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MOCK QUIZ BOWL APRIL 26
MOCK QUIZ BOWL APRIL 26
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1
NOT a cardinal sign/symptom of peritonitis
Abdominal pain, usually severe
Hyperactive bowel sounds
Fever
Abdominal tenderness
2
Which of the following are thrombopoietin-receptor agonists are given as treatment for patients with Chronic ITP?
Eltrombopag
Vincristine
Rituximab
Danazol
3
What is the agent of choice in Ethylene Glycol Intoxication?
Fomepizole
Sodium citrate
Sodium bicarbonate
Acetylcysteine
4
Major risk factors for OSAHS include
Male sex
Micrognathia
Adenotonsillar hypertrophy
Positive family history
5
The presence of which of the following argues against the diagnosis of IBS?
Small-volume stool without evidence of blood
Absence of systemic symptoms such as fever and weight loss
Onset of symptoms during periods of stress or emotional upset
Persistent diarrhea after a 48-hour fast
6
most common location for colonic ischemia and is situated where collateral vessels meet at the splenic flexure
Arc of Riolan
Douglas point
Sudeck’s point
Griffith’s point
7
Which of the following is a class I indication for AVR in patients with severe AR?
Asymptomatic severe AR with 3 studies showing progressive worsening
Isolated moderate AR
Asymptomatic severe AR with EF of 60%, LVESD of 55mm, and LVESD of 26 mm/m2
Symptomatic severe AR
8
associated with hypercoagulable states such as inherited thrombophilia’s, polycythemia vera, and carcinoma
Non-occlusive mesenteric ischemia
Mesenteric venous thrombosis
Arterial embolic mesenteric ischemia
Arterial thrombotic mesenteric ischemia
9
What is the most common cause of chronic hypercalcemia?
Primary hyperparathyroidism
Tuberculosis
Milk-alkali syndrome
Hypercalcemia of malignancy
10
The ideal lung donor, except:
No history of aspiration
Donor age <55 yo
Identical ABO compatibility
Peak airway pressures >30 cmH2O
11
What is the most common cause of primary adrenal insufficiency worldwide?
Tuberculosis
Metastatic cancer
Autoimmune adrenalitis
Adrenal hemorrhage
12
In septic shock, the primary physiological mechanism leading to increased cardiac output despite hypotension?
Increased myocardial contractility due to elevated cytokine levels
Decreased afterload due to systemic vasodilation
Increased preload from fluid resuscitation
Sympathetic stimulation and tachycardia
13
The QT interval on an electrocardiogram represents which phase of the cardiac cycle?
Ventricular depolarization
Both ventricular depolarization and repolarization
Atrial repolarization
Atrial depolarization
14
A patient with a large PDA and secondary pulmonary hypertension with right-to-left shunting at the great vessel may show
malar telangiectasia
peripheral cyanosis
central cyanosis
differential cyanosis
15
Which of the following is a cause of high output heart failure?
Myocardial infarction
Chronic anemia
Hypertension
Cor pulmonale
16
Neural Crest cells are sensitive to this vitamin, a deficiency of which can cause aortic arch abnormalities.
Vitamin D
Vitamin B6
Vitamin C
Vitamin A
17
This short acting CCB when given during AMI may be associated with increased risk of mortality
Nifedipine
Nicardipine
Nisoldipine
Felodipine
18
Best predictor for long-term prognosis for colorectal cancer?
Stage at diagnosis
Presence of lymphovascular invasion and high preoperative CEA
Age at diagnosis
Site of metastasis
19
Electrical alternans syndrome.
Deep expiration with bearing down
Beat to beat change in amplitude due to nodal disease
Relatively specific for tamponade
Submerging the face in cold water
20
TRUE regarding the occurrence of liver injury in idiosyncratic drug reactions
Dose-dependent
May occur at any time
Predictable
Frequent
21
What was the key finding regarding intensive blood glucose control (targeting 81–108 mg/dL) in the NICE-SUGAR trial?
Intensive glucose control reduced the incidence of secondary infections
No difference in mortality was found between groups
Intensive glucose control increased mortality
Intensive glucose control reduced mortality
22
Signs of PH evident on Chest Radiograph are the following except:
Vascular pruning
Engorged pulmonary vessels
Cardiomegaly
Enlargement of central pulmonary arteries
23
Bacteria associated with colorectal cancer?
Helicobacter pylori
Bacteroides fragilis
Streptococcus bovis
Fusobacterium nucleatum
24
Which lipid parameter is the primary target of therapy according to the 2023 ACC/AHA guidelines?
HDL-C
Non-HDL-C
Total cholesterol
LDL-C
25
Most frequent visceral site of colon cancer metastasis?
Peritoneum
Brain
Liver
Lungs
26
What was the COURAGE trial's key finding regarding PCI?
PCI reduced all-cause mortality
PCI improved long-term survival
PCI provided significant symptomatic relief but no reduction in CV events
PCI reduced myocardial infarction rates
27
most likely etiology for nausea, vomiting, crampy abdominal pain and diarrhea 4 hours after intake of mayonnaise
Salmonella spp.
