IA Final

164 termsStudBud Administration4 plays

Imported from external platform

Flashcards164 cardsFPractice quizPHost liveL

Questions 164

Answers

1
True or false: Cybersecurity policies should be regularly reviewed.
False
True
2
What is the role of automated containment tools?
Block malicious processes
Analyze threats
Contain malware
Track incidents
3
Why is stakeholder briefing frequency important?
Spreads misinformation
Ensures informed decisions
Creates confusion
Delays actions
4
Which is a common implementation for vulnerability scans?
Ignoring scans
Automated tools
No tools needed
Manual checks only
5
True or false: Continuous monitoring is unnecessary.
False
True
6
What is essential for continuous improvement?
Random updates
Ignoring past incidents
No evaluations
Feedback loop
7
True or false: Identity management reduces unauthorized access risks.
True
False
8
True or false: Identity proof is always needed.
True
False
9
True or false: MFA requires one form of ID.
True
False
10
What is a benefit of conducting business impact analyses?
Limit resource allocation
Estimate costs of downtime
Increase operational risks
Reduce compliance efforts
11
How can organizations reduce misinformation impact?
Ignore rumors
Delay response
Monitor social media
Spread false news
12
Which exercise validates response processes?
Tabletop exercise
System audit
Runbook review
Stakeholder meeting
13
What should be done with newly identified vulnerabilities?
Contain malware
Track incidents
Mitigate or document
Analyze threats
14
What does mapping data flows identify?
Data types
Data destinations
Data sizes
Data origins
15
What is vital for detecting malicious code?
Behavior-based tools
No tools needed
Random scans
Ignoring updates
16
Why involve cross-functional teams in recovery?
Delay recovery
Increase costs
Reduce communication
Validate coordination
17
Which practice ensures recovery plan effectiveness?
Random changes
Regular testing
No documentation
Ignoring updates
18
Which tool aids in capturing traffic patterns?
Manual logs
Old routers
NetFlow analyzers
Basic firewalls
19
What does Zero Trust prioritize?
Trust over verification
Verification over trust
User self-assessment
Random checks
20
What is essential for impact assessment?
Ignoring data sensitivity
Only IT involvement
Random evaluations
Formal assessment process
21
What is a benefit of using multi-factor authentication?
Slower access
Increased security
More passwords to remember
Less user control
22
What is crucial for identifying anomalies?
Ignoring data flows
Using outdated tools
Defining normal behavior
Random monitoring
23
Why share threat intelligence with external parties?
Increase confusion
Delay actions
Reduce transparency
Build collective defense
24
Select tools that fit within?
None of the above
Only budget
Technology and budgetary
Only technology
25
True or false: Supply chain risks are irrelevant to cybersecurity.
True
False
26
What is a key benefit of lessons learned?
Improved future recovery
Increased downtime
Higher costs
More errors
27
Micro-segmentation limits the spread of?
Threats
Data
Applications
Users
28
What is a benefit of structured communication plans?
Builds trust
Reduces clarity
Increases confusion
Delays recovery
29
What is the last step in forensics?
Data deletion
Data storage
Data analysis
Data collection
30
True or false: External systems should be catalogued for security.
False
True
31
What is steganography?
Data recovery
Data analysis
Data encryption
Data concealment
32
True or false: Anomaly detection is part of forensics.
True
False
33
What is a vulnerability disclosure policy?
Report potential issues
Analyze threats
Contain malware
Track incidents
34
What is the first step in response planning?
Execute plan
Analyze impact
Notify stakeholders
Contain incident
35
What is the goal of incident mitigation?
Restore operations
Reduce transparency
Increase confusion
Delay response
36
True or false: Categorizing data helps protect it.
False
True
37
True or false: ABAC uses user attributes.
True
False
38
What is the goal of incident response planning?
Minimize downtime
Increase costs
Reduce staff training
Limit communication
39
What does SBOM stand for?
Software Base of Management
System Backup of Materials
Security Bill of Management
Software Bill of Materials
40
True or false: Cybersecurity roles should be clearly defined.
False
True
41
Which is a common ZTA step?
