duration of action for propofol is

less than alfaxalone, less than ketamine

animals assigned a ASA status of P3

may have significant dental disease

when inducing a patient with IV ketamine

length of time between boluses is longer than if using alfaxalone

which is correct patient prep prior to anesthesia for an 8 mth old DSH having routine spay at OC

withold food for 8-12 hours, water for 2 hours

which feature is untrue regarding rebreathe systems

low volume of waste gas produced

a pressure reducing valve

Decreases pressure of gas being supplied to the intermediate pressure lines

which two classes of drugs inhibits pain pathway at transmission level

Local anesthetics and Alpha 2 agonsits

which are correct lists of patient signalment

breed, age, weight, species, gender, species, name, reproductive status

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Anesthesia final patient prep- delivery

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Answers

1
on an anesthetic machine the fresh gas is
what leaves the breathing circuit
what leaves the flow meter
what leaves the vaporizer
what leaves the oxygen in the tank
2
(MAC) is the lowest concentration of inhalant agent that produces no response to pain in what percent of patients
60%
55%
50%
45%
3
duration of action for propofol is
longer than alfaxalone
less than alfaxalone
less than ketamine
longer than ketamine
4
which is not an effect of phenothiazines
reduced seizure threshold
vasodilation
arrhythmogenic
hypotension
5
opioid with longest duration is
oxymorphone
hydromorphone
buprenorphine
fentanyl
6
we can't rely on alpha 2 agonists to control pain for multiple teeth extractions because of
short duration
inadequate pain control
7
which two drugs are not controlled
lidocaine
ketamine
butorphanol
xylazine
8
the gas released when depressing oxygen flush valve is 100% oxygen
False
True
9
neuroleptanalgesia is induced by administering an opioid and a sedative/tranquilizer
False
True
10
recovery period can be one of most dangerous points in anesthetic procedure. all are complications that may occur except
cardiac arrhythmias, vomiting
hyperglycemia ,hyperthermia
airway obstruction
hypoxemia
11
what are two signs of overhydration you would see on recovery but not under anesthesia
serous nasal discharge
restlessness
dyspnea
coughing
12
what is the infusion rate for a 48 kg dog at olds college standard fluid rate
240 mls/hr
144 mls/hr
2880 mls/hr
480 mls/hr
13
which point in the pain pathway is associated with an external stimulus being converted into an electrical signal
modulation
transmission
transduction
perception
14
body temperature can affect the MAC of an inhalation agent
False
True
15
animals assigned a ASA status of P3
are not expected to survive without surgery
may have significant dental disease
have concurrent mild, non systemic disease
are routinely given same anesthetic protocols as OVH
16
when inducing a patient with IV ketamine
most common side effect of injecting too slow is hypotension
length of time between boluses is longer than if using alfaxalone
length of time between boluses is shorter than if using propofol
most common side effect of injecting to rapid is apnea
17
ketamine provides good visceral anesthesia
False
True
18
which alpha 2 agonist commonly causes vomiting in dogs/cats
Acepromazine
Midazolam
Hydromorphone
Xylazine
19
AHT does not need to conduct PE prior to anesthesia if vet already completed one
False
True
20
in most cases the pressure mamometer should be no higher than ___ when patients are connected to the anesthetic machine
40 cm of H2O
20 mm Hg
20 cm of H2O
40 psi
21
the drip rate for a 2.7 kg cat at olds college standard fluid rate
1 drop / 7 seconds
1 drop / 22 seconds
1 drop /6 seconds
1 drop/ 4 seconds
22
this machine has
only a rebreathe
only a non rebreathe
rebreathe and non rebreathe
23
5.5 kg cat is having a dental, what O2 flow rate will they be at and with what size rebreathe bag
1.7 L/min, 0.5L
1.2 L/min, 1.5 L
3.5 L/min, 3L
1.0 L/min, 2.5 L
24
which is not a beneficial effect of benzodiazepines
analgesia
anti-convulsant
sedation (can be unreliable)
muscle relaxation
25
inhalation agents with a high vapor pressure
do not evaporate readily
have a maximum useful level in fresh gas of 30%
are agents such as methoxyflurane
require a precision vaporizer
26
ketamine and amantadine are NDMA receptor agonists
True
False
27
inhalation agents are delivered through an anesthetic machine with a precision vaporizer specific to agent being used
True
False
28
correct order for the pain pathway is 1.transduction, 2.perception, 3.transmission, 4.modulation
False
True
29
which of the following is most common way to maintain general anesthesia
with an inhalation agent
with an IM injection
with repeat IV boluses
with constant rate infusion
30
What is not a sign of overhydration during anesthesia
cough
serous nasal discharge
panting
vomiting
31
pop off valve must be closed when patient is attached to anesthetic machine
False
True
32
maintaining patient on isoflurane 3% or > results in vasodilation, leads to hypotension and decreased tissue perfusion
True
False
33
which is not an example of a crystaloid
Saline
Hetastrach
LRS
Plasma-lyte
34
which is correct patient prep prior to anesthesia for an 8 mth old DSH having routine spay at OC
