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HA Final Exam Quiz Flashcards | StudBud
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HA Final Exam Quiz
HA Final Exam Quiz
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Questions
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Answers
1
Brain tissue of the temporal lobe herniates through the tentorial notch. Identify this type of herniation.
Cingulate
Uncal
Transtentorial
Infratentorial
2
Select the abnormal value(s):
EF 35%
CI 3L/min/m2
MAP 59 mmHg
CO 5L
3
Patient has BP 185/65, HR 54, irregular respiratory pattern, UO of 2 L in last hour, & projectile vomiting. Suspect?
Bowel obstruction
Decreased ICP
Increased ICP
4
What is the immediate intervention for DIC?
Fresh Frozen Plasma
Broad spectrum antibiotics
PRBC
TPA
5
Pt comes in for syncope after playing in the sun all day. How will you position them?
Supine with legs extended
Sit them up in high fowlers
Flat on the ground with legs elevated
Prone with legs elevated
6
CPP of 50 mmHg means the brain lost autoregulation.
False
True
7
Select all that apply to Type I respiratory failure:
treat with increased RR
PaO2 < 60
PaCO2 > 45
treat with increased FiO2
8
External ventricular drain transducer is placed at (SATA):
Foramen magnum
Foramen of Monro
Foramen ovale
Tragus of the ear
9
Management of CKD includes (SATA):
Administration of phosphate
Administration of Epogen
Fluid restriction
Protein restriction
10
A patient with GCS score of 8 should be intubated for MV.
False
True
11
What is the first medication to be used in symptomatic bradycardia?
Atropine
Epi
Levo
Amiodarone
12
A pt has total irreversible failure of the cardiorespiratory system. What does this define?
Death
Impending death
Increased CVP
Agonal stage
13
How would you position your patient who came to ER with a broken femur and suddenly became dyspneic?
High Fowler
Left lateral
Trendelenburg
Recovery
14
How would hypothermia affect the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve?
Left shift
Right shift
15
You're assessing the pt’s response to interventions & notice their HR is 70 and their O2sat is 98. What does this mean?
The pt is getting better
The pt’s medications are adversely interacting
You need to call rapid response ASAP
Call the HCP and report your findings
16
What is the optimal time to begin thrombolytic therapy?
3-4 hours after event
5-6 hours after event
7-8 hours after event
2-3 hours after event
17
You notice that the patient is trying to pull out their ETT and are in respiratory distress. Which med will you adjust?
Titrate propofol
Discontinue heparin drip
This is beyond your scope of practice, call HCP
Administer Kayexalate
18
A pt has distributive shock. What is the first line treatment?
Obtain blood cultures and administer antibiotics STAT
Call rapid response STAT
Obtain blood cultures and wait for the results before giving ABX
Administer potassium via IVPB
19
A conditioning treatment necessary to prepare a patient for the HSCT usually includes which procedure? (SATA)
Administration of erythropoietin
High-dose chemotherapy
Administration of growth factors
Total body irradiation
20
A patient with CVA arrives in your ED, you should initiate t-PA immediately.
True
False
21
The head strikes an immovable object. What type of injury is this?
Rotational
Acceleration
Deceleration
22
Best practices to prevent VAP (SATA):
Administer Protonix
Elevate HOB to 30 degrees
Daily sedation vacations
CHG oral care Q4H
23
Where should the tip of ET tube be located?
At the carina
1 cm past the epiglottis
3-5 cm above the carina
3-5 cm below the carina
24
Where should the tip of CVC be positioned?
In the left atrium
In the right atrium
cavo-atrial junction
your mom
25
Your assessment of a pt. shows decreased BP, urinated 15 mL in the past 7 hrs, and are lethargic. What do you do first?
Administer crystalloids
Turn the temp in the room down to 65 degrees in the room
Administer supplemental oxygen
Talk to the family about end of life care
26
Normal lab values in a trauma (SATA)?
Systemic mixed venous O2 sat 65-80%
MAP < 65
Gastric pH >7.35
Lactate <2.2 mmol/L
27
Your patient has hypertensive urgency, what do you do (SATA)?
Rapidly reduce BP
Give IV antihypertensives
Decrease BP GRADUALLY over 12-24 hours to lower BP target
Give oral antihypertensiveS
28
Which transplant drug causes renal toxicity?
