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FLCC Paramedic Program Review Flashcards | StudBud
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FLCC Paramedic Program Review
FLCC Paramedic Program Review
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2024-2025 Program Final Review
Flashcards
179 cards
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Practice quiz
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Host live
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Questions
179
Answers
1
A 60 y/o female complains of an abrupt onset of the worst headache she has ever had. This is most indicative of what?
Cerebral thrombosis
Hemorrhagic stroke
Transient ischemic attack
Cerebral embolism
2
An inferior-wall MI is usually caused by occlusion of the _______ artery.
Right coronary
Left anterior descending
Left coronary
Circumflex
3
The tearing of the mucosa of the esophagus as the result of prolonged, violent vomiting is known as which condition?
Kerr's Sign
Crohn's Disease
Chronic Emesis Pressure Syndrome
Mallory-Weiss Syndrome
4
You need to give 1.5 mg/kg lidocaine to a patient that weights 176 lbs. The vials are 100 mg in 10 mL. You need ? mLs?
12 mL
10 mL
20.65 mL
4 mL
5
A 15 y/o male has c/c of SOB. He states he has taken "six hits" of his Ventolin inhaler. What side effects may occur?
Laryngospasm
Muscle tremors
Swelling in the feet
Transient deafness
6
Which patient is a "priority" patient?
25-year-old with an open humerus fracture
76-year-old who is pale with c/c chest pain
68-year-old c/c chronic back pain
59-year-old with pink skin and c/c abdominal pain
7
The wrongful act that gives rise to a civil suit is called:
liability
damage
a tort
negligence
8
Which is a cause of PEA that is correctable in the field?
Ischemia during resuscitation
Pulmonary embolism
Myocardial infarction
Tension pneumothorax
9
What does the ST segment reflect?
Early repolarization of the ventricles
Absolute refractory period of the ventricles
Time of ventricular contraction
Time delay for repolarization of the ventricles
10
The strength of someone's peripheral pulses is related to:
Heart rate and preload
Cardiac output and heart rate
Physical size and blood pressure
Stroke volume and pulse pressure
11
Stimulation of the gag reflex can result in all of the following, EXCEPT:
Bradycardia
Increased ICP
Vomiting
Tachycardia
12
A 100 lb violent young woman who requires 4 large paramedics to subdue/contain her is MOST likely under influence of:
LSD
PCP
Ketamine
Mescaline
13
What kind of leads are leads II and III?
Superior
Precordial
Inferior
Lateral
14
Which medication would be BEST to treat Torsades de Pointes?
Calcium Chloride, 1 mg
Magnesium Sulfate, 2 mg
Sodium Bicarbonate, mEq IV
Epinephrine 1:10,000, 1 mg
15
What is a clinical sign or irreversible shock?
Confusion
Frank hypotension
Tachycardia
Hot, dry skin
16
Which later of the blood vessel is made up of elastic fibers and muscle, and provides for strength and contractility?
Arterial lumen
Tunica intima
Tunica adventitia
Tunica media
17
The 2 types of sympathetic receptors in the body are:
Iatrogenic and dopaminergic
Cholinergic and inhibitory
Dopaminergic and adrenergic
Adrenergic and cholinergic
18
Normally, the primary stimulus to breathe is a ___________ in the blood.
Low concentration of CO2
High concentration of O2
High concentration of CO2
Low concentration of O2
19
What is the most common finding on auscultation of lung sounds in a patient with a pulmonary embolism?
Wheezes
Rales
Rhonchi
Clear
20
How should children with bradycardia that is not caused by heart block or increased vagal tone initially be treated?
Isoproterenol
Epinephrine
Dopamine
Atropine
21
During a significant drop in blood glucose level, what hormone is released by adrenal medulla to promote glycogenolysis?
Insulin
Epinephrine
Aldosterone
Progesterone
22
What is parasympathetic control of the heart provided by?
Vagus nerve
4th Cranial Nerve
Subclavian nerve
Phrenic nerve
23
Under normal conditions, which is the dominant pacemaker of the heart?
Purkinje fibers
SA node
AV node
Bundle of His
24
The MOST common etiology for bradycardia in a neonate is:
Occult hypovolemia
Increased vagal tone
Untreated acidosis
Severe hypoxia
25
How do patients typically describe the pain of an aortic dissection?
Ripping or tearing
Crushing pressure
Mild and tolerable
Dull and throbbing
26
In a 12-lead ECG, what cardiac position are the leads V1 and V2?