withhold food and water for 2 hours
withold food and water for 8-12 hours
withold food for 8-12 hours, water for 2 hours
withhold food and water for 24 hours
35
which feature is untrue regarding rebreathe systems
conserves heat and moisture
quickly allows for changes in anesthetic depth
increased cost of operation
low volume of waste gas produced
36
which induction agent causes decreased cardiac output, induction apnea,and tissue sloughing if injected perivascularly
ketamine
etomidate
propofol
thiopental
37
which is the most potent opioid
hydromorphone
morphine
oxymorphone
buprenorphine
38
calculation used to determine necessary size of reservoir bag
60 ml/kg
50 mls/kg
40 mls/kg
70 mls/kg
39
which term describes administering analgesia before surgery
preemptive analgesia
Preventative analgesia
Prescriptive analgesia
presumptive analgesia
40
inhalation anesthetic agents are more dependent on liver metabolism and kidney excretion than injectables
True
False
41
cats can become hyperthermic when given which pain medication
meloxicam
butorphanol
deracoxib
hydromorphone
42
why do we wait for the swallow reflex to return before extubating a dog
so they do not chew the tube
to prevent aspiration
to prevent regurgitation
to reduce laryngeal irritation
43
soda lime granules absorb CO2 from exhaled gases and leave other gases unchanged
True
False
44
a pressure reducing valve
Decreases the pressure of gas being supplied to the breathing circuit.
Decreases the pressure of gas being supplied to the endotracheal tube.
Decreases the pressure of gas being supplied to the common gas outlet.
Decreases pressure of gas being supplied to the intermediate pressure lines
45
buprenorphine is a pure mu opiod agonist
False
True
46
ET tube that extends more than two inches past incisors is an issue because it decreases mechanical space
True
False
47
having an IV catheter in place during an anesthetic helps with all except
administration of constant rate infusions
preventing sloughing by vessicants
administration of incompatible agents
preventing fluid overload
48
which is not an example of a crystaloid
LRS
saline
Normosol
plasma
49
which two classes of drugs inhibits pain pathway at transmission level
opioids and NDMA antagonists
Local anesthetics and Alpha 2 agonsits
NSAID's and local anesthetics
Corticosteroids and Alpha 2 agonists
50
which is not a main benefits of acepromazine
antiarrhythmic
mild sedation
analgesia
antihistamine
51
which are correct lists of patient signalment
breed, age, weight, species, gender
name, lab results, breed, color
species, name, reproductive status
species, medical history, weight
52
cardiac depression is a characteristic of xylazine, medetomidine, detomidine, romifidine
True
False
53
when the vaporizer setting is adjusted, changes in anesthetic depth
occurs more rapidly if the vaporizer settings are less than 1%
occur in next 30 secs
occur more rapidly if patient is on non rebreathe rather than rebreathe
occur more rapidly if patient is on rebreathe rather than non rebreathe
54
which local anesthetic has longest onset of action
lidocaine
sugarcaine
mepivacaine
bupivacaine
55
which is not an effect of alpha 2 agonists
mydriasis, tachypnea
hyperglycemia, polyuria
emesis , bradycardia
mild- severe sedation
56
what is maintenance flow rate for a 38kg patient on rebreathe at olds college
3800 ml/hr
1 L/min
1.2 L/min
5 L/min
57
which is not a function of the cuff on the endotracheal tube
seals tube to tracheal wall
prevents endotracheal tube from being dislodged
facilitates PPV
prevents aspiration pneumonia
58
the drip rate for an 8kg dog at olds college standard rate is
1 drop/ 15 secs
1 drop/ 2 secs
2 drops/ 3 secs
1 drop/ 9 secs
59
which is not a benefit of the cuff on the endotracheal tube
prevents leakage of gases into room
alows for positive pressure ventilation
prevents aspiration
prevents dislodgement of tube
60
may use colloids or blood products when a patient is bleeding, has low PCV or low protein levels
True
False
61
which is NOT an advantage to the rebreathe system
costs less
patient does not rebreathe anesthetic gases
uses less O2 and inhaled gases
less moisture and heat loss
62
which of the following statements about injectable anesthetic maintenance agents is correct
induction apnea common w/ thiopental, it is not seen w/ propofol induction
propofol has enough analgesia to be used alone in short painful procedures
ketamine-diazepam has enough analgesia for short procedure(feline neuter)
ketamine-diazepam popular IV induction in dogs/cats bc min cardiac toxicity
63
primary reason to use glycopyrrolate as a preanesthetic agent is
for analgesia
to prevent bradycardia
to prevent pupillary constriction
prevent arrhythmias
64
which is not a major effect of halogenated inhalation anesthetics
dose related CNS depression
muscle rigidity
hypoventilation
decreased blood pressure due to vasodilation
65
which is not an advantage to use local anesthetics
primary effect close to injection site
minimal effect on cardio and resp systems
dose of GA is significantly increased
cheap and highly effective
66
fluids make up how much of body weight
60%
40%
35%
55%
67
crystalloids are commonly used for routine healthy patients under anesthesia
False
True
68