Tacrolimus
Prednisone
29
Patients with Stage 5 CKD are considered to have ESRD requiring HD treatment. Select diagnostic GFR?
67
29
14
95
30
Cor pulmonale leads to what type of heart failure?
Right-sided heart failure
Left-sided heart failure
31
What lab values/ signs will you see with heart failure?
High BNP
Reduced EF
MAP > 70
High BUN
32
What is the #1 S/S of shock? (Dr. Calvin <3s this)
Decreased urine output
Sundowning
Decreased work of breathing
Increased thirst
33
Defibrillation is used as a treatment for (SATA):
V fib
A fib
V tach in a pulseless patient
Asystole
34
Which intervention(s) is(are) warranted for PAWP of 2 mmHg?
Administer nitroglycerin
Administer albumin
Diuresis
Administer LR
35
Signs of the basilar skull fracture (SATA):
Periorbital ecchymosis
CN VII paralysis
Halo sign
Battle’s sign
36
Your patient has the SVR of 400. Select the appropriate condition & intervention:
Hypothermia
Administer Levophed
Shock
Administer Lasix
37
What are the most important things a nurse should consider when caring for a brain dead pt? SATA
Do frequent respiratory assessments
Maintain organ function after death
Start talking about hospice care with the family
Maintain oxygenation and perfusion needs of organs
38
Cavitation brain injury is associated with:
Gunshot wound
Low-velocity blunt trauma
Head rotates on its axis
39
Patient’s potassium is 6.1, what could you expect to see on their EKG?
Prolonged PR and QT intervals
Prolonged ST segment
Peaked T wave
Prominent U waves
40
Your patient’s result of the Train of Four test is 4/4. What does this mean?
The patient is not sufficiently sedated
The patient is dead
The patient is overly sedated
The patient is adequately sedated
41
Patients experience increased afterload during shock.
True
False
42
What is the primary indicator for kidney transplant?
ESRD
Stage 6 renalitis
Cirrhosis
Chronic HTN
43
These are ARDS clinical findings (SATA):
Refractory to oxygen therapy
PaO2/FiO2 ratio of 180
Extremely low V/Q or shunt
Pulmonary edema with BNP level of 575pg/mL
44
Rescue therapy for life-threatening hypoxemia:
Nitric oxide
Pressors
45
SCI at C4 level requires mechanical ventilation.
False
True
46
Your patient’s chest tube comes out, what do you do (SATA)?
Hold pressure on the opening
Call the HCP immediately
Cover the incision with sterile occlusive dressing taped on 3 sides
Assess for paradoxical movements
47
What is the maximum oxygen flow rate that nasal cannula can deliver?
6L
8L
4L
2L
48
This noninvasive ventilation modality requires a ventilator and delivers different inspiratory & expiratory pressures:
BIPAP
CPAP
49
Thrombolytic therapy may disrupt the blood-brain barrier.
True
False
50
Treatment for status asthmaticus (SATA):
Inhalation of heliox & oxygen mixture
Sympathomimetic inhalation agent
Parasympathomimetic inhalation agent
Corticosteroids
51
A person is having MI in the middle of HEB. How would you position the patient while waiting for EMS to arrive?
Left Lateral
Supine with legs elevated
Sitting up leaning on you
52
These are normal findings for a functional chest drainage system (SATA):
Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber
Gentle intermittent bubbling in the water seal
Chest tube inserted at 4th/5th intercostal space
Fluid level is not tidaling in the water seal chamber
53
The yellow port of PA catheter is transduced.
True
False
54
Characteristics of epidural hematoma (SATA):
Slow venous bleed
Rapid arterial bleed
“Worst headache of pt’s life”
“Lucid interval”
55
Which mode of mechanical ventilation is associated with barotrauma?
Volume-controlled
Pressure-controlled
56
Signs of Cardiac Tamponade (SATA):
Muffled heart sounds
Low BP
High BP
Increased CVP
57
Select all that apply to PAWP:
Measurement taken at the end of expiration
Indirectly measures left-ventricle preload
Normal value is 15 mmHg
Measurement taken at the end of inspiration
58
Stroke volume is regulated by SATA:
Cardiac output
Peripheral resistance
End-diastolic volume
Contractility