Lateral
Inferior
Anterior
Septal
27
Biliary pain can often be referred to which locality?
Lower back
Right subscapular area
Neck and jaw
Left flank
28
Nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Pancuronium bromide
Rocuronium bromide
Succinylcholine chloride
Vecuronium bromide
29
A serious systemic bacterial infection most commonly causes what type of shock?
Psychogenic shock
Anaphylactic shock
Hypovolemic shock
Septic shock
30
When do patients with emphysema have increased airway resistance?
Inspiration during an exacerbation
Expiration
Inspiration
Inspiration and expiration
31
Which medication is an example of a beta-2 agonist?
Albuterol
Aminophylline
Ipratropium
Labetalol
32
Duration of the QRS complex should be less than:
0.14 seconds
0.16 seconds
0.12 seconds
0.10 seconds
33
Vasoconstriction occurs following stimulation of:
beta 2 receptors
beta 1 receptors
alpha receptors
none of the above
34
Foreign body airway obstruction is defined as a problem with what?
Oxygenation
Ventilation
Diffusion
Perfusion
35
National standard curricula for EMS providers are established by which agency?
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration
Department of Health and Human Services
Federal Emergency Management Agency
Occupational Safety and Health Administration
36
A patient who cannot distinguish if the palm of his hand is facing up or down is having difficulty with what function?
Parasympathetic
Sensory
Proprioception
Somatomotor
37
On an electrocardiogram, how will pulseless electrical activity present?
Asystole
Any electrical activity other than V-fib/tach (with no pulse)
Ventricular fibrillation
Ventricular tachycardia
38
A drug's ability to join with a receptor is known as:
Affinity
Agonist
Ability
Selective response
39
Adults who fall more than 15 feet generally land on which locality?
Head
Hands and knees
Feet
Outstretched hands
40
What does the Ryan White Comprehensive AIDS Resource Emergency Act of 1990 require?
EMS providers to be tested annually for HIV
Paramedics with infectious disease to be given no-patient-contact jobs
Emergency responders cannot be discriminated against based on HIV status
Emergency responders to be notified if they have been exposed to a disease
41
The MOST acute complication associated with large body surface area burns is:
hyperthermia
infection
hypothermia
hypovolemia
42
What type of hematoma is associated with a tear in the middle meningeal artery?
Diffuse axonal injury
Epidural hematoma
Subarachnoid hemorrhage
Subdural hematoma
43
If a woman has been pregnant 3 times, had 2 spontaneous abortions, and carried 1 baby to term, you should document as:
G3A2P1
G1A2P5
G5A2P1
G1A2P3
44
Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) is used to treat allergic reactions because it:
reverses the vasodilatory and broncho-constrictive effects
binds to H2 receptors and blocks histamine release
blocks histamine effects at the H1 receptor sites
destroys histamines and blocks their further release
45
A patient goes into a comatose state slowly, has no focal findings, and preserved pupillary functions. This is likely:
Psychogenic
Structural
Hysterical
Metabolic
46
Which statement is correct regarding the onset of mild chest pain during dialysis?
The pain has probably resulted from the transient hypotension and hypoxemia
An air embolus has likely traveled to the heart
The patient is most likely experiencing a myocardial infarction
The chest pain is caused by hypokalemia associated with pre-dialysis states
47
What is the most abundant type of muscle in the body?
Involuntary (cardiac) muscle
Voluntary (smooth) muscle
Involuntary (smooth) muscle
Voluntary (skeletal) muscle
48
A small blood clot enters the right ventricle. Where will it travel next?
Pulmonary artery
Pulmonary vein
Aorta
SVC
49
Venlafaxine is the generic name for:
Librium
Lexapro
Effexor
Neurontin
50
Nicotinic receptors are found at the neuromuscular junction of which muscles?
Skeletal
GI tract
Smooth
Cardiac
51
Which is a sign of cardiac tamponade?
Muffled heart tones
Flat neck veins
Decreased venous pressure
Bradycardia
52
Jugular venous distention during a tension pneumothorax:
manifests early as air accumulates in the pleural space
is caused by blood accumulation in the vena cava
indicates significant increase in atrial preload
occurs before a unilateral absence of breath sounds
53
What is the single best indicator of a serious neurological condition?
