What is cornmeal media planting specifically used for?

Examine for Candida spp. forming chlamydospores

Why must blood cultures be collected BEFORE antibiotics

To avoid false-negative results

Where are Enterococcus spp. found as NF, AND how are they suited to survive harsh conditions?

GI tract - they can tolerate acidic environments

What were the top 3 most common bacteria causing skin & soft tissue infections in North America between 1998-2004?

Staphylococcus aureus, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Enterococcus spp.

Why are surface swabs not recommended for diagnosing deep softtissue infections?

They may reflect colonizing flora and miss deeper pathogens

How does mucosal mediated immunity via IgA antibody aid in defending the host?

Prevents the attachment and penetration of microorganisms and antigens

What is the main cause of brain abscess formation?

Hematogenous spread from distant infections(lung abscesses, bronchiectasis)

Which of the following best describes why the skin is the best primary defense against infection?

It has a protective layer of keratin that resists microbial penetration

What are the characteristic symptoms/clinical history of enterotoxin-mediated diarrhea?

Diarrhea without blood or pus, no fever, rapid onset of symptoms (<12h)

What is the primary role of capillaries?

Exchange nutrients/gases between blood and tissues

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Body Site MC Questions

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Questions 95

Answers

1
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the GI tract that helps to prevent infection?
Low pH environment in the stomach
Low cell turnover rate
Constant peristaltic movement of the small intestine
Mucosal linings
2
What are the main causative agents of meningitis?
Parasites and viruses
Bacteria and viruses
Bacteria and fungi
Viruses and fungi
3
What is cornmeal media planting specifically used for?
Differentiate between C.albicans and Candida spp.
Differentiating moulds
Fungal hyphae examining
Examine for Candida spp. forming chlamydospores
4
What is an example of a neutralizing inhibitor of antibiotics added to blood culture bottles?
Soy
EDTA
Charcoal and resin
SDS
5
During bloodstream infection process, when the infections spreads to distant tissue , it is known as
Uber Infection
Metastatic infection
Opportunistic infection
Bacteremia
6
Ocular infections tend to be most commonly found in which ocular structure?
Cornea
eyelid
inside the lining and cavity of the eye
Lens
7
Why must blood cultures be collected BEFORE antibiotics
To reduce patient discomfort
To avoid false-negative results
To comply with hospital policy
To speed up lab processing
8
What is the term for inflammation of the eyelid?
keratitis
Endophthalmitis
Eyeliditis
Blepharitis
9
Where are Enterococcus spp. found as NF, AND how are they suited to survive harsh conditions?
LRT - they have mucoid capsule
URT - they can tolerate many different aerobic conditions
Skin - they are alcohol resistant
GI tract - they can tolerate acidic environments
10
Which stage of Pertussis is characterized by the high-pitched whoop sounding cough, fatigue, and vomiting?
Convalescent stage
Paroxysmal stage
Prodromal stage
Catarrhal stage
11
What were the top 3 most common bacteria causing skin & soft tissue infections in North America between 1998-2004?
Staphylococcus aureus, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Clostridium spp.
Staphylococcus aureus, Proteus mirabilis, Enterococcus spp.
Staphylococcus aureus, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Enterococcus spp.
Staphylococcus aureus, Beta-hemolytic Streptococci, Escherichia coli
12
What condition, if left untreated, can lead to spontaneous abortion, ectopic pregnancy and cancer
Vaginosis
Candidasis
Urthritis
Cervicitis
13
What is the major virulence factor featured in the major pathogens to overcome host barriers of the CNS?
IgA protease
Pili/fimbriae
Capsule
Lipopolysaccharide
14
Which of the following antimicrobial substances is not associated with tears?
IgA
IgM
Lysozymes
Lactoferrin
15
