2/12 Trivia Night

Question 1

41. A client with Guillain-Barré syndrome is at greatest risk for which complication?

Accepted Answer

Respiratory failure

Question 2

31. (SATA) Which symptoms indicate compartment syndrome?

Accepted Answer

Severe pain unrelieved by opioids, Paresthesia (numbness, tingling), Pallor in affected limb

Question 3

18. A client with Addison’s disease is admitted with acute adrenal crisis. Which action is priority?

Accepted Answer

Administer IV hydrocortisone

Question 4

23. A client with peptic ulcer disease reports black, tarry stools. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Accepted Answer

Assess for signs of hemorrhage

Question 5

6. (SATA) Which conditions are absolute contraindications to thrombolytic therapy?

Accepted Answer

Severe hypertension (SBP >180), Recent hemorrhagic stroke, Active bleeding

Question 6

27. (SATA) Which medications increase bleeding risk in clients on warfarin?

Accepted Answer

Aspirin, Ibuprofen, Ginkgo biloba

Question 7

34. (SATA) Which are modifiable risk factors for stroke?

Accepted Answer

Hypertension, Diabetes, Smoking

Question 8

8. (SATA) Which are clinical signs of cardiac tamponade?

Accepted Answer

Muffled heart sounds, Hypotension, JVD (jugular vein distension)

Question 9

46. (SATA) A nurse is teaching a client with peripheral arterial disease (PAD). What instructions should be included?

Accepted Answer

Dangle legs when experiencing pain, Stop smoking, Avoid crossing legs

Question 10

29. (SATA) Which nursing interventions are essential for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN)?

Accepted Answer

Monitor blood glucose levels, Change tubing every 24 hours, Assess for infection

Question 11

15. A client is in septic shock. What is the initial priority intervention?

Accepted Answer

Administer IV fluids

Question 12

21. A client with diabetes presents with confusion, sweating, and tremors. What is the priority action?

Accepted Answer

Give 15g glucose orally

Question 13

30. A client with septic shock receives norepinephrine. What finding indicates it is effective?

Accepted Answer

Increased blood pressure

Question 14

39. A nurse is caring for a client with a deep partial-thickness burn. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

Accepted Answer

Hoarse voice and difficulty swallowing

Question 15

5. A client with myasthenia gravis is given edrophonium. What indicates a myasthenic crisis?

Accepted Answer

Improved muscle strength

Question 16

49. A client is prescribed lithium for bipolar disorder. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

Accepted Answer

New-onset tremors and diarrhea

Question 17

13. A client with pancreatitis has a positive Cullen’s sign. What does this indicate?

Accepted Answer

Retroperitoneal bleeding

Question 18

1. Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely in a patient with prolonged NG suctioning?

Accepted Answer

Hypokalemia

Question 19

40. (SATA) Which conditions increase a client’s risk for osteoporosis?

Accepted Answer

Smoking, Long-term corticosteroid use, Postmenopausal status

Question 20

4. (SATA) Which medications require frequent blood level monitoring?

Accepted Answer

Lithium, Vancomycin, Phenytoin

Question 21

37. (SATA) Which assessment findings suggest a client is experiencing a fat embolism?

Accepted Answer

Hypoxemia, Petechiae over chest, Altered mental status

Question 22

16. A client with suspected meningitis exhibits nuchal rigidity. Which other sign confirms the diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Positive Kernig’s sign

Question 23

42. A client with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. Which statement indicates a need for further teaching?

Accepted Answer

"I will increase my intake of green leafy vegetables."

Question 24

19. (SATA) Which findings indicate hyperthyroidism?

Accepted Answer

Weight loss, Tachycardia, Heat intolerance

Question 25

14. (SATA) Which medications can cause ototoxicity?

Accepted Answer

Gentamicin, Aspirin (high doses), Furosemide (high doses)

Question 26

48. (SATA) Which actions help prevent aspiration pneumonia in a client with dysphagia?

Accepted Answer

Have suction available, Sit the client upright while eating, Encourage slow, small bites

Question 27

17. (SATA) Which clients are at highest risk for developing metabolic acidosis?

Accepted Answer

Client with severe diarrhea, End-stage renal disease (ESRD) patient, Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) patient

Question 28

47. A client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is receiving IV insulin. Which lab value should be monitored most closely?

Accepted Answer

Potassium level

Question 29

3. A client on warfarin has an INR of 5.2. What is the priority nursing action?

Accepted Answer

Administer vitamin K

Question 30

44. A client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) develops sudden confusion. What should the nurse assess first?

Accepted Answer

Blood glucose level

Question 31

11. A client with SIADH will likely have which lab abnormality?

Accepted Answer

Hyponatremia

Question 32

12. (SATA) What signs suggest peritonitis in a client with peritoneal dialysis?

Accepted Answer

Fever, Cloudy effluent, Abdominal pain

Question 33

22. (SATA) Which conditions can cause SIADH?

Accepted Answer

Traumatic brain injury (TBI), Stroke, Small cell lung cancer

Question 34

7. A client with DKA has rapid improvement in glucose but remains confused. What should the nurse assess?

Accepted Answer

Potassium levels

Question 35

45. A client with acute pancreatitis is experiencing severe epigastric pain. Which position is best?

Accepted Answer

Side-lying with knees flexed

Question 36

43. (SATA) Which symptoms suggest right-sided heart failure?

Accepted Answer

Peripheral edema, Hepatomegaly, Jugular vein distension (JVD)

Question 37

10. (SATA) What interventions reduce ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) risk?

Accepted Answer

Oral care with chlorhexidine, HOB elevated 30-45 degrees, Daily sedation vacations

Question 38

9. A client on furosemide reports muscle cramps and weakness. What imbalance is suspected?

Accepted Answer

Hypokalemia

Question 39

38. A client with an NG tube for decompression begins vomiting. What is the nurse’s first action?

Accepted Answer

Check tube placement

Question 40

25. (SATA) What are expected findings in Cushing’s syndrome?

Accepted Answer

Moon face, Buffalo hump, Hypertension

Question 41

26. A client with heart failure is prescribed spironolactone. What dietary change should the nurse recommend?

Accepted Answer

Avoid potassium-rich foods

Question 42

20. A nurse prepares to administer digoxin to a client. Which finding requires holding the dose?

Accepted Answer

Apical pulse 48 bpm

Question 43

36. A client with cirrhosis has an elevated ammonia level. Which diet is most appropriate?

Accepted Answer

Low-fat diet, High-protein diet, Low-protein diet, High-carbohydrate diet

Question 44

35. A client with status epilepticus receives IV lorazepam. What assessment is priority?

Accepted Answer

Respiratory rate

Question 45

24. A client with a DVT develops sudden dyspnea. What is the priority intervention?

Accepted Answer

Administer oxygen

Question 46

28. A client with hypocalcemia is likely to exhibit which sign?

Accepted Answer

Positive Chvostek’s sign

Question 47

32. A client with COPD has an SpO2 of 89%. What should the nurse do?

Accepted Answer

Maintain current oxygen therapy

Question 48

33. A client receiving vancomycin develops red man syndrome. What is the priority action?

Accepted Answer

Slow the infusion rate

Question 49

2. (SATA) Which are early signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?

Accepted Answer

Headache, Vomiting, Blurred vision

Question 50

50. A client with anaphylaxis is receiving epinephrine. What assessment finding suggests improvement?

Accepted Answer

Increased blood pressure

2/12 Trivia Night

Questions 50

2/12 Trivia Night

Questions 50