Special experience identifiers (SEI) provide a quick way to identify those individuals who

c. already hve the exp to meet assignment requirements.

Humanitrin assignt or dfr rqusts tht usully wrrnt apprvl r rqusts subs prob arsng frm whch circ

c.The recnt death of the memb spse or child inclng miscrrigs

When there is no break in active duty service, what will a member’s (TAFMSD) reflect?

a. Date of original entry on active duty.

(PES) codes are updated in what system to identify ineligibility conditions

b. Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS).

who is res for prov an autmtc quart end-of-mnth outpt prod to the CDE

d. Personnel systems management (PSM) section.

What opportunity does the join spouse assignment program allow for military couples?

a. Be stationed near each other n maintain a joint residence

Which organization requires the assistance of all MPS work centers to ensure MAP stays current

d. Headquarters, Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC).

To substantiate a humanitarian assignment request, which is not a criterion?

a.The members assign must be within 12 mths of being compte.

What is the 3-char cde tht ids special exp n train nt otherwise idd in the personnel dta system

a. Special experience identifier (SEI).

Once the member inprocesses, no-fee passports are

b. collected by the military personnel section (MPS).

Who may impose non-judicial punishment (NJP) on members of their command for minor offenses?

c. Commanders who are commissioned officers.

An Airman submitting a DTDP application must meet these requirements except

a.prf of ins 4 any privly ownd vhcl bing shppd 2 dpndts lctn

What system is used for AD Amn seeking correction to, or removal of, an evaluation report

d. virtual Military Personnel Flight (vMPF).

Whose responsibility is to ensure that members’ records are current and up-to-date?

b. Military personnel section (MPS).