Which of the following screening criteria indicates a sputum sample is an unacceptable specimen?
>25 PMNs/LPF
>25 SECs/LPF
<10 SECs/LPF
Presence of ciliated epithelial cells
16
Why are surface swabs not recommended for diagnosing deep softtissue infections?
Surface swabs cannot be Gram stained
They may reflect colonizing flora and miss deeper pathogens
They are more expensive than biopsies
They are too painful to collect
17
How does mucosal mediated immunity via IgA antibody aid in defending the host?
Damages phagocytic membrane
Binds cholesterol in host cell membranes and creates pores- classical path
Prevents the attachment and penetration of microorganisms and antigens
Controls nutrient diffusion into organism and interaction with host cells
18
Which isolation technique has traditionally been used to inoculate corneal scrapings?
T-streak
Quadrant streaking
Radiant streaking
C-streak
19
Which agar is enriched with lysed RBCs for fastidious bacteria?
Blood agar
Mannitol salt agar
Chocolate agar
MacConkey agar
20
What type of swab would be best to collect a sample for an ocular infection?
Dacron
Cottom or calcium alginate
Cotton
Dacron, calcium alginate or cotton
21
Which of the following methods is primarily used to differentiate (MRSA) from non-resistant strains?
Blue and yellow are correct
Cefoxitin sus. testing
PCR
Nasal swab culture
22
In which setting is VRE of biggest concern?
Veterinary offices
Community gatherings
Hospitals
Swimming pools
23
What is the primary pathogen responsible for causing thrush in humans?
Candida albicans
Escherichia coli
Staphylococcus aureus
Herpes simplex virus
24
Which body layers are infected in deep soft tissue infections?
Hair and sweat glands
Blood vessels only
Only the top skin layer
Muscle and fascia
25
What culture media would be planted for a lower respiratory tract sputum specimen?
BAP, CNA, PEA
BAP, NAP, MRSA-Chrom
BAP, CHOC, CNA
BAP, CHOC, MAC
26
Which of the following is NOT part of the LRT host immune defenses?
Alveolar macrophages
Pneumocytes
Bronchial tree MALT
Mucociliary escalator
27
Which of the following org. is NOT associated with diarrhea mediated by invasion of the intestinal mucosal surface?
Shigella spp.
Bacillus cereus
Campylobacter spp.
Salmonella spp.
28
Which of the following org. is associated with diarrhea mediated by invasion of the full bowel with systemic spread?
Bacillus cereus
Vibrio cholerae
Staphylococcus aureus
Yersinia enterocolitica
29
What sort of organism can eat through your brain matter after breaking through the blood brain barrier?
Bacteria
Fungus
Amoeba
Parasite
30
The only true normal flora of the Urinary Tract
Enterococci Species
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Staphylococcus epidermidis
Neisseria flavescens
31
Which aerobic gram-positive bacilli discussed in intersession is normal flora within the upper respiratory tract?
Listeria monocytogenes
Diphtheroids
Neisseria spp.
Bacillus cereus
32
Which LRT specimen is collected by introducing sterile saline into the lung and then suctioning it back out?
Endotracheal Aspirates
Deep Expectorated Sputum
Pleural fluid
Bronchoalveolar Lavage (BAL)
33
Which of the following would NOT be a clinical presentation of a lower respiratory tract infection?
Pleural effusion
Epiglottitis
Bronchitis
Pneumonia
34
Which of the conditions is NOT usually a result of MRSA?
Bacteremia
Endocarditis
Pneumonia
Urinary tract infections
35
What is the main cause of brain abscess formation?
Trauma from neurosurgery or dural breach
Spread of infection from from the middle ear,mastoid cells, paranasal sinus
Head trauma from collisions
Hematogenous spread from distant infections(lung abscesses, bronchiectasis)
36
Which of the following best describes why the skin is the best primary defense against infection?
It has a protective layer of keratin that resists microbial penetration
Blood vessels in the epidermis deliver antigens to the skin surface
The dermis layer contains connective tissue + supports the epidermal layer
Alkaline pH of sweat kills bacteria
37
This is one of the most important virulence factor for Streptococcus pyogenes. Which protein is this?
Protein A
Streptococcal protein S
