How should instruments be presented to the surgeon?

Handles first, tips pointing up

Which ONE of the following BEST describes the function of the vagus nerve?

Sensory and motor nerve from the larynx and pharynx

Which ONE of the following qualities is ESSENTIAL for a surgical scrub solution?

Broad spectrum of antimicrobial activity

In relation to theatre biosecurity, the term ‘disinfection’ is BEST defined as the:

removal of microorganisms, but not necessarily spores

What is a ‘transverse fracture’?

A fracture that runs horizontally, perpendicular to the bone (90 degrees)

Which ONE of the following is considered an exogenous source of microorganisms?

Inadequate instrument sterilisation

Which ONE of the following is the MOST LIKELY potential complication following fracture repair using external fixation?

Excessive exudate from the pin sites

Which ONE of the following surgical procedures MAY necessitate administration of an enema beforehand?

Anal furunculosis reconstruction

What is meant by the term ‘diaphyseal fracture’?

A fracture in the midshaft of a bone

In relation to suture materials, the term ‘tissue drag’ is BEST defined as the:

degree of friction force as the material is pulled through tissue

Which ONE of the following is an ideal property of a surgical scrub solution?

Safe to use without skin irritation

Which of the following is the role of the scrubbed nurse?

Preparing the instrument trolley

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vn06/09 mock

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Questions 85

Answers

1
Which of the following MAY be a post-operative complication of surgery for gastric dilatation and volvulus?
Ventricular arrythmias
Dehiscence of anastomosis
Intussusception
Ileus
2
For which of the following surgical procedures is post-operative ECG monitoring most highly indicated?
Gastric Dilation and Volvulus
Bilateral Thyroidectomy
Thoracotomy
Caesarean
3
How should instruments be presented to the surgeon?
Tip first
Handles first
Handles first, tips pointing down
Handles first, tips pointing up
4
Which ONE of the following BEST describes the function of the vagus nerve?
Sensory nerve for balance from the inner ear
Sensory and motor nerve from the larynx and pharynx
Motor nerve supplying the tongue
Motor nerve from the eye
5
Which ONE of the following qualities is ESSENTIAL for a surgical scrub solution?
Broad spectrum of antimicrobial activity
Easy dilution rate
Cheap price
Quick application
6
Which ONE of the following is the most accurate description of ‘entropion’?
Eversion of the eyelid margin
Abnormal growth of hairs at eyelid margin
Type of surgery to correct an eyelid anomaly
Inversion of the eyelid margin
7
In relation to theatre biosecurity, the term ‘disinfection’ is BEST defined as the:
complete elimination of all microorganisms, including spores
prevention of sepsis by destruction of pathogens on living tissues
removal of microorganisms, but not necessarily spores
removal of all microorganisms including bacterial spores
8
What is a ‘transverse fracture’?
A fracture of the epiphysis
A fracture that runs horizontally, perpendicular to the bone (90 degrees)
A fracture that circles or spirals around the midshaft of the bone
A fracture through the growth plate
9
Which ONE of the following is considered an exogenous source of microorganisms?
Oropharyngeal fluids
Gut fluid from GI surgery
Inadequate instrument sterilisation
Blood from surgical wounds
10
Neutering is classed as which type of operation
Contaminated
Dirty
Clean
Clean contaminated
11
Which ONE of the following is the MOST LIKELY potential complication following fracture repair using external fixation?
Excessive exudate from the pin sites
Osteomyelitis in the affected bone
Refracture of the affected bone
Implant failure
12
Which ONE of the following surgical procedures MAY necessitate administration of an enema beforehand?
Ovariohysterectomy
Femoral fracture repair