Bacillus aureus
Clostridium perfringens
Staphylococcus aureus
28
The following typically presents with acute inflammatory monoarthritis EXCEPT
Septic arthritis
Rheumatoid arthritis
Gouty arthritis
Reactive arthritis
29
40M with no comorbidities but with severe MS and atrial fibrillation, which of the following is appropriate?
Aspirin
Coumadin
None since the CHADS score is low
Dabigatran
30
Principal iron regulatory hormone
Ferroportin
Erythropoietin
Hephaestin
Hepcidin
31
Which of the following is the most characteristic finding in PFTs of a patient with idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
Obstructive pattern with low FEV1
Reduced FEV1/FVC ratio and increased residual volume
Reduced total lung capacity and reduced diffusion capacity
Increased peak expiratory flow rate and normal TLC
32
Which of the following predicts increased risk of exacerbations in asthma?
Blood eosinophil >0.3 x 109/L
Allergy skin test
Periostin
Sputum eosinophil >3%
33
Screening recommendations for asymptomatic average risk subjects, which is the correct screening recommendation?
Cervical cancer - HPV test for <30 years old
Colon cancer - colonoscopy every 10 years
Breast Cancer - tomosynthesis
Ovarian cancer - CA-125
34
most appropriate initial test for a patient presenting with massive bleeding suspected to be from the small intestine
Angiography
Upper GI endoscopy
Colonoscopy
Flexible sigmoidoscopy
35
Which of the following clinical findings is more indicative of an upper gastrointestinal cause of bleeding?
Melena
Hematochezia
Abdominal pain
Hematemesis
36
Atypical causative organism of pneumonia EXCEPT:
Respiratory viruses
Legionella
Hemophilus influenzae
Myocplasma pneumoniae
37
Which of the following is considered as the most consistent clinical feature in IBS?
Nausea and vomiting
Alteration in bowel habits
Gas and flatulence
Abdominal pain
38
Which of the following electrolyte abnormalities can cause nephrogenic DI?
hypernatremia and hypokalemia
hypocalcemia and hyperkalemia
hyponatremia and hyperkalemia
hypercalcemia and hypokalemia
39
Most effective chemopreventive agent for primary prevention of colorectal cancer?
Aspirin
Vitamin D
Vitamin B6
Vitamin B12
40
What was the main conclusion of the CAST trial?
Antiarrhythmic drugs had no impact on overall outcomes
Antiarrhythmic drugs improved overall survival
Antiarrhythmic drugs increased mortality due to proarrhythmic effects
Antiarrhythmic drugs reduced the frequency of sudden cardiac death
41
Apnea – Hypopnea Index 5 events/hour
Severe OSAHS
Does not satisfy criteria of OSAHS
Moderated OSAHS
Mild OSAHS
42
In the PARADIGM-HF, What was the primary outcome that sacubitril-valsartan significantly reduced?
Rate of first hospitalization for heart failure
All-cause mortality
Cardiovascular death or hospitalization for heart failure
Reduction in left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) over time
43
Which of the following is the most likely biochemical finding in a patient with a pheochromocytoma?
Elevated serum cortisol and low ACTH
Elevated serum aldosterone and hypokalemia
Increased serum calcitonin and hypercalcemia
Increased plasma metanephrines and urinary vanillylmandelic acid
44
tests the concentration of chloride in sweat, a vital component and gold standard in diagnosing cystic fibrosis
Gibson-Cooke method
CF quantum test
Microneedle patch
Pilocarpine Iontopheresis
45
Second most common type of exudative pleural effusion
Tuberculous pleuritis
Parapneumonic
Mesothelioma
Malignancy
46
In a patient with suspected adrenal insufficiency, which laboratory test is considered the most sensitive for diagnosis?
Baseline serum cortisol
High-dose dexamethasone suppression test
Plasma ACTH concentration
ACTH stimulation test
47
In metabolic acidosis of Chronic Kidney Disease, the goal is to maintain the [HCO
3
-] to a value of at least?
12 mmol/L
22 mmol/L
15 mmol/L
18 mmol/L
48
Which of the following drugs can cause gout?
ACE inhibitor
Hydralazine
Ethambutol
Proton pump inhibitor
49
In a patient with rheumatic fever, which of the following cardiac valves is most commonly affected?
Tricuspid valve
Pulmonary valve
Mitral valve
Aortic valve
50
Hyperkalemia in volume depletion is due to:
Decreased distal delivery
Hyporeninemic hypoaldosteronism
Renal resistance to mineralocorticoid
Inhibition of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone axis
51
site commonly spared by diverticular disease
Rectum
Sigmoid colon
Esophagus
Cecum
52
In Brugada syndrome, which of the following is the most likely underlying genetic mutation?