Retrograde amnesia
Rapidly worsening level of consciousness
Increased intracranial pressure
Hypoxia
54
Treatment for sinus tachycardia should focus on:
administering IV fluid boluses
decreasing HR
correcting the underlying cause
relieving pain and anxiety
55
A pheochromocytoma:
Should be suspected in any uninjured person with severe hypotension
A renal tumor that causes severe hypertension due to release of aldosterone
An adrenal tumor that produces excess amounts of epinephrine and norepi
A malignant tumor of the pancreas that causes excessive insulin production
56
Which fracture site can hold the most blood?
Pelvis
Humerus
Femur
Tibia
57
The pancreas, liver, and gallbladder connect to the digestive system at the:
Ilium
Jejunum
Duodenum
Secum
58
A patient with pneumonia reports coughing up blood-tinged sputum. What should paramedics suspect?
Pneumococcal pneumonia
Aspiration pneumonia
Bacterial pneumonia
Viral pneumonia
59
Which treatment should be performed en route to the hospital for a patient with massive head trauma?
Spinal immobilization
Endotracheal intubation
Intravenous therapy
O2 administration
60
Why would a diabetic patient exhibit Kussmaul's breathing?
To reverse respiratory acidosis
To compensate for metabolic acidosis
To create a respiratory alkalosis
To create a metabolic alkalosis
61
The last sensation thought to be lost with unconsciousness and the first to be regained with consciousness is?
Pain
Sight
Smell
Hearing
62
This occurs when muscles are crushed beyond repair, tissue necrosis develops and causes the release of harmful products.
Necrotizing fasciitis
Myoglobinuria
Hyperphosphatemia
Rhabdomyolysis
63
Necrosis of tissue caused by an anaerobic, toxin-producing bacterium is called:
Tetanus
Lymphedema
Gangrene
Fasciitis
64
An infant with pink body and blue extremities, pulse rate of 90 bpm, a strong cry, and active movement has an APGAR of:
8
7
6
5
65
Cardiovascular effects of anaphylaxis include:
Peripheral vasoconstriction and cool skin
Irregular pulse, pallor, pruritus
Tachycardia, flushed skin, hypotension
Diaphoresis, bradycardia, edema
66
Along with the medulla, what part of the brain helps control breathing?
Cerebellum
Pons
Cerebrum
Thalamus
67
Bradycardia and hypotension following an overaggressive dialysis treatment are MOST indicative of:
Hyperkalemia
Air embolism
Hypovolemia
Hypokalemia
68
What does Addison's Disease cause a deficiency in?
Epinephrine and norepinephrine
Cortisol and aldosterone
Acetylcholine and dopamine
Insulin and glucagon
69
Which is true of abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA)?
AAA is commonly found above the renal arteries
AAA occurs most commonly in patients between age 35 and 50
AAA may be asymptomatic as long as it is stable
AAA is more common in women
70
What term describes the step in the legal process that involves the exchange of documents and taking of depositions?
Discovery
Disclosure
Trial
Summons
71
Decerebrate rigidity results from impairment of which structure?
Reflex arcs
Brain stem
Subcortical regions of the brain
Cerebral cortex
72
Intravenous drug users are at HIGHEST risk for developing Hepatitis:
D
C
A
B
73
Pulmonary edema will lead to what problem?
Diffusion
Perfusion
Ventilation
Oxygenation
74
The most ominous respiratory sign in a patient with anaphylactic shock is:
Labored tachypnea
Diminished lung sounds
Diffuse coarse crackles
Loud expiratory wheezing
75
The clinical presentation of a stimulant abuser includes:
Excitement, hypertension, tachycardia, and dilated pupils
Irregular pulse, hyperpyrexia, hypotension, and bradycardia
Somnolence, hypotension, bradycardia, and staggering gait
Hypotension, tachycardia, constricted pupils, and hypothermia
76
Injury mechanisms such as hangings typically cause a _______________ type spinal cord injury.
Distraction
Herniation
Subluxation
Axial loading
77
What may be a lethal treatment for a patient with a ventricular escape rhythm?
Dopamine
Atropine
Transcutaneous pacing
Lidocaine
78
A 27-year-old female has c/c of severe abdominal pain and spotting. She has not had a period for 8 wks. This is likely:
Endometriosis
Cystitis
Endometritis
Ectopic pregnancy
79
What does bradycardia with a pulmonary complaint represent?