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5Level Vol 2

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Questions 100

Answers

1
Additions such as fam mbr data dpndnt eligib, n res add must b reprted to DEERS within how many
c. 60.
b. 45.
d. 75.
a. 30.
2
The (SRB) program is a monetary incentive paid to Airmen serving in what type of skills?
b. Balanced.
d. Undermanned.
a. Critical.
c. Overmanned.
3
Special experience identifiers (SEI) provide a quick way to identify those individuals who
a.looking fr a nw assign tht does nt req extnsve tech knowle
c. already hve the exp to meet assignment requirements.
d.nt hve exp but can fill the crit manning req with training
b.wantng to gain speclized exp in a nw fild n need ext train
4
Humanitrin assignt or dfr rqusts tht usully wrrnt apprvl r rqusts subs prob arsng frm whch circ
b.existence of a housing shortage or home ownership problems
d.A dsre to prov emtl suprt to a prnt or prnt inlaw du 2 age
a. Problems associated with child care arrangement.
c.The recnt death of the memb spse or child inclng miscrrigs
5
Which form is used to track all permanent change of assignment (PCA) moves?
b. DD Form 2096.
c. AETCI 2096.
a. AF IMT 2096.
d. SF Form 2096.
6
The (MPS) is responsible for monitoring and updating the following data except
d. (WAPS) scores.
b. Special experience identifiers (SEI).
a. Report identifiers (RI).
c. Special duty identifiers (SDI).
7
Veteran’s Group Life Insurance (VGLI) policy is renewable regardless of
b. branch of service.
c. health.
a. geographic location.
d. age.
8
Long tours can be accompanied or unaccompanied and are for how many months or more?
b. 12.
d. 24.
c. 18.
a. 6.
9
In addition to DJMS actions n TRs wht othr methd hlps the pert ensre the intgrity of the MilPDS
a. Date tracking.
b. Financial services office (FSO) actions.
d.Defense Finance and Accounting Service (DFAS) transactions
c. Master military pay account (MMPA) transactions.
10
What is the first character of the (AFSC) that is associated with medical or dental?
a. 1.
c. 3.
b. 2.
d. 4.
11
What is the minimum skill level or civilian grade to be a funding authenticator?
b. 5-skill, GS–5.
d. 9-skill, GS–9.
a. 3-skill, GS–3.
c. 7-skill, GS–7.
12
Guard n reserve persnnl qualify for mil benefits when they are activd for mre than hw many days
b. 60.
a. 30.
d. 120.
c. 90.
13
Which form is used to document a members (ADSC) incurred due to training or a PCS
c. AF IMT 330.
a. AF IMT 63.
d. AF IMT 2096.
b. AF Form 899.
14
When there is no break in active duty service, what will a member’s (TAFMSD) reflect?
b. Date entered into delayed enlistment.
a. Date of original entry on active duty.
c. Date completed basic military training.
d. Date agreed to sign up for active duty.
15
The (CSB) election is effective the date the Airman reaches how many years of service?
c. 15.
b. 14.
a. 13.
d. 16.
16
Amn joins w nonIEB AFSC but ltr is rclss int a spec tht is athrzd a bns wht hpns 2 the bns elg
c. Eligible after completing six months.
b. Eligible after reclassification.
a. Member is not eligible.
d. Eligible when there is an increase in bonus amount.
17
Once a mil member fills out the worksheet to reenlist, the first thing a personnelist does is
d. immediately forward the paperwork to DFAS for processing.
b. immediately enter the information into (MilPDS).
c. pull the T18 product from the MMPA file.
a. conduct a quality check.
18
For foreign adoptions all reqd docs must be sub to DFAS withn hw mny calndar dys of the request
d. 120.
b. 75.
c. 90.
a. 60.
19
(PES) codes are updated in what system to identify ineligibility conditions
a. Personnel Concept III (PC-III).
d. Joint Operation Planning and Execution system (JOPES).
c. Base-level service delivery model (BLSDM).
b. Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS).
20
eff dte of ret for a mbr who elcts ret in lieu of dem will b no ltr thn the frst dy of wt mnth
a. Third.
d. Sixth.
b. Fourth.
c. Fifth.
21
A (LOD) determination protects the interests of the United States government and the
d. military installation.
b. squadron.
a. member.
c. dependents.
22
who is res for prov an autmtc quart end-of-mnth outpt prod to the CDE
a. Headquarters, Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC).
b. Major command (MAJCOM).
c. Total force service center (TFSC).
d. Personnel systems management (PSM) section.
23
What opportunity does the join spouse assignment program allow for military couples?
d. Decline orders if you don’t like the assignment.
c. Opportunity to stay at any base of your preference.
a. Be stationed near each other n maintain a joint residence
b.Decide on which mbr gets to stay n which mbr has to leave.
24