Mutation in the LMNA gene encoding nuclear lamin
Mutation in the TTN gene associated with titin protein
Mutation in the KCNH2 gene encoding potassium channels
Mutation in the SCN5A gene encoding the cardiac sodium channel
53
60/M cirrhotic from chronic HBV infection. What is the recommended method of surveillance for hepatocellular carcinoma?
AFP every 3 months
Liver UTZ +/- AFP every 6 months
Liver UTZ every 3 months
Liver UTZ + AFP every 6 months
54
What are the pathophysiologic abnormalities that can be observed in this patient except?
Decreased pulmonary compliance
Increase pulmonary vascular resistance
Increased airway resistance
Alveolar hypoventilation
55
Infectious agent associated with Gastric MALT lymphoma
H. pylori
HHV 8
Epstein Barr
Hepatitis C
56
asthma trigger that increase in airway osmolality leading to activation of mast cells to release inflammatory mediators
Beta-blockers
Viral infections
Exercise
Allergens
57
In Takotsubo cardiomyopathy, which of the following is the most likely triggering factor?
Emotional or physical stress leading to catecholamine surge
Ischemic injury caused by coronary artery occlusion
Genetic predisposition associated with familial cardiomyopathy
Acute viral myocarditis
58
What is the preferred treatment for patients with 1,25 (OH)
2
D-mediated hypercalcemia?
Glucocorticoids
Denosumab
Bisphosphonates
Calcitonin
59
What is the most common cause of acute pancreatitis?
Diabetic mellitus
Alcohol abuse
Oral contraceptives
Gallstones
60
Which of the following tests the intrinsic and common pathways of secondary coagulation?
Activated partial thromboplastin time
Clotting time
Prothrombin time
Bleeding time
61
In hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM), mutations in which sarcomeric protein gene are most frequently identified?
TPM1 encoding tropomyosin
MYH7 encoding beta-myosin heavy chain
TNNT2 encoding cardiac troponin T
ACTN2 encoding alpha-actinin
62
enzyme causing pancreatic acinar cell injury and inflammatory cascade during acute pancreatitis
Gastrin
Trypsin
Secretin
Pepsin
63
Which of the following is TRUE regarding the activation of neurohormonal systems in heart failure?
Increase in parasympathetic activity
Increase vasopressin secretion
Increase in renal blood flow
Increase afferent inhibitory signals
64
accounts for > 50% of fulminant cases of viral hepatitis
Hepatitis A
Hepatitis D
Hepatitis B
Hepatitis C
65
72M with confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia. His history reveals alcohol use disorder. Which is most appropriate?
Initiation of a high-protein diet
Administration of thiamine
Oral vitamin B12
Intravenous dextrose
66
first-line treatment for Graves' disease in a non-pregnant adult according to the latest ATA guidelines
Propylthiouracil
Radioactive iodine therapy
Methimazole
Thyroidecetomy
67
Minimum number of lymph nodes sampled necessary to adequately define pathologic stage?
12
14
8
10
68
LEAST helpful for constipation-predominant irritable bowel syndrome
Magnesium hydroxide
Psyllium husk
Cholestyramine resin
Lactulose
69
Hallmark of group 2 pulmonary hypertension
Chronic Thromboembolic Disease
Portal Hypertension
Left heart systolic dysfunction
Elevated left atrial filling pressure
70
Which of the following DOES NOT characterizes dyspnea typical of COPD patients?
intermittent
persistent
progressive over time
worsens with exercise
71
NOT a benefit of high-dose constant-infusion PPI among patients with GI bleeding from PUD
Decrease rebleeding rates
Sustains intragastric pH to less than 6
Enhancement of clot stability
Improves mortality among those with high-risk ulcers
72
Which of the following factors can activate Factors I, V, VII, VIII, XI, XIII, protein C, and platelets?
Factor III
Factor XII
Factor IX
Factor II
73
Correct of FDA approved therapies for treatment of Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension
Ambrisentan – endothelin receptor agonist
Iloprost – endothelin receptor antagonist
Selexipeg – selective IP receptor agonist
Bosentan – prostacyclin receptor derivative
74
Major side effect from irinotecan?
Vomiting
Sensory neuropathy
Diarrhea
Pancytopenia
75
predict the effect of ICS on top of bronchodilator use in the preventing future exacerbations
Eosinophils
Lymphocytes
Hemoglobin
WBC count
76
Which of the following is NOT an identified risk factor for
H. pylori
colonization and possibly infection?
Less education
Exposure to gastric contents of an infected individual
Poor socioeconomic status
Race
77
Which of the following is most closely associated with a high SYNTAX score?
Recommendation for CABG over PCI
Increased use of medical therapy alone
No difference between PCI and CABG
Favorable outcomes with PCI
78
Rigid bronchoscopy is highly recommended in?
Severe bleeding
Minimal hemoptysis in a lung CA patient
Endobronchial biopsy
Peripherally located nodules
79
Sacroiliitis is a sine qua non sign of Seronegative Spondyloarthropathy which include the following EXCEPT?
