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CDC Vol. 1
CDC Vol. 1
77 terms
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a) Unit training manager (UTM).
c) Major command functional manager (MFM).
b) Base functional manager (BFM).
d) Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
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c) Chief, Manuals Division, under the Director, Washington HeadquarterServi
a) Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff.
b) Deputy Secretary of Defense and authorized signers.
d) Chief, Directives Division, under the Director, Washington Headquarters
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b) Chief of Office of Records.
a) Base records manager.
d) Functional area records manager.
c) Command records manager.
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d) Functional area records manager.
c) Command records manager.
a) Base records manager.
b) Chief of Office of Records.
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b) Covered relationship.
a) Misuse of position.
c) Personal conflict of interest.
d) None, this is not an example of an unethical situation.
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d) Managerial Assessments.
b) Quality System.
c) Quality Assessments.
a) Trend analysis.
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c) Cyberspace Defense Analysis Weapon System.
b) Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.
d) Air Force Intranet Control Weapons System.
a) Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System.
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b) Base functional manager (BFM).
c) Major command functional manager (MFM).
d) Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
a) Unit training manager (UTM).
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d) Eight.
c) Six.
b) Four.
a) Two.
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c) A postscript message.
d) None of the above.
a) A rewriting of the main point.
b) A well-written summary.
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a) Defense Industrial Base (DIB).
d) Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).
c) National Reconnaissance Office (NRO).
b) Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA).
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c) Methods and Procedures TO.
d) General TO.
b) Operation and Maintenance TO.
a) Standard Installation Practices TO (SIPTO).
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c) Title 32.
d) Title 50.
a) Title 10.
b) Title 18.
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a) misuse of position.
c) non-public information.
b) covered relationships.
d) personal conflict of interest.
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c) AF Pamphlet (AFPAM).
b) AF Handbook (AFH).
d) AF Visual Aid (AFVA).
a) AF Doctrine.
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d) Four.
c) Three.
a) One.
b) Two.
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b) Air Force Policy Directives (AFPD).
c) Air Force Mission Directives (AFMD).
a) Air Force Instructions (AFI).
d) Air Force Policy Memorandums (AFPM).
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c) Service Contact.
a) Service Transition.
d) Service Design.
b) Service Strategy.
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b) Air Force Policy Directives (AFPD).
d) Air Force Policy Memorandums (AFPM).
a) Air Force Instructions (AFI).
c) Air Force Mission Directives (AFMD).
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c) National Military Strategy for Cyberspace.
b) National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace.
d) National Military Strategy to Secure Cyberspace.
a) National Military Cyberspace Strategy
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c) On-the-Job Training (OJT) program.
b) Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS).
d) Occupational Analysis Program.
a) Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).
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d) Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System.
c) Air Force Cyber Security and Control System.
a) Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.
b) Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System.
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c) Air Force Mission Directives (AFMD).
b) Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD).
d) Air Force Policy Memorandum (AFPM).
a) Air Force Instructions (AFI).
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c) Comprehensive National Cybersecurity Initiative.
b) National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace.
a) National Security Policy.
d) National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations.
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d) Radio Frequency Transmission
b) Ground Radar Systems
c) Cable and Antenna Systems
a) Spectrum Operations.
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d) Officially signed and officially released.
a) Can be altered and are not officially released.
b) Can’t be altered, but are officially released.
c) Can’t be altered and are officially signed.
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c) Enterprise Service Desk (ESD).
b) Area Processing Center (APC).
a) Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).
d) Network Operations Security Center (NOSC).
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a) Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System.
d) Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.
c) Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System.
b) Air Force Cyber Security and Control System.
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c) Functional command and geographical command.
b) Unified command and subordinate unified command.
d) Unified command and functional command.
a) Subordinate unified command and geographical command.
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b) Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF).
d) Stratum levels (SL).
c) Unit type codes (UTC).
a) Aerospace Expeditionary Force (AEF).
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b) Positioning.
d) Unit type code.
a) Coding.
c) Tempo bands.
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a) Spectrum Operations.
c) Cable and Antenna Systems
d) Radio Frequency Transmission
b) Ground Radar Systems
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b) Title 8.
a) Title 3.
c) Title 10.
d) Title 18.
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c) Quality System.
d) Trend Analysis.
b) Quality Assurance.
a) Quality Assessments
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b) Article 40.
c) Article 92.
a) Article 32.
d) Article 100.
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d) Non-Commissioned Officer in Charge (NCOIC).
a) Library custodian.
b) Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO).
c) Technical Order Distribution Account (TODA).
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a) National Security Policy.
b) National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace.
c) Comprehensive National Cybersecurity Initiative.
d) National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations.
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d) Assist the unit training manager in course development
b) Allocate manpower
a) Modify local training
c) Develop a Career Development Course (CDC).
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c) Component Numbered Air Force (CNAF).
a) Combined force air and space component commander (CFAAC).
d) Joint Force Commander (JFC).
b) Joint force air and space component commander (JFACC).