What is the maximum number of days of leave can an Airman sell during his or her career?
a. 15.
b. 30.
d. 60.
c. 45.
25
vOP is des to allw Amn to out-pr thr unit n tsk org wout hvng to visit ech office due to, excpt
c. separation.
b. retirement.
d. emergency leave.
a. reassignment.
26
If mbr can direct or indirect cause the launch of nuc weap thn they are in what type of PRP pos
c. Controlled.
b. Restricted.
d. Responsible.
a. Critical.
27
The objective of the reenlistment and (SRP) is to ensure the career force has (NCO) that are
a. highly qualified.
b. experienced.
c. proficient.
d. on-time.
28
Which organization requires the assistance of all MPS work centers to ensure MAP stays current
c. Major command (MAJCOM).
b. Headquarters, Air Force (HAF).
a. Squadron.
d. Headquarters, Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC).
29
Which AF form is used to document performance feedback for AB–TSgt?
c. 724A.
b. 932.
d. 724B.
a. 931.
30
Which item is not provided by the sponsor prior to the newcomer’s arrival?
d. Base guide.
a. Travel voucher template.
c. City map.
b. Welcome letters.
31
To substantiate a humanitarian assignment request, which is not a criterion?
a.The members assign must be within 12 mths of being compte.
b.The members presence must b ably ess to alleviate the prob
c.vcy mst exst at the nw dty stn n the mbr mst meet ret reqs
d.prob is mre svre thn encounrd by othr AF memb w a sim prob
32
Passports are provided by the government at whose expense?
a. The state in which they pay taxes.
d. Member.
b. Member and government.
c. Government.
33
The purpose of the AF class system is to identify job requirements and the personnel who are
c. qualified.
a. available.
d. available and qualified.
b. unqualified.
34
Who processes Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS) applications?
a. Verifying official (VO).
d. Supervisor.
c. Military member.
b. Military personnel specialist.
35
When establishing a (UIF) which side(s) of the folder do you mark with “For Official Use Only”?
c. Back only.
d. Front only.
a. Front and back.
b. Inside the folder.
36
Which AF form is used as a Request and Authorization for Separation?
d. 899.
a. 973.
c. 907.
b. 100.
37
Any questionable data with (DEERS) must be resolved with the
a. member.
d. superintendent.
b. supervisor.
c. verifying official (VO).
38
What is the maximum allowed coverage for Veteran’s Group Life Insurance (VGLI)?
d. $550,000.
a. $400,000.
b. $450,000.
c. $500,000.
39
Reporting identifiers normally describe conditions rather than
a. duties.
d. special duty assignment.
c. qualification.
b. specialty.
40
When a member is covered under full time SGLI,the member’s (TSGLI) coverage is
c. full time as well.
a. covered for only 120 days at a time.
d. not covered at all.
b. covered only if they have a spouse.
41
What is the 3-char cde tht ids special exp n train nt otherwise idd in the personnel dta system
a. Special experience identifier (SEI).
b. Rules of engagement (ROE).
c. Unit line number (ULN).
d. Course of action (COA).
42
how mny dys in ad does the cmdr nfy the off of the projctd prom eff dte whn is protd to 1lt
a. 30.
c. 60.
b. 45.
d. 90.
43
At which grde will comds init wthdrwl actn whn a mbr is unble to perfrm tsks assd w their level
d. E1 – E6 only.
c. Officers or enlisted.
a. Only officers.
b. Only enlisted.
44
Once the member inprocesses, no-fee passports are
d. destroyed by the member.
c. collected by the unit deployment manager (UDM).
b. collected by the military personnel section (MPS).
a. kept by the member and used for future travel overseas.
45
Who may impose non-judicial punishment (NJP) on members of their command for minor offenses?
c. Commanders who are commissioned officers.
b. Any commissioned officer.
d.Any mil mbr wth a hgher rnk thn the mebr who com the offen
a. First sergeant.
46
Which form is used to record qualifying active duty service?
b. DD Form 899.
c. AF Form 910.
a. DD Form 214.
d. AF Form 911.
47
An Airman submitting a DTDP application must meet these requirements except
a.prf of ins 4 any privly ownd vhcl bing shppd 2 dpndts lctn
b.sig ent fact sheet app 2 the country whr dpndnts wll reloc
d memo sigd by Amn w dpnts nms n bday OS trvl dstntn
c.the ret to serve the accd tour length at the followon locn
48
Which assignment availability code (AAC) is used to update a member who has received an Art 15
c. 14.
d. 16.
a. 10.
b. 12.
49
What system is used for AD Amn seeking correction to, or removal of, an evaluation report
c. Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS).
d. virtual Military Personnel Flight (vMPF).
a. Defense Joint Military Pay System (DJMS).
b. Case Management System (CMS).
50
Whose responsibility is to ensure that members’ records are current and up-to-date?