Increase firewall rules
Ignore user roles
Create Access Policies
Limit data access
42
What is a best practice for managing third-party risks?
Ignore vendor security
Regular assessments
Use outdated contracts
Limit vendor access
43
How does ABAC enhance security?
Granular access control
No access control
Broad access control
Simple access control
44
True or false: Policies need regular updates.
False
True
45
Which document outlines cybersecurity roles?
Incident report
Compliance matrix
Data flow diagram
RACI chart
46
What is a VEX document?
A security advisory
A software update
A vulnerability report
A compliance document
47
How often should recovery strategies be reviewed?
Once a decade
Quarterly or biannually
Never
Daily
48
Why is mapping data flows important?
Reduces data usage
Limits data access
Identifies security gaps
Increases data storage
49
Which access control uses various attributes?
Discretionary Access Control
Role-Based Access Control
Attribute-Based Access Control
Mandatory Access Control
50
An application-centric approach includes?
Only user access
All of the above
Only security measures
Only data management
51
True or false: User activity monitoring is optional.
False
True
52
What is a key component of incident response plans?
Ignoring incidents
No communication
Clear roles and responsibilities
Random actions
53
What does Zero Trust aim to prevent?
Limited access
No access at all
Authorized access
Unauthorized access
54
What is a key aspect of crisis communication plans?
Clear messaging guidelines
No guidelines
Random messages
Delayed responses
55
How can organizations support affected customers?
Delay support
Spread misinformation
Ignore concerns
Offer credit monitoring
56
What does checksum ensure?
Data is lost
Data was tampered
Data remains unchanged
Data was modified
57
What does RBAC ensure for users?
Limited access only
Access to all resources
Access to necessary resources
No access at all
58
Why incorporate lessons learned into response plans?
Increase confusion
Delay actions
Reduce transparency
Improve future response
59
Which is a common implementation for risk management?
User access log
Incident report
Data backup plan
Risk register
60
What is a system image?
A memory dump
A system snapshot
A data backup
A file type
61
What is Zero Trust's core principle?
Always Trust, Never Verify
Never Trust, Always Verify
Verify but Trust
Trust but Verify
62
What does continuous authorization involve?
User self-assessment
Periodic checks only
Ongoing monitoring and decisions
One-time verification
63
What should be included in a vulnerability management plan?
Regular scanning and patching
Only annual reviews
Ignoring vulnerabilities
No documentation
64
What is a memory dump?
Snapshot of RAM
File recovery
Data encryption
Data backup
65
True or false: Anomalous activity indicates normal behavior.
False
True
66
How can organizations validate updated strategies?
Random checks
No testing
Periodic testing
Ignore feedback
67
What is the role of continuous authorization?
Adjust access permissions
Ignore user behavior
Set static permissions
Limit access to admins only
68
True or false: All users need full access.
False
True
69
What is the purpose of sharing incident information?
Coordinate response
Increase confusion
Reduce transparency
Delay actions
70
What is the first step in forensics?
Data analysis
Data collection
Data storage
Data deletion
71
Why is version-controlled documentation important?
Access latest procedures
Confuse stakeholders
Ignore updates
Delay recovery
72
What is the goal of monitoring access?
Simplify processes
Reduce costs
Detect unauthorized access
Increase user access
73
What is the first step in incident containment?
Notify stakeholders
Isolate systems
Analyze impact
Execute plan
74
What is a best practice for identity management?
Use weak passwords
Ignore user roles
Limit access to all
Use single sign-on
75
How can feedback loops improve recovery plans?
Delay updates
Ensure alignment
Create confusion
Ignore improvements
76
What is the role of a Response Coordinator?
Track incidents
Analyze threats
Contain malware
Initiate calls
77
True or false: RBAC assigns permissions based on roles.
True
False
78
How do automated tools aid recovery?
Increase errors
Slow down process
Reduce manual errors
Complicate tasks
79
What is a common method for protecting data-in-transit?
Plain text transfer
Transport-level encryption
Unencrypted emails
Open networks
80
What should organizations understand during incidents?
Scope of the incident
Duration of the incident
Cost of the incident
Number of users affected
81
What is the purpose of post-incident reviews?