Ankylosing spondylitis
Psoriatic arthritis
Enteropathic arthritis
Dermatomyositis
80
Which of the following statements best describes secondary hemostasis?
FXIIIa produces an insoluble, crosslinked fibrin
The intrinsic tenase primarily activates FV to FVa.
Thrombin generation is accelerated by the presence of heparin
The extrinsic tenase can activate FXII as an alternative pathway
81
“Starry sky” appearance is found in?
Burkitt’s lymphoma
Follicular lymphoma
Hodgkins lymphoma
Mantle cell lymphoma
82
Which of the following infectious agents may also cause ulcer disease?
Cytomegalovirus
Campylobacter jejuni
Varicella zoster virus
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
83
What is the most common form of acute unilateral urinary obstruction?
Iatrogenic
Malignancy
Calculi
Infection
84
Hypercalcemia due to excessive PTH production is seen in the following condition/s:
Total parenteral nutrition
Lithium therapy
Tuberculosis
Hyperthyroidism
85
antibiotic posing the LEAST risk of
C. difficile
infection
Ampicillin
Piperacillin-tazobactam
Ciprofloxacin
Ceftriaxone
86
Which genetic mutation is most strongly associated with familial medullary thyroid carcinoma as part of MEN type 2A?
PAX8-PPARγ fusion gene
RET proto-oncogene mutation
APC gene mutation
PTEN gene mutation
87
Which of the following is the immediate response of a blood vessel to injury?
Immediate formation of insoluble, crosslinked fibrin
Reflex Vasoconstriction
Release of tissue factor plasminogen activator
Exposure of the subendothelial von Willebrand factor protein
88
What is the principal cause of atrial fibrillation in patients with mitral stenosis?
Pulmonary artery hypertension
Myocardial fibrosis of the left atrial wall
Left ventricular hypertrophy
Left atrial dilation due to increased pressure
89
The ff are sustained genetic ventricular arrhythmias except
Arrhythmogenic RV cardiomyopathy
Cathecolaminergic polymorphic VT
Long QT syndrome
Brugada syndrome
90
A restrictive deficit ILD is typified by
Reduced TLC, FEV1 and FVC
Increased TLC, FEV1 and FVC
NOTA
Reduced FEV1 to FVC ratio
91
YMDD mutations in the HBV polymerase motif renders resistance to this antiviral drug against Hepatitis B.
Lamivudine
Entecavir
Tenofovir
Interferon gamma
92
Screening recommendation for colorectal cancer?
Fecal occult blood testing annually
CEA quarterly
Colonoscopy every 10 years
Fecal occult testing annually or flexible sigmoidoscopy every 5 years
93
Which of the following is the recommended next diagnostic modality for the patient?
Chest CT scan
Bronchoscopy
Pleural biopsy
VATS
94
What thoracic surgical procedure should you perform to create a Clagette window for bronchopleural fistula with empyema?
Robotic assisted thoracoscopic surgery
Open thoracotomy
Video assisted thoracoscopic surgery
Medical thoracoscopy
95
In CAH due to 21-hydroxylase deficiency, which of the following findings is most commonly seen?
Elevated aldosterone levels
Low plasma renin activity
Increased 17-hydroxyprogesterone levels
Elevated cortisol levels
96
Which of the following conditions is closely associated with gastroesophageal reflux disease?
Dental erosions
Sleep apnea
Recurrent aspiration pneumonia
Chronic sinusitis
97
supraventricular tachyarrhythmias presenting as an irregularly irregular rhythm with a narrow QRS on ECG
Atrial flutter
AV Nodal re-entrant tachycardia
Multifocal atrial tachycardia
Junctional tachycardia
98
If PF ADA is elevated, what is the recommended duration of anti TB treatment?
9 months
8 months
12 months
6 months
99
Which is true regarding pathophysiology of pneumonia:
TNF – increased purulent secretions
GCSF - peripheral leukocytosis
IL 8 – fever
IL 1 – edema
100
Which of the following is the most common cause of acute gastritis?
Alcohol
Infections
Infiltrative disease
Autoimmune disease
101
Silica, aluminum, and iron deposit in higher areas of the tracheobronchial tree. What is the size of these particles?
<0.1 um
10 um
<2.5 um
2.5-10 um
102
Inflammation of the ligamentous attachment onto the bones is called enthesitis an example of which is the following?
De Quervain’s tenosynovitis
plantar fasciitis
bunion
podagra
103
Most common cause of chylothorax
Elevated triglycerides
Mediastinal tumor
Drug-induced
Trauma
104
One ml of red cell is equivalent to how many mg of elemental iron?
1 gm
100 mg
10 mg
1 mg
105
In the management of bronchial asthma, the goals of therapy includes which of the following?