d. Supervisor.
a. Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC).
c. Service member.
b. Military personnel section (MPS).
51
What is the maximum selective reenlistment bonus (SRB) payable per zone?
d. $90,000.
b. $60,000.
c. $75,000.
a. $30,000.
52
Which (UIF) code is used to update MilPDS when a member has a UIF only?
d. 4.
b. 2.
a. 1.
c. 3.
53
MAP will help assist the MPS with clean-up n id of database errors n shld be prod as a minimum
c. monthly.
d. annually.
b. weekly.
a. daily.
54
How many special duty application(s) may be submitted for consideration at a time?
c. Five.
a. One.
d. Eight.
b. Three.
55
Whs resp is it to mntr n follw the prgss of the out-pro chcklst as it routs thru the bse agncs
d. Squadron commander.
c. First shirt.
a. Member.
b. Supervisor.
56
Which reenlistment (RE) code is used when (HQ AFPC) denies a member’s reenlistment?
c. 2F.
b. 2B.
a. 2A.
d. 2G.
57
The AF SADSP duty status information is used to assist commanders with all of these except
c.id pers who are projctd to dply to supprt cmbtnt comndr
a.allow selctn of dplyd persnnl who are non-vol for assign
b.doc the util of Gurd and Res per which affcts mn-dy fndng.
d. id the avail of per to meet combtnt commnder requiremnts.
58
When does the career development element (CDE) create a relocation folder due to a member’s sep
b. When a member first received notification.
d. 30 days before separation date.
c. 90 days before separation date.
a. Upon notification of an approved separation.
59
Who prepares the AF Form 100?
b. Wing command personnel.
d. Squadron command staff.
c. Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC).
a. Major command (MAJCOM).
60
If the member is a civilian employee, what documentation is required to get an ID card?
a. AF Form 899.
c. SF Form 50.
b. DD Form 363.
d. DD Form 214.
61
The initial duty assignment (IDA) worksheet is used to
d. help (DFAS) determine pay transactions.
a.ensure accurate input of currnt dta before the Amn arrves.
c. outline the MPS in-processing requirements.
b. assist the (MPS) in creating valid position numbers.
62
The virtual out-processing (vOP) checklist must be completed
c. prior to scheduling TMO pick-up.
a. prior to purchasing a plane ticket.
b. prior to final out-processing.
d.three weeks after they receive the relocation notification
63
If errrs are discvrd on any of the doc for an os tour MPS mst thorghly resrch prr to submtng to
b. the legal office.
c. Headquarters, Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC).
a. finance.
d. Headquarters, Air Force (HAF).
64
On the unit personnel manning roster UPMR, how many incumbents are authorized on each position
c. Three.
a. One.
d. Four.
b. Two.
65
To ensure a member is qualified for a special duty assignment pay (SDAP), the unit commander
d. announces the date when SDAP decreases or ends.
a. delegates their auth to id mbrs who r qual and eligible
c.prds the mnthly SDAP rstr n snds it 2 the wng comdr 4 cert
b.consls unt mbrs on chngs in SDAP ratngs n certs the chngs
66
Conf of an accession’s arrival to the perm duty station affects which type of accountability?
a. Strength.
b. Total force.
d. Unit.
c. Transient.
67
Which is nt a reason for downgrade/withdrawal of the AFSC,SDI,RI, or chif enlistd mnger CEM cde
b. Lack of recent job performance.
c. Reduction/demotion in grade.
d. Commander’s preference.
a. Inability to perform at skill/qualification level.
68
Which AF form is used to document performance feedback for 2LT - CAPT?
d. 724B.
c. 724A.
a. 931.
b. 932.
69
How many months’ minimum (TOS) is required to apply for a special duty assignment (SDA)?
d. 24.
b. 6.
a. 0.
c. 12.
70
When issuing LOA actions comdrs should use the “prepndernce of the evidnce” standard
b.one-third of crdible evidnce ponts to the offnse committd
c.less than 50% of the credible ev points to the offense com
d.the greter weght of cred evidnce ponts to the offnse comtd
a.the evidence of the allegation is beyond a reasnable doubt
71
One purpose of the officer and enlisted evaluation systems is to provide a
b.reliable, long-term, cumulative record of performance
d. means to punish individuals by deflating ratings.
a.program that consolidates all EPR n OPR for promotion
c.way for Amn to sub an appeal to remve a LOA frm their file
72
u can locate the frm used to apply fr a corr to mil records at any of these locations except
a. Air Force military personnel section.
d. Finance Services office.
b. most veterans’ service organization.
c. Air Force Review Boards office.
73
An Amn cannt reenlst in thir currnt AFSC if a CJR hs nt bn appr by hw mny mnths pr to thir DOS
d. 8.
a. 5.
c. 7.
b. 6.
74
Who is responsible for the accuracy and validity of unfavorable information file (UIF) data?