Identify root causes
Delay response
Increase confusion
Reduce transparency
82
What is the role of a forensics technician?
To hide evidence
To delete files
To document processes
To alter data
83
What is the purpose of a risk appetite statement?
Increases risk exposure
Defines acceptable risks
Limits security measures
Reduces compliance needs
84
Which platform maintains audit trail of communications?
Incident management tool
Firewall
VPN
SIEM
85
What is a best practice for data destruction?
Throwing in trash
Burning files
Shredding documents
Ignoring policies
86
What is the benefit of updating response strategies?
Prepare for threats
Reduce transparency
Delay actions
Increase confusion
87
Why is a formal incident response plan important?
Reduces transparency
Delays response
Minimizes damage
Increases confusion
88
What should be included in a containment strategy?
Execute plan
Isolate systems
Notify stakeholders
Analyze impact
89
Which technology helps protect physical access?
Email verification
Password protection
Social media checks
Biometric systems
90
How should maintenance activities be logged?
Not at all
Only for major repairs
Randomly
With detailed records
91
What helps in monitoring external service providers?
Random checks
No contracts needed
Formal monitoring requirements
Ignoring third parties
92
What does file signature indicate?
File owner
File location
File type
File size
93
What helps prioritize response efforts?
Stakeholder meeting
System audit
Runbook review
Impact assessment
94
True or false: Detection processes should remain static.
False
True
95
What triggers escalating reporting actions?
Stakeholder meeting
Incident classification
System audit
Runbook review
96
What is a key aspect of supply chain risk management?
Ignoring vendor security
Limiting supplier contracts
Vetting new suppliers
Reducing supplier costs
97
Which data source is NOT used in forensics?
System logs
Network traffic
Random user input
Memory dumps
98
True or false: Metadata is irrelevant in forensics.
False
True
99
What is a best practice for detection processes?
Ignoring tests
Random evaluations
Regular testing
No documentation
100
Why is empathy important in post-incident communication?
Spreads fear
Delays recovery
Increases distrust
Rebuilds trust
101
What does 'magic numbers' refer to?
File encryption keys
File size indicators
File owner details
File type identifiers
102
What is the role of public relations in recovery?
Spread misinformation
Ignore stakeholders
Maintain stakeholder trust
Delay communication
103
What helps in understanding attack methods?
Random guessing
Using outdated data
Ignoring event logs
Thorough event analysis
104
What should be established for alert thresholds?
Ignoring alerts
Vague guidelines
Clear escalation criteria
No thresholds needed
105
What is a key benefit of maintaining an asset inventory?
Reduces attack surface
Increases costs
Complicates management
Limits access control
106
Why conduct forensic analysis?
Uncover root cause
Increase confusion
Reduce transparency
Delay response
107
True or false: Physical security and cybersecurity should be coordinated.
True
False
108
What is a benefit of MFA?
Only password needed
One form of ID
No ID required
Two forms of ID
109
How often should access permissions be reviewed?
Once a year
Regularly
Every month
Never
110
What is the benefit of investigating alerts promptly?
Increase confusion
Delay response
Reduce transparency
Identify threats early
111
True or false: Asset management is crucial for identifying vulnerabilities.
False
True
112
True or false: All users should have the same access level.
True
False
113
True or false: Regular audits are unnecessary for software management.
True
False
114
What is the primary goal of recovery planning?
Increase profits
Expand business
Reduce staff
Minimize downtime
115
Which strategy helps repair reputation post-incident?
Blame others
Ignore issues
Secrecy
Transparent communication
116
What is the impact of timely recovery communication?
Delays recovery
Increases panic
Reduces confusion
Spreads rumors
117
True or false: Regular backups are unnecessary.
False
True
118
What is a RACI matrix used for?
Contain malware
Track incidents
Define roles
Analyze threats
119
Which tool helps in automated asset discovery?
Firewall
Network scanner
Antivirus software
Data backup tool
120
What is a key feature of Zero Trust?
Trust by default
Always verify access
Occasional checks
Limited verification
121
What is a key principle of access management?