Peak expiratory flow circadian variation <10%
Minimal chronic symptoms
Reduced frequency of nocturnal symptoms by 50%
Minimized use of rescue B2 agonist to not more than once a day
106
In patients with asymptomatic AS Vmax 4m/s and stage C (EF of 40%), best treatment to prevent mortality
optimal dose of enalapril
aortic valve replacement
beta blocker therapy
high dose statin
107
examples of vagal maneuvers used for the termination or slowing of supraventricular tachycardia, EXCEPT:
Carotid sinus massage
Raising the legs abruptly to increase venous return
Deep expiration with bearing down
Submerging the face in cold water
108
This structure is composed of a single layer of endothelial cells continuous with capillaries.
intima
pericytes
adventitia
vasa vasorum
109
What was the major advantage of ticagrelor demonstrated in the PLATO trial?
Decreased all-cause mortality without increased bleeding risk
No significant difference in cardiovascular outcomes
Reduction in non-fatal myocardial infarction but increased bleeding risk
Improved outcomes only in patients with diabetes
110
The term used for involvement of 2-4 joints commonly presented by reactive arthritis:
oligoarthritis
enthesitis
monoarthritis
polyarthritis
111
MRI of the breast would be recommended as a screening modality in the following women, EXCEPT:
history of breast cancer 8 years prior, detected through mammography
history of mediastinal lymphoma who underwent RT during her teenage years
A woman with very dense breasts
A woman who is positive for Cowden’s syndrome
112
Which of the following endoscopic findings require a biopsy due to increased risk of being malignant?
A 0.5 mm ulcer in the duodenum located within 2 cm from the pylorus
A 6 cm ulcer in the first portion of the duodenum
A 1 cm ulcer in the gastric fundus
A 3 cm ulcer in the second part of the duodenum
113
Which of the following was the primary composite outcome reduced by intensive treatment in the SPRINT trial?
Cardiovascular events and renal failure
Myocardial infarction, stroke, and cardiovascular death
All-cause mortality
Heart failure hospitalization, stroke, and cardiovascular death
114
Most common clinical presentation of Hemophilia A
Hematomas
CNS Hemorrhage
Hemarthroses
Asymptomatic
115
Which of the following is true regarding the DIG trial which evaluated the role of Digoxin in heart failure?
Digoxin showed a reduction in arrhythmias in the treatment group.
Digoxin showed a decrease in mortality in the treatment group.
Digoxin showed an improvement of quality of life in the treatment group.
Digoxin showed a reduction in the hospitalization in the treatment group.
116
Which of the following mutations is present in patients with Essential Thrombocythemia?
PML-RaRa
MPL
FLT3-ITD
BCR-ABL
117
Transudative Pleural effusion
Pulmonary embolization
Serum protein/pleural fluid gradient of more than 31 g/L
Uremia
Pleural fluid LDH more than 2/3 the normal upper limit for serum
118
This fluid should be avoided as resuscitation fluid because it increases risk of developing severe acute kidney injury.
lactate containing fluids
hydroxyethyl starch
Plain NSS
5% albumin solution
119
Which genetic mutation is most commonly associated with dilated cardiomyopathy (DCM)?
LMNA gene mutation encoding nuclear lamin
MYH7 gene mutation encoding beta-myosin heavy chain
TTN gene mutation encoding titin protein
SCN5A gene mutation encoding sodium channels
120
Catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (CPVT) is most commonly associated with mutations in which gene?
TGFBR2 encoding transforming growth factor receptor
RYR2 encoding the cardiac ryanodine receptor
ACTC1 encoding cardiac actin
MYH6 encoding alpha-myosin heavy chain
121
patients with PUD who DO NOT require endoscopic therapy and may receive only standard doses of proton pump inhibitors
34/M with adherent clot on upper endoscopy
32/F with a nonbleeding visible vessel on upper endoscopy
48/M with a flat pigmented spot on upper endoscopy
45/F with actively spurting blood vessel on upper endoscopy
122
This is the most common complaint in patients presenting with interstitial lung disease:
Dry cough
Progressive dyspnea most frequently at rest
Progressive dyspnea most frequently with exertion
Cough with hemoptysis
123
Which of the following can cause acute mitral regurgitation?
HCM with systolic anterior motion of the mitral valve
Mitral valve prolapse
Atrial functional MR
Papillary muscle rupture in the setting of an acute myocardial infarction
124
Which of the following is a risk factor for early deterioration in CAP?
Hypoxemia (arterial saturation < 94%)
Anemia
Hypernatremia
Hypoalbuminemia
125
lobar PNA phase characterized by predominance of macrophage, debris already cleared and inflammatory response resolved
resolution
edema
gray hepatization
red hepatization
126
Which of the following tests the extrinsic and common pathways of secondary coagulation?
Activated partial thromboplastin time
Clotting time
Bleeding time
Prothrombin time
127
Which of the following medications can cause hypercalcemia?