a. Commander.
d. Both supervisor and commander.
b. Supervisor.
c. Military personnel section (MPS).
75
The (PSM) office assists users of the (MilPDS) with which type of operations?
b. Weekly.
c. Monthly.
a. Day-to-day.
d. Annual.
76
The (INTRO) program does not provide Airman relocating to a new assignment with information on
a. housing.
c. training for new job skills.
b. household goods weight limitations.
d. concurrent and noncurrent travel for family members.
77
First-term Amn who com how many mnths on thir current enl receive sel reen consideration?
c. 33 (57 for six-year enlistees).
d. 30 (54 for six-year enlistees).
a. 40 (64 for six-year enlistees).
b. 36 (60 for six-year enlistees).
78
Which order is not completed within orders processing application (OPA)?
b. AF Form 973.
a. AF Form 100.
c. DD Form 1610.
d. AF Form 899.
79
Which form is used to initiate a control roster (CR) action?
a. SF 1058.
b. DD Form 1058.
c. AETCI 1058.
d. AF IMT 1058.
80
FSGLI expands Servicemembers’ SGLI coverage to insurable
a. spouses only.
d. spouses and children.
c. parents of sponsor.
b. children only.
81
Which assignment limitation code (ALC) is used to update a conscientious objector?
a. J.
d. M.
b. K.
c. L.
82
Which integrated subsystem does the (WAPS) program use to make promotion selections?
a. (DCAPES).
c. Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS) promotion file.
d. Logistics Module (LOGMOD).
b. Joint Operations Planning and Execution System (JOPES).
83
Within the (MPS), who is responsible for managing the unit personnel management roster UPMR
a. Customer service.
c. Career development element.
b. Customer support element.
d. Force management operations element.
84
A control roster (CR) provides an observation period for how many months?
b. 6.
c. 9.
d. 12.
a. 3.
85
Award of a specific decoration should be based on an individual’s
d. level of responsibility and manner of performance.
a. grade.
b. retirement.
c. reassignment.
86
What date is used to place Airmen in the proper sequence for selection for long overseas tours?
b. Long tour return date.
d. Total active federal military service date.
c. Overseas duty selection date.
a. Short tour return date.
87
The PSM office serves as specialists in these areas of (MilPDS) except
c. strategy.
a. implementation.
d. operation.
b. maintenance.
88
Amn may request a waiver to reenlist or extend if they are inelig due to all of thse rsns excpt
b. Ten or more days lost time.
a. (AFSC) not commensurate with grade.
c. Civil court conviction.
d. Insufficient grade.
89
When an inter-command (PCA) occurs, what action does the (MPS) complete?
a. Forwards the AF IMT 2096 to the losing unit commander.
b. Initiates the PCA actions wth info provd by the ganng unt
c. Updates the duty information in (MilPDS).
d. Notifies the finance office that funds are needed.
90
To access Human Resources-Case Management System (HR-CMS), the user must have
c. a computer in the .com environment.
a. access to the internet.
d.an activated Military Personnel Data System MilPDS account
b. an AFPC-secure account.
91
Which is not an ineligibility condition for promotion?
d. Selected to permanent change of station (PCS).
b. Denied selection for reenlistment by the commander.
a. Absent without leave (AWOL).
c. Declined promotion testing.
92
When an Amn has been nnselect fr reenment on AF IMT 418 whch cde is upatd in the per dta systm?
d. 4E.
a. 1R.
b. 2X.
c. 3C.
93
Which reenlistment (RE) code is used when a membr is eligible to reenlist but elects separation
b. 1J.
a. 1A.
d. 1M.
c. 1K.
94
To avoid fraud most cust support elements require how many forms of id before processing an ID
c. 3.
d. None.
b. 2.
a. 1.
95
The CSE normally disposes of the clearance file within how many days after the member’s RNLTD
c. 60.
b. 90.
d. 30.
a. 120.
96
Within hw mny mnths aftr the eff dte of the demn cn the demn auth rstre an Amns dte of orig grd
c. 6 and 12.
a. 1 and 3.
b. 3 and 6.
d. 12 and 18.
97
The Air Force establishes an active duty service commitment (ADSC) for
a. E5 and E6.
c. E1 through E4 only.
d. all active duty mmbrs who part in ADSC-incurring events.
b. officers only.
98
Within how many dys mst mmbs retrieve n surr an ID from dep who are longer eligible
d. 90.
c. 60.
b. 45.
a. 30.
99
Credit is given for overseas service performed in which branch of service?
b. Navy and Marines only.
a. Army and Air Force only.
d. All branches.
c. Air Force only.
100
Officers serve indef actve dty trs by appt of the pres If they req discharge, who apprves it
d. unit commander.
c. wing commander.
b. Chief of Staff of the Air Force (CSAF).
a. Secretary of the Air Force (SECAF).

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