No restrictions
Least privilege
Random access
Maximum access
122
ZTAA manages access to an organization's?
Data
Users
Devices
Applications
123
True or false: Steganography is a data recovery method.
True
False
124
What is a common implementation for recovery improvements?
No documentation
Random changes
Ignore past events
Lessons learned register
125
Which principle is least privilege?
Full access for all
Maximum access
Least Privilege Access
No access restrictions
126
Which tool helps track compliance with regulations?
Email notifications
Social media updates
Manual logs
GRC platform
127
What is a benefit of centralized collaboration platforms?
Increased confusion
No updates
Delayed communication
Real-time updates
128
True or false: Users access only needed apps.
False
True
129
What is the benefit of a centralized incident management system?
Increase confusion
Organize response
Reduce transparency
Delay actions
130
True or false: Chain of custody is unimportant.
False
True
131
What is the purpose of a system log?
To track system events
To store user data
To delete files
To encrypt data
132
What is crucial for effective crisis communication?
Designated spokespersons
Random speakers
Delayed response
No guidelines
133
True or false: Continuous improvement is optional.
True
False
134
What ensures consistent incident categorization?
System audit
Defined categories
Stakeholder meeting
Runbook review
135
True or false: Regular training is unnecessary for cybersecurity roles.
True
False
136
What does volatile memory refer to?
File metadata
Backup files
Permanent storage
Temporary data
137
True or false: Data-at-rest does not need protection.
True
False
138
Which is a common implementation for vulnerability management?
Manual reviews only
Ignoring vulnerabilities
Automated scans
One-time assessments
139
True or false: Cybersecurity training is optional for employees.
False
True
140
Which framework helps in risk management?
ISO 9001
NIST SP 800-53
ISO 31000
ISO 14001
141
What is file carving used for?
Recovering deleted files
Creating backups
Encrypting data
Analyzing memory
142
What helps detect unauthorized access?
Random checks
Physical security measures
No monitoring needed
Ignoring physical spaces
143
What role do legal teams play in communication?
Delay responses
Ignore facts
Ensure accuracy
Spread rumors
144
True or false: All data should be encrypted at rest.
True
False
145
Which principle aligns with ZTAA?
Only one principle
None of the above
All of the above
Some principles
146
What is a key aspect of ZTN?
Data backups
Periodic reviews
User training
Continuous monitoring
147
Is there one standard for Zero Trust?
False
True
148
What is the significance of a checksum?
To verify data integrity
To speed up processes
To delete files
To hide data
149
True or false: Zero Trust is outdated.
False
True
150
Which principle does Zero Trust reject?
Always Trust, Never Verify
Verify but Trust
Never Trust, Always Verify
Trust but Verify
151
Which is not a ZTA step?
Deploy firewalls
Assess risks
Implement policies
Monitor access
152
What does Zero Trust focus on?
Trust but verify
Assume Breach
Open access
User convenience
153
What does 'volatile' mean in forensics?
Temporary
Hidden
Permanent
Encrypted
154
What should be communicated during detection?
Only internal emails
No communication needed
Detection alerts
Ignoring alerts
155
Which is a common implementation for monitoring?
No monitoring tools
Manual checks only
CCTV systems
Basic alarms
156
Why is stakeholder communication important in recovery?
Delays decisions
Increases panic
Spreads misinformation
Reduces uncertainty
157
Which tool guides real-time response workflow?
Ticketing system
SIEM
Firewall
VPN
158
What is the purpose of documenting data transfers?
To hide information
To ensure accountability
To confuse investigators
To speed up processes
159
What enhances access control in Zero Trust?
Role-Based Access Control
Simple access control
No access control
Attribute-Based Access Control
160
True or false: File carving can recover deleted files.
True
False
161
What is the main goal of computer forensics?
Recover lost data
Delete unwanted files
Preserve evidence
Encrypt sensitive data
162
What should be aligned with recovery strategies?
No objectives
Personal opinions
Random goals
Business objectives
163
Key aspects of ZTN do not include?
Data encryption
User authentication
Meeting regulatory compliance
Access control
164
True or false: Remote access should be unrestricted.
