrees cephalad
5 to 10 degrees cephalad
15 to 30 degrees cephalad
170
When performing the Judet method, the patient is in which positioned?
posterior oblique
lateral recumbent
prone
supine
171
What degree of obliqueness should the patient be positioned to visualize the thoracic spine zygapophaseal joints?
15 degrees
90 degrees
35 degrees
70 degrees
172
Collimation for the AP axial "inlet" projection of the pelvis should be
no collimation
width collimation only
collimation on all 4 sides
length collimation only
173
The _____ is the only saddle joint in the body
first digit, carpometacarpal joint
radioulnar joint
fifth digit, carpometacarpal joint
radiocarpal joint
174
On which projection of the foot is the sinus tarsi demonstrated?
AP oblique in medial rotation
AP axial
AP oblique in external rotation
lateral
175
In which area of long bones can growth plates be located in children?
metaphysis
periosteum
epiphysis
diaphysis
176
In a PA axial (Caldwell), the CR is directed
to the EAM
To C3
perpendicular to IOML
perpendicular to the nasion
177
When performing a waters projection for facial bones, what size focal spot should the technologist use?
extra large
extra small
large
small
178
When imaging SMV projection, the IR size should be
6 x 6
10 x 12
14 x 11
8 x 10
179
Which position results from placing the medial and lateral malleoli parallel with the plane of the IR?
lateral
AP oblique, 15-20 degree medial rotation
AP
AP oblique, 45-degree lateral rotation
180
Positioning criteria for the AP projection of the forearm states that the affected hand must be ____ for the examination
pronated
placed in a 45-degree oblique position
placed in the lateral position
supinated
181
What amount of abduction of the affected arm is required for the inferosuperior axial projection of the shoulder?
70 degrees
15 degrees
45 degrees
90 degrees
182
Which projection of the shoulder would best demonstrate medial or lateral dislocation of the humerus?
AP oblique (Grashey)
PA oblique (scapular Y)
AP
Transthoracic
183
Where is the centering point for the AP projection of the urinary bladder?
1 inch superior to the iliac crest
at the level of the iliac crest
at the level of the ASIS
2 inches inferior to the ASIS
184
Which is the most appropriate for radiography of the ribs?
110kVp
90kVp
85kVp
70kVp
185
The CR angulation for an AP axial projection of the sacroiliac joints is which of the following below?
40 to 60 degrees cephalad
50 to 60 degrees caudal
30 to 35 degrees caudal
30 to 35 degrees cephalad
186
Which of the following technical factors would be most appropriate for radiography of the hand?
90 kVp
70 kVp
110 kVp
50 kVp
187
Which position would best demonstrate the esophagus during a contrast fluoroscopy exam?
RPO
LAO
RAO
AP
188
How much obliquity is employed for the PA oblique projection (RAO position) of the sternum?
45 degrees
70 degrees
15 degrees
30 degrees
189
Which exposure time is recommended for the transthoracic lateral projection of the shoulder?
minimum of 1 second
minimum of 4 seconds
minimum of 2 seconds
minimum of 10 seconds
190
How should the patient's ankle be positioned to best demonstrate the ankle mortise joint?
lateral rotation, 30-degree oblique
medial rotation, 15-degree oblique
lateral rotation, 45-degree oblique
medial rotation, 45-degree oblique
191
During AP bilateral frog leg projection of the pelvis, how are the hips positioned?
adducted 40 to 45 degrees from vertical
abducted 70 degrees from vertical
adducted 70 degrees from vertical
abducted 40 to 45 degrees from vertical
192
Which of the following can help to stimulate and evauate reflux during an esophagram?
use of a compression paddle
Valsava's maneuver
all of the above
tilting the table slightly Trendelenburg
193
Which type of fracture results in the affected bone bending, but not breaking?
greenstick
torus
butterfly
spiral
194
Which SID should be used for the lateral projection of the soft tissue neck?
30 inches
72 inches
48 inches
40 inches
195
If you cant get an upright abdomen during an obstruction series, the ____ position can be used instead to see air levels
right lateral decubitus
left lateral decubitus
lateral
RAO
196
The plantar surface of the foot forms an angle of ____ with the plane of the IR for oblique projections of the foot.
5 to 10 degrees
45 degrees
30 degrees
15 degrees
197
Which of the following is not a weight-bearing bone?
fibula
femur
talus
tibia
198
Which represents appropriate centering for the AP projection of the knee?
1/2 inch inferior to the patellar apex
1 inch superior to the patellar base
midway between the femoral epicondyles
2 inches inferior to the tibial tuberosity
199
What anatomy of the skull contains the internal auditory meati and carotid canals?
ethmoid bone
parietal bone
temporal bone
occipital bone