Metformin
Gabapentin
Albuterol
Hydrochlorothiazide
128
The duration of symptoms that is considered chronic is
> 4 weeks
> 5 weeks
> 8 weeks
> 6 weeks
129
Most common type of anemia
Hyperproliferative anemias
Hemolytic anemias
Hypoproliferative anemias
Autoimmune anemias
130
rare gastropathy characterized by large, tortuous mucosal folds most prominent in the body and fundus sparing the antrum
Familial polyposis syndrome
Menetrier’s disease
Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
Gastritis polyposa profunda
131
Which of the following conditions is characterized by mutations in the NOTCH1 gene leading to aortic valve disease?
Bicuspid aortic valve
Loeys-Dietz syndrome
Marfan syndrome
Familial thoracic aortic aneurysm
132
According to 2024 ADA, the medication preferred for patients with type 2 diabetes and established ASCVD
sulfonylurea
DPP4 inhibitor
Thiazolidinedione
GLP-1 inhibitor
133
A deficiency in this enzyme is most strongly linked to the pathogenesis of chronic granulomatous disease?
Myeloperoxidase
Catalase
Superoxide dismutase
NADPH oxidase
134
Which of the following factor is deficient in Hemophilia A?
Factor VIII
Factor IX
Factor VII
Factor XIII
135
Which of the following best describes lower gastrointestinal bleeding caused by diverticular disease?
only occasionally hemodynamically significant but may be overt occult
Intermittent and causes only minor bleeding and pain
Abrupt, usually painless, and sometimes massive
Chronic and usually occult
136
Which of the following drugs produces predictable and dose-related hepatic injury?
Ciprofloxacin
Androgenic steroids
Amoxicillin-clavulanate
Isoniazid
137
Which of the following accounts for most cases of dyspepsia among the general population?
Functional dyspepsia
Peptic ulcer disease
Malignancy
Gastroesophageal reflux disease
138
In chronic thromboembolic disease, what is the primary mechanism of elevated pulmonary artery pressures?
Hypoxic vasoconstriction
Increased cardiac output
Intravascular hemolysis
Vascular remodeling with increased pulmonary vascular resistance
139
In hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, which of the following findings is most commonly associated with sudden cardiac death?
Myocyte disarray and fibrosis
Left ventricular outflow tract obstruction
Mitral regurgitation
Non-sustained ventricular tachycardia
140
Which of the following is the key pathophysiological mechanism underlying hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy?
LVOT obstruction due to septal hypertrophy and SAM of the mitral valve
Increased myocardial oxygen demand due to subendocardial ischemia
Impaired myocardial relaxation and reduced compliance
Dilatation of the left ventricle with decreased myocardial contractility
141
Which of the following is the best way to initially assess a patient with gastrointestinal bleeding?
Measurement of heart rate and blood pressure
Angiography
Emergency upper GI endoscopy
STAT hemoglobin and hematocrit measurements
142
Which of the following factors is most critical for determining the prognosis of a patient with acute aortic dissection?
Extent of dissection and involvement of branch vessels
Presence of a bicuspid aortic valve
Hypertension at presentation
Underlying atherosclerosis
143
Accelerated Idioventricular rhythm except;
Often asymptomatic and stable hemodynamically
3 or more bears slower than 100 beats per min
Common during acute MI
Mechanism is automaticity
144
Which of the following organisms has been used to treat IBD?
Yersinia spp.
Bifidobacterium spp.
Campylobacter spp.
Escherichia spp.
145
In the RE-LY trial, what advantage did dabigatran demonstrate over warfarin in atrial fibrillation?
Superior reduction in stroke risk with lower intracranial bleeding rates
No significant difference in stroke or bleeding risk
Superior reduction in ischemic stroke and equivalent major bleeding risk
Reduced all-cause mortality but increased gastrointestinal bleeding
146
cytokine with the most prominent role in the pathogenesis of RA by promoting synovial inflammation and joint damage?
IL-10
IL-4
TNF-α
IFN-γ
147
Hinchey classification for a perforated diverticulitis that has closed spontaneously but with distant abscess formation
Stage I
Stage III
Stage IV
Stage II
148
potent antiretroviral agent highly active against both wild-type and lamivudine-resistant HBV
Interferon
Entecavir
Telbivudine
Tenofovir
149
Which metabolic disturbance is most strongly associated with the development of nonalcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH)?
Hyperlipidemia
Hyperuricemia
Hypoglycemia
Insulin resistance
150
Site of iron absorption
Jejunum
Duodenum
Stomach
Ileum
151
A patient with acute hepatitis should undergo which serologic tests for initial screening?
HBsAg, HBV-DNA, and HCV RNA
HBsAg, Anti-Hbs, IgM anti-HAV, HCV RNA, and ant-HDV
HBsAg, IgM anti-HAV, IgM anti-HBc, and anti-HCV
HBsAg and Anti-HCV
152
Treatment for primary myelofibrosis patients with massive splenomegaly
Splenectomy
Ruxolitinib
Hydroxyurea
Splenic irradiation
153
Polyp with the highest probability of becoming malignant?
Pedunculated large polyps
Tubular large adenomas
Villous large adenomas
Pedunculated small polyps
154
Which of the following mechanisms underlies the pathophysiology of exercise-induced bronchoconstriction in asthma?