Inguinal hernia repair
Anal furunculosis reconstruction
13
Which ONE of the following surgical instruments is described as ‘dividing tissue with minimal trauma’?
Debakey dissecting forceps
Langenbeck retractors
Scalpel
Allis tissue forceps
14
What is meant by the term ‘diaphyseal fracture’?
A fracture occurring between the midshaft and epiphysis
A fracture in the midshaft of a bone
A fracture of the epiphysis
A fracture through the growth plate
15
Which of the following is reported to improve the management of post op complications by providing evidence-base
Literature review
Consent forms
Surgical checklists
Professional regulation
16
When should ‘damp dusting’ of the theatre be carried out?
At the beginning of each day
Once weekly as part of a deep clean
Between each surgical procedure
At the end of each day
17
Medetomidine is an example of a what?
Benzodiazepines
Opioids
Alpha 2 agonist
Phenothiazines
18
Which ONE of the following is the main advantage of using staples rather than sutures?
Speed of insertion
Cheaper to use
Higher tensile strength
Can be reused
19
When clipping a feline patient for a routine flank ovariohysterectomy, where would you expect to clip?
Linea Alba
Right flank
Left flank
Caudal abdomen
20
Polydioxanone (PDS) lasts around ? (slowly absorbable monofilament)
180- 210 days
7-10 days
190-250 days
20-30 days
21
What colour do Browne’s tubes turn when they have been autoclaved?
From blue to green
From red to green
From red to yellow
From green to red
22
Daily postoperative urine output for a 14kg dog (mls/24hours) would be expected to be:
672
848
184
225
23
Which ONE of the following would be considered a passive wound drain?
Jackson Praff
Vacutainer
Penrose
Thoracic
24
In relation to suture materials, the term ‘tissue drag’ is BEST defined as the:
breaking strength of the material
response of the tissue to the material
degree of friction force as the material is pulled through tissue
lack of smoothness as a throw of a knot is tightened
25
Which of the following poses an elevated risk for cats undergoing surgery for a urethral obstruction?
Hypercalcaemia (calcium)
Hyperkalaemia (potassium)
Hypoglycaemia
Hyponatraemia
26
Which ONE of the following is an ideal property of a surgical scrub solution?
Safe to use without skin irritation
Ineffective in the presence of organic matter
Narrow spectrum of antimicrobial activity
Ability to decrease microbial population slowly
27
routine, elective surgery; which of the following diet types is recommended to owners in the early post-op period
Highly digestible, low fat
High protein, high fat
Low protein, low fat
Highly digestible, high fat
28
which condition causes a deficiency in Antidiuretic hormone ADH (helps regulate water and electrolyte balance)
Diabetes Insipidus
Diabetes Mellitus
29
Patients with which of the following conditions are most likely predisposed to cardiogencic shock?
Feline asthma
Hepatic shunt
Dilated cardiomyopathy
Hypertension
30
The material of choice for MOST surgical instruments is:
tungsten carbide
chromium plated carbon steel
stainless steel
titanium
31
Absorbable suture materials lose their tensile strength within approximately how many days?
7
60
100
20
32
An autoclave temperature of 134 degrees requires 3.5mins. How much pressure does it need?
40psi
10psi
30psi
20psi
33
The axon of a nerve cell is surrounded by an insulated, protective layer. This is known as the:
myelin
dendrites
cell body
nodes of ranvier
34
Which ONE of the following surgical scrub solutions is MOST appropriate for preparation for ophthalmic surgery?
Povidone-iodine
Triclosan
Chlorhexidine
70% alcohol
35
A side effect of Acepromazine is
Sympathetic induced arrhythmias
Marked hypotension
Reduced seizure threshold
Marked hypertension
36
Failure to turn a recumbent patient on a regular basis can result in
Pneumothorax
Aspiration pneumonia
Hydrostatic pneumonia
Ascites
37
At a temp of 121℃ & at a pressure of 15psi, how many mins will it take for contents of an autoclave to be sterilised?