True
False

IA Final Flashcards | StudBud

IA Final

164 termsStudBud Administration4 plays

Imported from external platform

Flashcards164 cardsFPractice quizPHost liveL

Questions 164

Answers

1
True or false: Cybersecurity policies should be regularly reviewed.
False
True
2
What is the role of automated containment tools?
Block malicious processes
Analyze threats
Contain malware
Track incidents
3
Why is stakeholder briefing frequency important?
Spreads misinformation
Ensures informed decisions
Creates confusion
Delays actions
4
Which is a common implementation for vulnerability scans?
Ignoring scans
Automated tools
No tools needed
Manual checks only
5
True or false: Continuous monitoring is unnecessary.
False
True
6
What is essential for continuous improvement?
Random updates
Ignoring past incidents
No evaluations
Feedback loop
7
True or false: Identity management reduces unauthorized access risks.
True
False
8
True or false: Identity proof is always needed.
True
False
9
True or false: MFA requires one form of ID.
True
False
10
What is a benefit of conducting business impact analyses?
Limit resource allocation
Estimate costs of downtime
Increase operational risks
Reduce compliance efforts
11
How can organizations reduce misinformation impact?
Ignore rumors
Delay response
Monitor social media
Spread false news
12
Which exercise validates response processes?
Tabletop exercise
System audit
Runbook review
Stakeholder meeting
13
What should be done with newly identified vulnerabilities?
Contain malware
Track incidents
Mitigate or document
Analyze threats
14
What does mapping data flows identify?
Data types
Data destinations
Data sizes
Data origins
15
What is vital for detecting malicious code?
Behavior-based tools
No tools needed
Random scans
Ignoring updates
16
Why involve cross-functional teams in recovery?
Delay recovery
Increase costs
Reduce communication
Validate coordination
17
Which practice ensures recovery plan effectiveness?
Random changes
Regular testing
No documentation
Ignoring updates
18
Which tool aids in capturing traffic patterns?
Manual logs
Old routers
NetFlow analyzers
Basic firewalls
19
What does Zero Trust prioritize?
Trust over verification
Verification over trust
User self-assessment
Random checks
20
What is essential for impact assessment?
Ignoring data sensitivity
Only IT involvement
Random evaluations
Formal assessment process
21
What is a benefit of using multi-factor authentication?
Slower access
Increased security
More passwords to remember
Less user control
22
What is crucial for identifying anomalies?
Ignoring data flows
Using outdated tools
Defining normal behavior
Random monitoring
23
Why share threat intelligence with external parties?
Increase confusion
Delay actions
Reduce transparency
Build collective defense
24
Select tools that fit within?
None of the above
Only budget
Technology and budgetary
Only technology
25
True or false: Supply chain risks are irrelevant to cybersecurity.
True
False
26
What is a key benefit of lessons learned?
Improved future recovery
Increased downtime
Higher costs
More errors
27
Micro-segmentation limits the spread of?
Threats
Data
Applications
Users
28
What is a benefit of structured communication plans?
Builds trust
Reduces clarity
Increases confusion
Delays recovery
29
What is the last step in forensics?
Data deletion
Data storage
Data analysis
Data collection
30
True or false: External systems should be catalogued for security.
False
True
31
What is steganography?
Data recovery
Data analysis
Data encryption
Data concealment
32
True or false: Anomaly detection is part of forensics.
True
False
33
What is a vulnerability disclosure policy?
Report potential issues
Analyze threats
Contain malware
Track incidents
34
What is the first step in response planning?
Execute plan
Analyze impact
Notify stakeholders
Contain incident
35
What is the goal of incident mitigation?
Restore operations
Reduce transparency
Increase confusion
Delay response
36
True or false: Categorizing data helps protect it.
False
True
37
True or false: ABAC uses user attributes.
True
False
38
What is the goal of incident response planning?
Minimize downtime
Increase costs
Reduce staff training
Limit communication
39
What does SBOM stand for?
Software Base of Management
System Backup of Materials
Security Bill of Management
Software Bill of Materials
40
True or false: Cybersecurity roles should be clearly defined.
False
True
41
Which is a common ZTA step?