Hypoxia-induced vasoconstriction
Inflammatory cytokine activation
Heat and water loss from the airways during exercise
Vagal-mediated bronchospasm
155
Correct of categories of PH EXCEPT:
Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension - WHO Group I PH
PH associated with lung disease – WHO Group III PH
PH associated with Left Heart Disease - WHO Group II PH
PH associated with chronic thromboembolic disease – WHO Group V PH
156
First available prostanoid for PAH delivered as a continuous IV infusion and improves functional capacity & survival
Selexipeg
Iloprost
Bosentan
Epoprostenol
157
most seen in COPD patients categorized as GOLD Stage IV
pulmonary fibrosis
pulmonary hypertension
pulmonary edema
pulmonary embolism
158
The following are considered TRUE regarding treatment for cryptogenic organizing pneumonia, EXCEPT:
Alternate cytotoxic or biologic therapies can be helpful
Long-term therapy is needed in patients with secondary forms of the disease
Corticosteroid use for at least 6 months as relapse rates are high
Antifibrotic therapy can slow decline of lung function
159
In patients with asymptomatic AS Vmax 4m/s and stage C (EF of 40%), best treatment to prevent mortality
aortic valve replacement
beta blocker therapy
optimal dose of enalapril
high dose statin
160
Gold standard for diagnosis and assessment of disease severity of PH
Echocardiogram with bubbles study
Invasive hemodynamic monitoring
Cardiopulmonary exercise test
Right heart catheterization
161
A 26/M finished a distance of 21K run in 2 hrs, took only few sips of water and a power drink. Expected body response?
Volume status has no effect on AVP response
AVP secretion is suppressed
Once systemic osmolality increases beyond 200 mOsm/kg, AVP will be released
If osmolality reaches 310 mOsm/kg, thirst will be stimulated
162
Which of the following choices is a cause of pre-hepatic portal hypertension?
Splenic vein thrombosis
Schistosomiasis
Hepatic sinusoidal obstruction
Alcoholic hepatitis
163
diastolic murmur heard best in the 3rd ICS along the left sternal border intensified by strenuous and sustained handgrip
AS
MR
MS
AR
164
The FLAME study compared indacaterol/glycopyrronium to salmeterol/fluticasone in COPD. What was the primary finding?
LABA/ICS combination was associated with fewer side effects
LABA/LAMA combination showed no difference compared to LABA/ICS
LABA/ICS combination was superior in reducing COPD hospitalizations
LABA/LAMA combination was more effective in reducing COPD exacerbations
165
Causes of LQTS and Torsade’s except:
Hypomagnesemia
Hydroxychloroquine
Quinidine
Penicillin
166
In Eisenmenger syndrome, which of the following is the primary physiological process responsible for cyanosis?
Decreased cardiac output leading to systemic hypoperfusion
Right-to-left shunting due to increased pulmonary vascular resistance
Left ventricular failure with pulmonary edema
Pulmonary vasoconstriction secondary to hypoxia
167
NOT a common cause small-intestinal gastrointestinal bleeding among patients above the age of 40 years
Vascular ectasias
Meckel’s diverticulum
NSAID-induced erosions and ulcers
neoplasms
168
colorectal cancer prevention strategy for patients with long-standing ulcerative pancolitis or Crohn’s colitis
Colonoscopy on diagnosis then subsequent colonoscopy based on findings
Colonoscopy with biopsies every 1-2 years
Colonoscopy every 10 years
Colonoscopy every 5 years
169
Which of the following aminotransferase pattern is interpreted correctly?
ALT is twice elevated in alcoholic liver disease
ALT of > 1000 IU may suggest acute phase of choledocholithiasis
AST: ALT ratio of >1 may suggest non-alcoholic fatty liver disease
AST less than or equal to ALT suggest and acute hepatocellular disorder
170
72M with confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia. His history reveals alcohol use disorder. Which is most appropriate?
Initiation of a high-protein diet
Administration of thiamine
Oral vitamin B12
Intravenous dextrose
171
Which of the following causes most cases of upper gastrointestinal bleeding?
Mallory-Weiss tears
esophageal varices
Vascular ectasias
peptic ulcers
172
1.Which laboratory parameter increases the likelihood of a cholestasis?
two-fold elevation of alkaline phosphatase
(+) 5’-nucleotidase in an isolated alkaline phosphatase elevation
elevated gamma glutamyl transpeptidase is more specific
ten-fold increase of aspartate aminotransferase
173
Which of the following is the most accurate diagnostic test for acromegaly?
Serum prolactin concentration
IGF-1 levels and glucose suppression test
Random serum growth hormone concentration
Pituitary MRI
174
Which of the following is TRUE regarding cor pulmonale?
The prognosis for cor pulmonale rarely worsens
Almost all patients with COPD would develop cor pulmonale
All of the above
May be subclinical in compensated individuals
175
In normal individuals, FEV1 reaches a lifetime peak at which age?