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b) Base functional manager (BFM).
c) Major command functional manager (MFM).
a) Unit training manager (UTM).
d) Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
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a) AFI 33321
c) AFI 33329.
b) AFI 33322.
d) AFI 33332.
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a) Active and reactive.
c) Subversive and divisive.
d) Offensive and defensive.
b) Evasive and decisive.
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d) 2012.
b) 2010.
c) 2011.
a) 2009.
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c) Core competency
d) Duty position task
b) Duty competency
a) Core task
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d) Functional area records manager.
c) Command records manager.
b) Chief of Office of Records.
a) Base records manager.
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b) Personnel Evaluation.
d) Standard Evaluation.
c) Managerial Evaluation.
a) Technical Evaluation.
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c) Chief of the Office of Records.
b) Command records manager.
a) Base records manager.
d) Functional area records manager.
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a) Defense Standardization Program (DSP).
b) Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA).
d) Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA).
c) Information and Communications Technology (ICT).
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d) 4th Expeditionary Fighter Wing.
b) 85th Engineering Installation Squadron.
c) 83th Network Operations Squadron.
a) 644th Combat Communication Squadron.
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b) JP 5–0, Joint Communications System.
a) JP 6–0, Joint Communications System.
c) JP 5–0, Joint Operation Planning.
d) JP 6–0, Joint Operations Series.
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a) Technical Order Distribution Account (TODA).
d) Any user.
b) Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO).
c) Library custodian.
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c) Implementation and Assessment.
d) Department of Defense Strategic Planning Guidance.
b) Military Strategic Framework.
a) Strategic Considerations.
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a) Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS).
b) Office Automation System (OAS).
c) Decision Support System (DSS).
d) Training Business Area (TBA).
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a) Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.
d) Air Force Intranet Control Weapons System.
c) Air Force Cyber Security and Control System.
b) Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System.
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d) Chartering directives.
c) Directive-type memo.
a) Direct oversight directives.
b) Secretary Policy memo.
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b) Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) in conjunction with the SME.
a) Major Command Functional Manager (MFM) in conjunction with the TPM
d) AFCFM in conjunction with the TPM.
c) MFM in conjunction with the subject matter expert (SME).
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c) Three.
a) One.
d) Four.
b) Two.
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a) Directive.
c) Air Force Pamphlet (AFPAM).
d) Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD)
b) Non-directive.
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b) Service Transition.
a) Continual Service Improvement.
c) Service Strategy.
d) Service Design.
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b) exploit information in an enterprise-wide environment.
a) safeguard information in an enterprise-wide environment.
d) improve the efficiency of the mission.
c) improve the effectiveness of the mission.
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a) Unit training manager (UTM).
c) Major command functional manager (MFM
d) Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
b) Base functional manager (BFM).
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d) Commander’s Inspection Program (CCIP).
a) Management Inspection (MI).
b) Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI).
c) Consolidated Unit Inspection (CUI).
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b) Operation Security (OPSEC).
a) Counterintelligence (CI).
c) Military deception (MILDEC).
d) Intelligence Surveillance and Reconnaissance (ISR).
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d) The Deputy Secretary.
c) The Vice President.
a) The President.
b) The Chief of Staff.
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c) Review the occupational analysis report.
d) Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).
a) Conduct climate training surveys.
b) Develop Career Development Courses.
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d) DODD 8570.01.
a) DODD 8140.01.
b) DODD 5515.01.
c) DODD 8220.01.
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b) Air Force Policy Directives (AFPD).
a) Air Force Instructions (AFI).
d) Air Force Policy Memorandums (AFPM).
c) Air Force Mission Directives (AFMD).
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d) Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
c) Major command functional manager (MFM).
b) Base functional manager (BFM).
a) Unit training manager (UTM).
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b) Air Force Space Command, 24th Air Force.
c) Air Force Global Strike Command, 8th Air Force.
d) Air Education and Training Command, 2nd Air Force.
a) Air Combat Command, 9th Air Force.
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d) Department of Defense 8570 mandate.
a) Manpower.
c) Reduce costs.
b) Efficiency.
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b) Resources required to manage and use TOs.
a) Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures.
c) Infrastructure to manage and use TOs.
d) Training to manage and use TOs.
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a) Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).
b) Area Processing Center (APC).
c) Enterprise Service Desk (ESD).
d) Network Operations Security Center (NOSC).
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a) Title 10.
c) Title 50.
b) Title 30.
d) Title 52.
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d) Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System.
a) Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.
c) Air Force Cyber Security and Control System.
b) Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System.
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b) Geographical base maps.
a) Published doctrines.
c) Photographs of a retreat ceremony.
d) Library reference or museum exhibitions.
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a) Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System.
c) Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System.
b) Air Force Cyber Security and Control System.
d) Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.
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b) Training Business Area.
d) Integrated Maintenance Data System.
c) Telephone Management System.
a) Remedy.