Increase firewall rules
Ignore user roles
Create Access Policies
Limit data access
42
What is a best practice for managing third-party risks?
Ignore vendor security
Regular assessments
Use outdated contracts
Limit vendor access
43
How does ABAC enhance security?
Granular access control
No access control
Broad access control
Simple access control
44
True or false: Policies need regular updates.
False
True
45
Which document outlines cybersecurity roles?
Incident report
Compliance matrix
Data flow diagram
RACI chart
46
What is a VEX document?
A security advisory
A software update
A vulnerability report
A compliance document
47
How often should recovery strategies be reviewed?
Once a decade
Quarterly or biannually
Never
Daily
48
Why is mapping data flows important?
Reduces data usage
Limits data access
Identifies security gaps
Increases data storage
49
Which access control uses various attributes?
Discretionary Access Control
Role-Based Access Control
Attribute-Based Access Control
Mandatory Access Control
50
An application-centric approach includes?
Only user access
All of the above
Only security measures
Only data management
51
True or false: User activity monitoring is optional.
False
True
52
What is a key component of incident response plans?
Ignoring incidents
No communication
Clear roles and responsibilities
Random actions
53
What does Zero Trust aim to prevent?
Limited access
No access at all
Authorized access
Unauthorized access
54
What is a key aspect of crisis communication plans?
Clear messaging guidelines
No guidelines
Random messages
Delayed responses
55
How can organizations support affected customers?
Delay support
Spread misinformation
Ignore concerns
Offer credit monitoring
56
What does checksum ensure?
Data is lost
Data was tampered
Data remains unchanged
Data was modified
57
What does RBAC ensure for users?
Limited access only
Access to all resources
Access to necessary resources
No access at all
58
Why incorporate lessons learned into response plans?
Increase confusion
Delay actions
Reduce transparency
Improve future response
59
Which is a common implementation for risk management?
User access log
Incident report
Data backup plan
Risk register
60
What is a system image?
A memory dump
A system snapshot
A data backup
A file type
61
What is Zero Trust's core principle?
Always Trust, Never Verify
Never Trust, Always Verify
Verify but Trust
Trust but Verify
62
What does continuous authorization involve?
User self-assessment
Periodic checks only
Ongoing monitoring and decisions
One-time verification
63
What should be included in a vulnerability management plan?
Regular scanning and patching
Only annual reviews
Ignoring vulnerabilities
No documentation
64
What is a memory dump?
Snapshot of RAM
File recovery
Data encryption
Data backup
65
True or false: Anomalous activity indicates normal behavior.
False
True
66
How can organizations validate updated strategies?
Random checks
No testing
Periodic testing
Ignore feedback
67
What is the role of continuous authorization?
Adjust access permissions
Ignore user behavior
Set static permissions
Limit access to admins only
68
True or false: All users need full access.
False
True
69
What is the purpose of sharing incident information?
Coordinate response
Increase confusion
Reduce transparency
Delay actions
70
What is the first step in forensics?
Data analysis
Data collection
Data storage
Data deletion
71
Why is version-controlled documentation important?
Access latest procedures
Confuse stakeholders
Ignore updates
Delay recovery
72
What is the goal of monitoring access?
Simplify processes
Reduce costs
Detect unauthorized access
Increase user access
73
What is the first step in incident containment?
Notify stakeholders
Isolate systems
Analyze impact
Execute plan
74
What is a best practice for identity management?
Use weak passwords
Ignore user roles
Limit access to all
Use single sign-on
75
How can feedback loops improve recovery plans?
Delay updates
Ensure alignment
Create confusion
Ignore improvements
76
What is the role of a Response Coordinator?
Track incidents
Analyze threats
Contain malware
Initiate calls
77
True or false: RBAC assigns permissions based on roles.
True
False
78
How do automated tools aid recovery?
Increase errors
Slow down process
Reduce manual errors
Complicate tasks
79
What is a common method for protecting data-in-transit?
Plain text transfer
Transport-level encryption
Unencrypted emails
Open networks
80
What should organizations understand during incidents?
Scope of the incident
Duration of the incident
Cost of the incident
Number of users affected
81
What is the purpose of post-incident reviews?