A cardiac event and is not related to the pulmonary complaint
A sign that the patient is handling the event well
Less serious than tachycardia
An ominous sign of severe hypoxemia
80
Which vital signs are normal for a newborn?
BP of 70 mmHg systolic
HR of 60 bpm
RR of 25 breaths/min
Temp of 96.0 F
81
Cor pulmonale is MOST accurately defined as:
left heart failure secondary to mitral valve damage
increased preload caused by severe hypertension
right heart failure secondary to chronic lung disease
rupture of alveoli due to increased surface tension
82
Which medication best manages a patient in anaphylactic shock?
Diphenhydramine
Methylprednisolone
Epinephrine
Albuterol
83
What is the role of thrombin in clot formation?
Convert fibrinogen into fibrin threads to help form a blood clot
Activate platelets, causing them to adhere to one another
Cause conversion of platelets to prothrombin
Stimulate release of prothrombin activators
84
What is the following heart block?
2nd degree type II (Mobitz)
2nd degree type 1 (Wenckebach)
3rd degree (complete) HB
1st degree HB
85
You are intubating an apneic 12 y/o child who weighs 29 kg. Which ET tube size is most appropriate for this patient?
6 mm ET tube without a balloon cuff
4 mm ET tube with a balloon cuff
4 mm ET tube without a balloon cuff
6.5 mm ET tube with a balloon cuff
86
What is the correct dose for amiodarone when given in cardiac arrest (ventricular fibrillation or pulseless V-tach)?
300 mg IV
150 mg IV
50 mg IV
100 mg IV
87
What is this rhythm?
Wandering Atrial Pacemaker
Atrial fibrillation
Sinus Arrythmia
Atrial flutter
88
If a woman who is 35 weeks pregnant is placed in a supine position:
atrial preload may be markedly reduced
uterine circulation will increase exponentially
aortic compression will cause hypotension
a paradoxical bradycardia will occur
89
Changes in cardiac contractility may be induced by medications that have a positive or negative _______ effect.
Chronotropic
Vasoactive
Dromotropic
Inotropic
90
What is the basic functional unit of the kidney?
Glomerulus
Loop of Henle
Nephron
Bowman's Capsule
91
You're treating a 70 y/o male who has PSVT with palpitations and dizziness. Which med is most appropriate in IV bolus?
Adenosine, 6 mg
Lidocaine, 100 mg
Lopressor, 5 mg
Diphenhydramine, 25 mg
92
What might excessive positive intrathoracic pressure during an asthma attack lead to?
Excessively increased preload
Pulsus paradoxus
Hypocapnia
Hypertension
93
What is the valve between the right atrium and the right ventricle?
Mitral valve
Pulmonic valve
Semilunar valve
Tricuspid valve
94
The paramedic is unable to palpate a carotid pulse on a 39-year-old male. What is the next appropriate measure?
Attach an AED
Administer BVM ventilations
Start chest compressions
Perform head-tilt-chin-life
95
Compensatory respiratory alkalosis would MOST likely occur in a patient with:
acute insulin shock
metabolic acidosis
a pH of 7.50
chronic antacid ingestion
96
What is the most common site for thrombus formation leading to pulmonary embolism?
Bone marrow
Legs
Upper arm
Abdominal fat
97
What is the first upward deflection on an ECG reading?
R wave
P wave
T wave
Q wave
98
Of which branch is the circumflex artery?
Marginal artery
Left anterior descending artery
Left coronary artery
Right coronary artery
99
Ventricular depolarization results in contraction of the ventricles. This is illustrated on the EKG by which waveform?
T wave
QRS complex
P wave
PR interval
100
Which inherited disease causes slow but progressive degeneration of muscle fibers and usually causes death by age 12?
Polio
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)
Muscular dystrophy
Multiple sclerosis
101
Which drug is a synthetic catecholamine?
Dopamine
Norepinephrine
Levophed
Epinephrine
102
In an adult, the spinal cord terminates in what area?
Coccyx
T12
S1
L2
103
What does neurogenic shock caused by head injury create?
Peripheral vascular constriction
Decreased cardiac output
Hyperventilation syndrome
Peripheral vascular dilation
104
Paramedics observe a patient with a very round face, thick trunk, and extremely thin arms and legs. This is most likely:
HHNK
Myxedema
Cushing's Syndrome
Adrenal tumor
105
Which organ belongs to the immune system?