which is not a drug that can be used to reverse an alpha 2 agonist
atipamezole
flumazenil
tolazoline
yohimbine
69
which information is incorrect regarding Oxymorphone
can be reversed with flumazenil
acts on pure mu opioid receptor
drug class is opioids
is controlled
70
which is not a component of the breathing circuit
reservoir bag
CO2 absorber
bain hose
flow meter
71
what characteristic of halothane and isoflurane makes the use of a precision vaporizer essential to patient safety
solubility coefficient
rubber solubility
MAC
vapor pressure
72
which is untrue regarding neuroleptanalgesia
pain control enhanced
increases amount of drugs needed to induce and maintain anesthesia
synergetic effects allowing decreased doses of both drugs
may counteract negative effects of each other
73
which two drugs are controlled
ketamine
xylazine
lidocaine
butorphanol
74
COX-2 selective NSAID's will have less negative effects on which tissue
Reproductive
Renal
Ophthalmic
Gastrointestinal
75
what is the function of the soda lime canister
absorbs excess moisture from breathing circuit
warm exhaled gases prior to mixing with fresh gas flow
absorbs exhaled CO2 in rebreathe circuit
absorbs exhaled CO2 in non rebreathe circuit
76
which will not happen if you select too large a rebreathe bag
will be Insufficient safety against pressure buildup within the system
Manual PPV will be awkward
time between changing vaporizer setting and conc of inspired gas increases
monitoring spontaneous breathing using the rebreathe bag will be difficult
77
which is not an effect of propofol
induction apnea
hypotension
tissue damage if injected perivascularly
development of heinz bodies with repeat administration in cats
78
diazepam is often used as a tranquilizer but another way it can be used is
appetite stimulation in sick cats
controlling epileptic seizures when given IM
combined in a syringe with other premedications
anesthetic induction when combined with phen
79
which information regarding alfaxalone is incorrect
onset = 15 secs, duration = 10 mins
controlled, analgesia
minimal resp depression, high dose induction apnea
minimal cardio depression, high dose decreased HR and hypotension
80
18 kg patient what breathing system will you use
non rebreathe
rebreathe
81
which is not an aspect of balanced anesthesia
produces sedation, tranquilation, muscle relaxation or analgesia
adminster smaller amounts of multiple drugs concurrently
maximizes adverse effects
maximizes benefits
82
the anesthetic recovery period is from time the anesthetic is discontinued until the patient is back to its kennel
False
True
83
what is the function of a murphy eye
allows for viewing of the internal workings of the vaporizer
monitors flow of isoflurane
ensures ET tube is never occluded
provides an alternative path for anesthetic gases to escape the ET tube
84
the infusion rate for a 2.6 kg cat at olds college standard fluid rate is
17 mls/hr
7.8 mls/hr
8 mls/hr
13 mls/hr
85
what occurs between sedation and general anesthesia
loss of consciousness
gain of muscle relaxation
loss of proprioception
gain of analgesia
86
mechanical dead space includes the y piece of the breathing circuit
True
False
87
which intra op agent provides no analgesia
butorphanol
nitrous oxide
medetomidine
isoflurane
88
colloid administration may be more appropriate than crystalloids for which patients
large dogs with normal CBC/ chem prior to OVH
cats with elevated white cell count prior to dental
puppies with normal CBC/ chem that have mild diarrhea
dogs that are hemorrhaging and have white mm
89
medetomidine has no analgesic properties
True
False
90
what is not associated with hydromorphone use in cats
predictable sedation
hypothermia
mod- severe analgesic properties
vomiting
91
why do we wait for swallow reflex to return before extubating a dog
so they do not chew the tube
to reduce laryngeal irritation
to prevent aspiration
to prevent regurgitation
92
when incubating dogs
incubating partially closed vocal cords is likely to lead to laryngospasm
apply lidocaine to vocal cords before attempting to intubate
incubating if palpebral reflex present is unsafe for patient
having neck extended will greatly increase ability to see larynx
93
the flow from this flow meter is 1.6 L/min
True
False
94
which of the following are part of definition of general anesthesia
irreversible, maintains muscle tone, decrease in consciousness,loss of pain
reversible, loss of pain, loss of muscle tone, loss of consciousness
irreversible, loss of muscle tone, loss of consciousness, increase in pain
reversible, loss of muscle tone, loss of pain, decrease in consciousness
95
at olds college the standard fluid rate for a cat is 5mls/kg/hr
True
False
96
preferred route of administration for atipamezole is
PO
IV
IM
SQ
97
unidirectional valves prevent anesthetic gases from reentering into vaporizer
False
True
98
dexmedetomidine causes vasoconstriction -> increase blood pressure(hypertension) -> reflex -> bradycardia
True
False
99
which is not something done to prepare a patient for anesthesia
PE and stabilization
history and admission
nail clips
fasting, medications
100
overwhelming patients brain w/painful stimuli during anesthesia hypersensitizes brain to pain on recovery called windup
True
False

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