20
25
30
45
176
The following is compatible with an articular source of pain:
pain on passive range of motion only
pain on active range of motion only
localized pain/tenderness
pain on active and passive ROM
177
In a patient with ARDS, which ventilatory strategy has been shown to improve survival?
High-frequency oscillatory ventilation
Prone ventilation alone without adjusting tidal volumes
Low tidal volume ventilation (lung-protective strategy)
High tidal volume ventilation
178
A patient with chronic hepatitis should undergo which serologic tests for initial screening?
HBsAg and Anti-HCV
HBsAg, Anti-Hbs, IgM anti-HAV, HCV RNA, and ant-HDV
HBsAg, IgM anti-HAV, IgM anti-HBc, and anti-HCV
HBsAg, HBV-DNA, and HCV RNA
179
Causes of hypocalcemia, EXCEPT:
Hypomagnesemia
Lymphomas
Total parenteral nutrition
Acute pancreatitis
180
Criteria for complete remission for acute leukemia patients given induction chemotherapy:
Hemoglobin >/= 10 g/dL
Platelet count >/= 150,000
Bone marrow blast <5%
ANC >/= 1500
181
Mitral valve prolapse is most commonly associated with what valvular abnormality?
AS
MR
MS
AR
182
NOT included in the Rome IV diagnostic criteria for irritable bowel syndrome
Abdominal pain related to defecation
Recurrent abdominal pain
Abdominal pain associated with change in from and frequency of stool
Presence of malnutrition
183
Which of the following statements best describes primary hemostasis?
Platelets change their shape during platelet aggregation
exposed subendothelial collagen and vWF bind with circulating platelets
Endothelin is released from platelet granules during platelet activation
activation of platelet gp1B receptor binds with circulating fibrinogen
184
Which of the following is the most characteristic electrocardiographic finding in pericarditis?
ST-segment depression in leads I and AVL
Low voltage in precordial leads
ST-segment elevation with PR-segment depression
Persistent ST-segment elevation and Q waves
185
Transudative Pleural effusion
Serum protein/pleural fluid gradient of more than 31 g/L
Pulmonary embolization
Uremia
Pleural fluid LDH more than 2/3 the normal upper limit for serum
186
a patient with splenomegaly, fatigue, weight loss, and PBS with teardrop-shaped cells, NRBCs, myelocytes, metamyelocytes
Chronic neutrophilic leukemia
Polycythemia vera
Primary myelofibrosis
Essential thrombocythemia
187
Genetic abnormalities in the PKP2 gene encoding plakophilin-2 are most strongly linked to which cardiac syndrome?
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)
Restrictive cardiomyopathy
Takotsubo cardiomyopathy
Arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy (ARVC)
188
Most common clinical presentation of severe form of Hemophilia A
Hemarthroses
Hematomas
CNS Hemorrhage
Asymptomatic
189
Mutations in the FBN1 gene are characteristic of which genetic syndrome associated with cardiac abnormalities?
Loeys-Dietz syndrome
Turner syndrome
Marfan syndrome
Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
190
metabolic abnormality NOT associated with ileus
Hypomagnesemia
Hyperglycemia
Hypernatremia
Hypokalemia
191
In long QT syndrome, ion channel mutation most frequently implicated in inherited forms of the disease
Sodium channel (SCN5A)
Chloride channel (CFTR)
Potassium channel (KCNQ1 or HERG)
Calcium channel (CACNA1C)
192
Treatment of idiopathic arrhythmias except;
Adenosine infusion
Catheter ablation
Avoidance of stimulants such as caffeine or alcohol
Beta blockers or NDHP calcium channel blockers
193
an example of the a long-acting Beta agonist
Indacaterol
Formoterol
Terbutaline
Tiotropium
194
The airway may collapse at different sites EXCEPT:
Trachea
Lateral pharyngeal walls
Epiglottis
Tongue base
195
has the least propensity to develop massive hepatic necrosis
Hepatitis D
Hepatitis B
Hepatitis A
Hepatitis C
196
The hallmark of primary hyperparathyroidism includes which of the following biochemical abnormalities?
Elevated calcium, elevated phosphorus, and low parathyroid hormone
Elevated calcium, low phosphorus, and elevated parathyroid hormone
Low calcium, high phosphorus, and elevated parathyroid hormone
Low calcium, high phosphorus, and low parathyroid hormone
197
associated with mutations in genes encoding sarcoplasmic reticulum calcium-handling proteins such as CASQ2 and RYR2
Arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy (ARVC)
Catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (CPVT)
Long QT syndrome
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)
198
Standard medical therapy with highest level of evidence for efficacy.
Uvulopalatopharyngoplasty
Oral appliances
Upper airway neurostimulation
Continuous positive airway pressure
199
NOT a function of the endothelial cell within the blood vessels
antioxidant
calcium spark
selective permeability
antiproliferative
200
What bacterial growth should raise concern for infection, even in the setting of poor sputum samples?
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Candida albicans
Legionella
Pneumocystis