Liver
Tonsils
Kidneys
Thyroid
106
Radio systems utilizing radio signals to carry multiple streams of audio or data at the same time are referred to as:
Multiplex
Digital radio
Simplex
Duplex
107
Which lead is most helpful in identifying a ventricular rhythm?
Lead V1
Lead aVR
Lead V6
Lead aVL
108
If an infant/small child swallowed a rigid foreign body, he would MOST likely experience respiratory distress because:
when an infant or child is stressed, they tend to swallow a lot of air
a foreign body in the esophagus would cause reflux and aspiration
the feeling of a foreign body in the throat would cause severe anxiety
the esophageal foreign body can compress the relatively narrow trachea
109
In acute episodes of thyroid storm, what do symptoms resemble?
Nicotinic hyperactivity
Muscarinic hyperactivity
Adrenergic hyperactivity
Cholinergic hyperactivity
110
In what position should jugular vein distention in cardiac patients be evaluated?
Lying flat
Sitting straight up
Leaning forward
Head elevated at 45 degrees
111
What is an undesirable effect of atropine?
Decreased conduction through the SA node
Increased myocardial O2 demand
Increased HR
Ventricular conduction delays
112
A right axis shift on the ECG is noted when the ORS deflection has what characteristic?
Positive in leads I, II, and III
Negative in lead I, negative or positive in lead II, positive in lead III
Positive in leads I and II, but negative in lead III
Positive in lead I and negative in leads II and III
113
Fentanyl (Sublimaze) is a/an:
Butyrophenone sedative
Sedative-hypnotic drug
Narcotic analgesic
Benzodiazepine sedative
114
What nervous system mediates the alarm reaction phase of a stress response?
Central
Peripheral
Autonomic
Asomatic
115
Which is a cause of obstructive shock?
Peripheral vascular constriction
Tension pneumothorax
Deep vein thrombosis
Stenosis
116
If a patient has stopped breathing due to a spinal cord injury, which nerve is likely involved in the injury?
Trochlear nerve
Vagus nerve
Phrenic nerve
Brachial nerve
117
Which is a life-threatening respiratory abnormality?
Low O2 saturation
Crackles
Wheezing
Distended neck veins
118
Which injury is most likely to be limb threatening?
Fracture of the humerus
Subcondylar fracture of the elbow
Hip dislocation
Open tib-fib fracture
119
Which mnemonic device is helpful for remembering the common causes of altered mental status?
DCAP-BTLS
AVPU
AEIOU TIPS
OPQRST
120
Automaticity is MOST accurately defined as the ability of the heart to:
generate electrical impulses from the same site every time
generate its own electrical impulses without stimulation from nerves
increase or decrease its HR based on metabolic needs
spontaneously conduct an electrical impulse between cardiac cells
121
Which of the following injuries would MOST likely require transport to a Level I trauma center?
penetrating injury distal to the elbow or knee
superficial burns to an entire lower extremity
2+ proximal long bone fractures
lateral neck pain following a motor vehicle crash
122
After the electrical impulse leaves the SA node, where does it travel to next?
AV node
Purkinje fibers
Bundle of His
Ventricles
123
A 7 y/o African-American male with anemia presents with RUQ pain, low O2 sat, and priapism. These S/S suggest:
Sickle cell crisis
Traumatic injury
Appendicitis
Asthma attack
124
A woman is in the second stage of labor when:
contractions occur in 5 to 10 minute intervals
a gush of amniotic fluid pours from the vagina
the cervix is fully effaced and partially dilated
she feels a strong urge to move her bowels
125
What cell receptor is sought out by HIV?
B Cell
T Cell
Cell wall membrane
Nucleus of the cell
126
What is the most common cause of herniated intervertebral disks?
Arthritis
Improper lifting
Motor vehicle crashes
Degenerative disk disease
127
Cardiac-related chest pain is often palliated by:
nitroglycerin
mild exercise
stress
exertion
128
What would be the MOST appropriate medication for a pregnant woman suffering from eclampsia?
Magnesium, 4 g IV over 20 minutes
Dexamethasone, 10 mg IV/IM
Diphenhydramine, 50 mg IV/IM
Midazolam, 5 mg IV/IM
129
Your trauma patient is in hypovolemic shock due to blood loss. Which is MOST likely to occur from anaerobic metabolism?