5
15
3.5
10
38
Which ONE of the following surgical instruments is MOST likely to be used during an orthopaedic procedure?
Debakey forcep
Babcock forcep
Bowel clamp
Periosteal elevator
39
which condition causes a deficiency in Insulin
Diabetes Mellitus
Diabetes Insipidus
40
What common adverse effects may be associated with the placement of a nasogastric feeding tube following surgery?
Epistaxis and rhinitis
Coughing and vomiting
Regurgitation and gastrointestinal signs
Gastric reflux and peritonitis
41
Chlorohexidine is deactivated by
Surgical Spirit
Water
Organic matter
Iodine
42
The appropriate food withdrawal period for an adult cat undergoing anaesthesia is:
6 hours
18 hours
12 hours
3 hours
43
Nervous impulses are transmitted from one neuron to another via the what?
myelin sheath
Synapse
Calcium channel
Dendrite
44
Identify the circuit shown
Humphreys ADE
Ayre's T-piece
Parallel lack
Coaxial lack bain
45
Acute tracheal collapse on a dog, you are asked by the veterinary surgeon to prepare an appropriate tube
Endotracheal
Oesophagostomy
Tracheostomy
Thoracotomy
46
Which model of care plan is designed specifically for veterinary patients?
Orem
Hilary
Ability
RLT
47
Which ONE of the following sizes of endotracheal tubes is likely to be suitable for MOST adult cats?
6 – 7mm cuffed
4.5 – 5mm uncuffed
6 – 7mm uncuffed
4.5 – 5mm cuffed
48
Which of the following is the role of the scrubbed nurse?
Preparing the patient for surgery
Preparing the instrument trolley
Assisting with anaesthesia
Positioning the patient on the operating table
49
Which one of the following suture materials is broken down by enzymes?
Polypropylene - Prolene (non-absorbable)
Chromic Catgut
Polyglactin 910 – Vicryl
Polydioxanone – PDS (Absorbable)
50
Autoclaves use steam under pressure to enable
High temperatures
Long sterilisation periods
Sterilisation of plastics
Penetration of organic material
51
Which ONE of the following conditions is MOST LIKELY to give rise to hypovolaemic and toxic shock?
Mammary neoplasia
Gastric neoplasia
Oronasal fistulae
Gastric dilatation-volvulus
52
How should clipper blades be maintained between uses?
Hair removed and bactericidal disinfectant used
Hair removed and clipper blades soaked in antiseptic solution
Hair removed and wiped over with damp cloth
Hair removed but no need to clean
53
Which one of the following is a multifilament suture material?
Vicryl
PDS
Polypropylene
Catgut
54
What does the term gossypiboma mean?
Retracted abdominal muscle
Retained testicle
Retained swab or sponge
Retained teeth
55
Which of the following terms is used to describe ‘the air exchanged with each breath’?
Residual volume
Expiratory volume
Tidal volume
Minute volume
56
Following an emergency splenectomy, which diagnostic test should regularly performed throughout recovery
Serum cortisol
PCV
Blood smear
B12
57
An autoclave temperature of 121 degrees requires a pressure of 15psi for how long
15 mins
20 mins
3 mins
5 mins
58
Which ONE of the following items would be BEST suited to sterilisation by dry heat?
Rubber tubing
Plastic syringes
Fabric drapes
Ophthalmic instruments
59
Toxaemia under anaesthetic would present with what colour MM?
Blue
Pale Pink
Yellow
Brick red
60
Which ONE of the following procedures best supports maintenance of theatre asepsis?
Alcohol hand rub for scrubbed staff between surgical cases
New set of instruments for each procedure
Ambient theatre temperature of 25 – 30℃
Minimum of 5 air changes per hour in theatre
61
A 30kg dog is anaesthetised on a Magill circuit. What fgf rate will be required if the dog is at 20 breaths/min
6 - 9 litres
12 - 14 litres
3 - 5 litres
10 - 11 litres
62
. Which ONE of the following is NOT a meninge that protects the Central Nervous System (CNS)?
Pia mater
Arachnoid mater
Cerebelli mater
Dura mater
63
A Premedication given with an opioid for severe systemic disease.
Dexmedetomidine
Atropine
ACE
Midazolam
64