Identify root causes
Delay response
Increase confusion
Reduce transparency
82
What is the role of a forensics technician?
To hide evidence
To delete files
To document processes
To alter data
83
What is the purpose of a risk appetite statement?
Increases risk exposure
Defines acceptable risks
Limits security measures
Reduces compliance needs
84
Which platform maintains audit trail of communications?
Incident management tool
Firewall
VPN
SIEM
85
What is a best practice for data destruction?
Throwing in trash
Burning files
Shredding documents
Ignoring policies
86
What is the benefit of updating response strategies?
Prepare for threats
Reduce transparency
Delay actions
Increase confusion
87
Why is a formal incident response plan important?
Reduces transparency
Delays response
Minimizes damage
Increases confusion
88
What should be included in a containment strategy?
Execute plan
Isolate systems
Notify stakeholders
Analyze impact
89
Which technology helps protect physical access?
Email verification
Password protection
Social media checks
Biometric systems
90
How should maintenance activities be logged?
Not at all
Only for major repairs
Randomly
With detailed records
91
What helps in monitoring external service providers?
Random checks
No contracts needed
Formal monitoring requirements
Ignoring third parties
92
What does file signature indicate?
File owner
File location
File type
File size
93
What helps prioritize response efforts?
Stakeholder meeting
System audit
Runbook review
Impact assessment
94
True or false: Detection processes should remain static.
False
True
95
What triggers escalating reporting actions?
Stakeholder meeting
Incident classification
System audit
Runbook review
96
What is a key aspect of supply chain risk management?
Ignoring vendor security
Limiting supplier contracts
Vetting new suppliers
Reducing supplier costs
97
Which data source is NOT used in forensics?
System logs
Network traffic
Random user input
Memory dumps
98
True or false: Metadata is irrelevant in forensics.
False
True
99
What is a best practice for detection processes?
Ignoring tests
Random evaluations
Regular testing
No documentation
100
Why is empathy important in post-incident communication?
Spreads fear
Delays recovery
Increases distrust
Rebuilds trust
101
What does 'magic numbers' refer to?
File encryption keys
File size indicators
File owner details
File type identifiers
102
What is the role of public relations in recovery?
Spread misinformation
Ignore stakeholders
Maintain stakeholder trust
Delay communication
103
What helps in understanding attack methods?
Random guessing
Using outdated data
Ignoring event logs
Thorough event analysis
104
What should be established for alert thresholds?
Ignoring alerts
Vague guidelines
Clear escalation criteria
No thresholds needed
105
What is a key benefit of maintaining an asset inventory?
Reduces attack surface
Increases costs
Complicates management
Limits access control
106
Why conduct forensic analysis?
Uncover root cause
Increase confusion
Reduce transparency
Delay response
107
True or false: Physical security and cybersecurity should be coordinated.
True
False
108
What is a benefit of MFA?
Only password needed
One form of ID
No ID required
Two forms of ID
109
How often should access permissions be reviewed?
Once a year
Regularly
Every month
Never
110
What is the benefit of investigating alerts promptly?
Increase confusion
Delay response
Reduce transparency
Identify threats early
111
True or false: Asset management is crucial for identifying vulnerabilities.
False
True
112
True or false: All users should have the same access level.
True
False
113
True or false: Regular audits are unnecessary for software management.
True
False
114
What is the primary goal of recovery planning?
Increase profits
Expand business
Reduce staff
Minimize downtime
115
Which strategy helps repair reputation post-incident?
Blame others
Ignore issues
Secrecy
Transparent communication
116
What is the impact of timely recovery communication?
Delays recovery
Increases panic
Reduces confusion
Spreads rumors
117
True or false: Regular backups are unnecessary.
False
True
118
What is a RACI matrix used for?
Contain malware
Track incidents
Define roles
Analyze threats
119
Which tool helps in automated asset discovery?
Firewall
Network scanner
Antivirus software
Data backup tool
120
What is a key feature of Zero Trust?
Trust by default
Always verify access
Occasional checks
Limited verification
121
What is a key principle of access management?