Excess of CO2 at the cellular level
Lactic acid production
Excess of O2 at cellular level
Excess metabolic base
130
Q waves are considered pathological if they are:
greater than 0.02 seconds wide and consistently precede the R wave
present in a patient who is experiencing chest pressure or discomfort
not visible in leads I or II when the QRS gain sensitivity is increased
deeper than 1/3 the total height of the QRS complex in lead II
131
What does clubbing of the fingers indicate?
Hypercapnia
Long-standing chronic hypoxemia
Hypocapnia
Excess deoxygenated hemoglobin in the blood
132
What is a serious adverse effect of prolonged atrial fibrillation?
Chest pain
Blood clots
Vomiting
Bradycardia
133
Common signs and symptoms of preeclampsia include:
facial swelling, dysuria, and chest pain
edema, hypertension, and headache
ketones in the urine and rapid weight gain
weight loss, blurred vision, and diarrhea
134
Le Fort fractures are fractures of what part of the face?
Maxillary
Hard palate
Midface
Mandible
135
ECG analysis reveals each P wave in the tracing has a different shape. HR is 80 bpm. What rhythm should you suspect?
Wandering Atrial Pacemaker
1st degree heart block
P-P morphology
Sinus arrhythmia
136
Which of the following medications is a calcium channel blocker?
Cardizem
Capoten
Lanoxin
Metoprolol
137
What is the following rhythm?
Sinus Tachycardia
Normal Sinus Rhythm
Supraventricular Tachycardia
Ventricular Tachycardia
138
Cardiac output is influenced by:
Heart rate and/or stroke volume
Ejection fraction and heart rate
Heart rate
Stroke volume
139
Where are dissections of the aorta typically found?
Just past the curve of the aorta
In the abdominal section of the aorta
Near the renal arteries
In the ascending aorta
140
The mitral valve:
is a tricuspid valve located on the right side of the heart
is located on the higher-pressure side of the heart
prevents blood regurgitation into the left ventricle
separates the right atrium from the right ventricle
141
Metoprolol and atenolol are:
Selective beta-1 blockers
Beta agonists
Selective beta-2 blockers
General beta blockers
142
What is the reason hypoglycemic patients have rapid changes in their levels of consciousness?
Glucose blocks the transport of insulin
The brain metabolizes insulin too rapidly
The brain uses serum glucose only
Insulin blocks the transport of O2
143
When providing pain management, what is the correct dose of FENTANYL?
1-1.5 mcg/kg, max 200 mcg
1-1.5 mg/kg, max 200 mg
2.5-3 mcg/kg, max 300 mcg
2-2.5 mcg/kg, max 400 mcg
144
Which medication has a DIRECT blood thinning effect?
Plavix
Aspirin
Accupril
Warfarin
145
What is an advantage of BiPAP over CPAP?
BiPAP reduces the pressure applied when the patient exhales
BiPAP transmits positive pressure throughout the respiratory cycle
BiPAP can be applied with a face mask and doesn't require intubation
BiPAP can be used in spontaneously breathing patients
146
If a patient with MI presents with bradycardia and hypotension, which of the following is most likely the cause?
Vasodilation of peripheral blood vessels from sympathetic NS stimulation
Sympathetic NS response to anterior wall MI
Inability of ischemic sympathetic NS to maintain adequate HR and BP
Parasympathetic NS response to inferior wall MI
147
A 33-year-old male is complaining of cramping pain that varies in intensity. Which type of pain is he experiencing?
Somatic
Organ
Referred
Visceral
148
To increase cardiac output, what do children increase?
Contractility
Stroke volume
Preload
Heart rate
149
Per protocol, the correct dose for Dexamethasone (Decadron) is:
20 mg PO, IM, or IV
100 mg PO, IM, or IV
10 mg PO, IM, or IV
1 mg PO, IM, or IV
150
If an acutely burned patient is in shock in the prehospital setting:
avoid IV fluids unless systolic BP is below 80 mmHg
it is likely he or she is experiencing burn shock
you should look for another injury as the source of shock
administer a 250 mL bolus of normal saline and reassess
151
What is the following rhythm?
Torsades de Pointes
Ventricular Fibrillation
Ventricular Tachycardia
Atrial Fibrillation
152
You decide to give CPAP to your spontaneously breathing patient with dyspnea. What should the initial setting be?
greater than 10 cm H2O
between 1 and 5 cm H2O
between 5 and 10 cm H2O
between 1 and 3 cm H2O
153
Which is a typical finding with compartment syndrome?