Allis tissue forceps are used to
Hold tissue
Cut tissue
Retract tissue
Clamp tissue
65
Which of the following feeding tubes is most suitable for short term use (less than 2 days)?
Gastrostomy
Naso-oesophageal
Oesophagostomy
Jejunostomy
66
How many people in theatre would pose the GREATEST infection risk?
4
6
8
2
67
The instrument shown here is a
Rat tooth forceps
Cheatle forceps
Mayo hagar needle holders
Spay hook
68
The term ‘tidal volume’ is defined as the volume of air:
inhaled by the patient over one minute
exhaled by the patient over one minute
inhaled and exhaled by the patient in one breath
inhaled by the patient that does not undergo any gaseous exchange
69
Which ONE of the following would result in the removal of a bandage that had been applied following surgery?
Owner has observed the patient has the occasional lick of the bandage
Wet weather conditions, with bandage protected during walks
Owner not keen on the appearance of the bandage
Bandage has become soiled with the patient’s urine
70
A 19kg dog has a urinary catheter . How many mls of urine should be expected in 8 hours
152-304ml
212-424ml
456-912ml
98-196ml
71
Ischaemic injury means vascular disease involving an interruption in the arterial blood supply to a tissue
True
False
72
The circuit shown is an example of what?
Ayres T piece
Bain
Magill
Lack
73
Stage II of anaesthesia we will see
Loss of corneal reflex
Paralysis
Excitement
Analgesia
74
Assuming no complications, how long after surgery should skin sutures be removed?
2-3 days
4-5 days
7-10 days
15-17 days
75
Which of the following statements best aligns with hypovolaemic shock?
release of inflammatory mediators that promote peripheral vasodilation
seen in degenerative conditions of heart muscles, eg dilated cardiomyopathy
Blood loss pressure detected in baroreceptors increase SV, contractility
Causes are Systemic Inflammation Response Syndrome (SIRS), sepsis,neoplasia
76
Cause of bradycardia?
Vagal stimulation
Hypotension
Nociceptor
Hypercapnia
77
Tidal volume for 25kg Labrador?
75ml
250ml
125ml
375ml
78
The main goal of an aseptic surgical technique is prevention of contamination of the? 
Surgical instruments
Operating personnel
Sterile field
Surgical wound
79
A tracheostomy tube that has been inserted during an emergency procedure due to an obstruction, SHOULD be changed every
24 – 48 hours
6 – 12 hours
2 – 6 hours
12 – 24 hours
80
Surgery of the large intestine carries greater risk than that of the small intestine, due to the
difficultly and complexity caused by space compromise
increased blood supply to the large intestine
tissues being more susceptible to damage by surgical instruments
increased bacterial load and slower healing rate
81
When positioning a cat for a flank approach ovariohysterectomy, how should the patient be positioned?
Right lateral recumbency with hindlimbs drawn caudally
Left lateral recumbency with forelimbs drawn cranially
Dorsal recumbency secured in a trough/cradle
Sternal recumbency with a wedge to tilt slightly to the right
82
For which of the following medical conditions may we deviate from standard fasting procedures?
Hyperadrenocorticism
Diabetes Insipidus
Diabetes Mellitus
Hypothyroidism
83
Following confirmed adenocarcinoma in a mammary tumour removal what post op advie would be MOST LIKELY to be advised?
Annual thoracic x-rays to check for metastases
Four monthly thoracic x-rays to check for metastases
Monthly thoracic x-rays to check for metastases
Weekly thoracic x-rays to check for metastases
84
Handovers from theatre to wards CAN BE ACHIEVED USING
Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation
Surgical Site, Basic Dressing, Additional Requirements, Ready for Discharge
Stability, Bathing, Action Plan, Rest
Surgical Procedure, Basic Support, Analysis, Recovery
85
In accordance with the American Society of Anaesthesiologists’ (ASA), a patient with a severe systemic disease,
IV
III
II
V

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