No restrictions
Least privilege
Random access
Maximum access
122
ZTAA manages access to an organization's?
Data
Users
Devices
Applications
123
True or false: Steganography is a data recovery method.
True
False
124
What is a common implementation for recovery improvements?
No documentation
Random changes
Ignore past events
Lessons learned register
125
Which principle is least privilege?
Full access for all
Maximum access
Least Privilege Access
No access restrictions
126
Which tool helps track compliance with regulations?
Email notifications
Social media updates
Manual logs
GRC platform
127
What is a benefit of centralized collaboration platforms?
Increased confusion
No updates
Delayed communication
Real-time updates
128
True or false: Users access only needed apps.
False
True
129
What is the benefit of a centralized incident management system?
Increase confusion
Organize response
Reduce transparency
Delay actions
130
True or false: Chain of custody is unimportant.
False
True
131
What is the purpose of a system log?
To track system events
To store user data
To delete files
To encrypt data
132
What is crucial for effective crisis communication?
Designated spokespersons
Random speakers
Delayed response
No guidelines
133
True or false: Continuous improvement is optional.
True
False
134
What ensures consistent incident categorization?
System audit
Defined categories
Stakeholder meeting
Runbook review
135
True or false: Regular training is unnecessary for cybersecurity roles.
True
False
136
What does volatile memory refer to?
File metadata
Backup files
Permanent storage
Temporary data
137
True or false: Data-at-rest does not need protection.
True
False
138
Which is a common implementation for vulnerability management?
Manual reviews only
Ignoring vulnerabilities
Automated scans
One-time assessments
139
True or false: Cybersecurity training is optional for employees.
False
True
140
Which framework helps in risk management?
ISO 9001
NIST SP 800-53
ISO 31000
ISO 14001
141
What is file carving used for?
Recovering deleted files
Creating backups
Encrypting data
Analyzing memory
142
What helps detect unauthorized access?
Random checks
Physical security measures
No monitoring needed
Ignoring physical spaces
143
What role do legal teams play in communication?
Delay responses
Ignore facts
Ensure accuracy
Spread rumors
144
True or false: All data should be encrypted at rest.
True
False
145
Which principle aligns with ZTAA?
Only one principle
None of the above
All of the above
Some principles
146
What is a key aspect of ZTN?
Data backups
Periodic reviews
User training
Continuous monitoring
147
Is there one standard for Zero Trust?
False
True
148
What is the significance of a checksum?
To verify data integrity
To speed up processes
To delete files
To hide data
149
True or false: Zero Trust is outdated.
False
True
150
Which principle does Zero Trust reject?
Always Trust, Never Verify
Verify but Trust
Never Trust, Always Verify
Trust but Verify
151
Which is not a ZTA step?
Deploy firewalls
Assess risks
Implement policies
Monitor access
152
What does Zero Trust focus on?
Trust but verify
Assume Breach
Open access
User convenience
153
What does 'volatile' mean in forensics?
Temporary
Hidden
Permanent
Encrypted
154
What should be communicated during detection?
Only internal emails
No communication needed
Detection alerts
Ignoring alerts
155
Which is a common implementation for monitoring?
No monitoring tools
Manual checks only
CCTV systems
Basic alarms
156
Why is stakeholder communication important in recovery?
Delays decisions
Increases panic
Spreads misinformation
Reduces uncertainty
157
Which tool guides real-time response workflow?
Ticketing system
SIEM
Firewall
VPN
158
What is the purpose of documenting data transfers?
To hide information
To ensure accountability
To confuse investigators
To speed up processes
159
What enhances access control in Zero Trust?
Role-Based Access Control
Simple access control
No access control
Attribute-Based Access Control
160
True or false: File carving can recover deleted files.
True
False
161
What is the main goal of computer forensics?
Recover lost data
Delete unwanted files
Preserve evidence
Encrypt sensitive data
162
What should be aligned with recovery strategies?
No objectives
Personal opinions
Random goals
Business objectives
163
Key aspects of ZTN do not include?
Data encryption
User authentication
Meeting regulatory compliance
Access control
164
True or false: Remote access should be unrestricted.
True
False