Spasticity of the involved muscle groups
Pain seemingly out of proportion to the injury
No pain associated with passive stretching
Lack of tenderness to palpation
154
Which is a bipolar lead?
aVF
V1
aVR
Lead II
155
What term describes relaxation of the heart?
Refractory period
Propagation
Systole
Diastole
156
Fluid-refractory hypotension following a barbiturate overdose is treated MOST effectively with:
Calcium
Naloxone
Dopamine
Atropine
157
One major disadvantage of using the nasopharyngeal airway (NPA) is that:
They can only be used on an unconscious patient
They cannot be used on a conscious patient
They do not provide a secured airway
You cannot suction through them
158
One technique for interviewing a hostile patient is:
Talking to the patient while facing in another direction
Threatening to start an IV if the patient does not cooperate
Setting limits and boundaries with the patient
Leaving the patient alone to become calmer
159
How do all human cells (except reproductive cells) reproduce?
Regeneration
Mitosis
Cloning
Duplication
160
What organ(s) are at highest risk during a hypertensive crisis?
Liver
Eyes
Kidneys
Lungs
161
While treating a patient with elevated ICP, the BP drops from 200/140 to 100/60. What does this indicate?
Administration of dopamine or dobutamine is necessary
The brain has probably herniated
Medications administered to decrease swelling have taken effect
Hyperventilation at a rate of 40 breaths/min is necessary
162
The intrinsic rate for a ventricular pacemaker is _____ beats per minute.
60 to 100
20 to 40
100 to 150
40 to 60
163
What type of STEMI is seen in this 12-lead?
Anteroseptal MI
Inferior MI
Lateral MI
No STEMI
164
A 20-year-old female presents with a small foreign body in her R eye. How should the paramedic manage this patient?
Administer anti-steroidal medications
Attempt to remove the object
Wash the eye with normal saline
Instruct the patient to rub the area
165
An injection of immunoglobulin is an example of:
Active acquired immunity
Innate immunity
Native immunity
Passive acquired immunity
166
A Jacksonian is what type of seizure?
Grand mal seizure
Tonic-clonic seizure
Petit mal seizure
Partial seizure
167
What is the Circle of Willis?
Important reflex arc
Large grouping of neurons attached to the medulla
Safeguard to ensure continued blood supply to the brain
Sensory nerve that transmits directly to the brain
168
Which of the following patients is MOST likely to be considered competent to refuse transport?
20 y/o male who is A&Ox4 who stopped taking his lithium due to side effects
24 y/o male who is intoxicated and threatened to break his wife's neck
44 y/o female who was found unclothed and fishing in a fountain at the mall
33 y/o female A&O who made non-lethal suicide attempt by taking 10 Benadryl
169
For a 12-lead, you locate the 4th intercostal space just right of the sternum. Which ECG lead should be placed here?
V4
V1
V2
V3
170
The phrenic nerve arises from the ______ plexus and innervates the _______.
cervical, diaphragm
sacral, lower limbs
lumbar, abdominal wall
brachial, upper extremities
171
What is this rhythm?
SVT
Atrial fibrillation
Ventricular tachycardia
Atrial flutter
172
A medical director reviewing EMS care paperwork is completing what kind of review?
Mortality review
Concurrent review
Retrospective review
Peer review
173
What is the most common cause of urinary retention in men?
Foreign body obstruction
Enlarged prostate
Use of parasympatholytic drugs
CNS dysfunction
174
Which are examples of long bones?
Humerus, radius, and femur
Carpal and tarsal bones
Ribs, scapula, and some skull bones
Vertebrae, coccyx, and mandible
175
Which cranial nerve (CN) is responsible for pupillary constriction?
CN IV (Trochlear)
CN II (Optic)
CN I (Olfactory)
CN III (Oculomotor)
176
What does a depressed ST segment suggest?
Infarct
Necrosis
Ischemia
Injury
177
While gathering PMHx of an asthma patient, she states, "they had to intubate me last time this happened."
This is an accurate indicator of severe pulmonary disease.
This is pertinent to this event, and you should intubate her immediately.
This is important to hospital staff, but not prehospital providers.
This is not related to future ventilation needs.
178
Which electrolyte maintains the depolarization phase?
Sodium
Potassium
Calcium
Magnesium
179
Which of the following signs of basilar skull fracture would MOST likely be seen in the PREHOSPITAL setting?
Battle's Sign
Bruising over mastoid process
Ecchymosis around the eyes
CSF drainage from the ear