M protein
Streptolysin O
38
Which organism is not typically associated with AIDS-defining conditions
MAI
C.albicans
pneumocystis jirovecii
Lactobacillus acidophilus
39
Which of the following is NOT a barrier to infection in the vagina?
Biosurfactants
Hydrogen peroxide
Ciliated cells
Competitive exclusion
40
Which virulence factor is NOT present in Neisseria gonorrhoeae?
LPS
Flagella
Porins
Pili
41
Which virulence factor contributes the bio film formation in S. pneumoniae?
Polysaccharide capsule
Nan A
Pneumolysin
Secretory IgA proteases
42
What are the characteristic symptoms/clinical history of enterotoxin-mediated diarrhea?
Normal bowel movements and impending doom
Diarrhea without blood or pus, no fever, rapid onset of symptoms (<12h)
Bloody stool with fecal leukocytes, appendicitis-like symptom, longer onset
blood and pus, leukocytosis, fecal leukocytes, fever, longer incubation
43
Which of the following is NOT part of skin normal flora?
Corynebacterium species
S. epidermidis
S. aureus
Micrococci
44
What is the primary role of capillaries?
Store oxygenated blood
Pump blood to the lungs
Exchange nutrients/gases between blood and tissues
Produce white blood cells
45
What is considered a deep wound?
Individual with impetigo
Getting nibbled by a chipmunk
Bite wound that is 3 cm deep
An individual with erysipeloid
46
Which of the following is NOT included in the routine media for a stool culture?
MAC
CHOC
BAP
Campy/CBF
47
Which STI is characterized by small umbilicated papules that can become red and inflamed?
Viral hepatitis
Molluscum contagiosum
Proctitis
Epididymitis
48
What type of specimen is typically collected to diagnose a bacterialabscess?
Saliva swab
Hair sample
Nail clipping
Pus aspirate
49
What is the most common skin pathogen bacteria?
S. aureus and Enterococcus spp.
S. pyogenes and Neisseria spp.
S. aureus and Moraxella catarrhalis
S. aureus and S. pyogenes
50
What is the name of the first layer of tissue on the inside of the skull called?
Dura mater
Arachnoid mater
Grey matter
Pia mater
51
Which Antibiotic treatments would be the MOST effective for treating VRE infection?
Daptomycin & Streptomycin
Clindamycin & Gentamycin
Linezolid & Penicillin
Linezolid & Daptomycin
52
Which of the following may result in specimen contamination when collecting surface wound swabs?
Collecting the specimen before cleansing the site with sterile saline
Dacron swab to collect from a wound rinsed with saline and store in fridge
Rolling the swab over inflamed and purulent areas rather than scabbed areas
Placing the swab immediately into the transport media
53
How does the low pH of the skin help protect against infection?
It creates an environment where many bacteria can't grow
It makes bacteria susceptible to antibiotics
It helps trap bacteria in the pores
It blocks oxygen from reaching bacteria
54
Which of the following is the most common intestinal parasite in North America?
Cyclospora cayetanensis
Giardia lamblia
Entamoeba histolytica
Edwardsiella tarda
55
Which of the follow cause bacterial pharyngitis?
Streptococcus pyogenes
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Neisseria meningitidis
Haemophilus influenzae
56
What type of fimbriae does E.coli use for adherence?
Type 1, Type M
Type 1, Type 3
Type 1, Type P
Uro-Adherence Factor A
57
Which of the following are NOT considered an obligate pathogen from genital sources?
Trichomonas vaninalis
Candida spp.
Treponema pallidum
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
58
Which of the following is most likely to present in stool cult. after dying from dysentery?
Yersinia enterocolitica
Shigella spp.
Clostridium botulinum
Edwardsiella tarda
59
Which of the following organisms are common pathogens associated with the LRT?
Chlamydia pneumoniae and Bacillus cereus
Cutibacterium avidum and Legionella spp.
Escherichia coli and Staphylococcus aureus
Klebsiella granulomatis and Bordetella pertussis
60
Which infection site needs a swab and a blood culture ?
Otitis media
Sinus
Posterior pharynx
Epiglottitis
61
What anatomy part is NOT included as part of the URT?
Trachea
Epiglottis
Larynx
Nasal Cavity
62
What is the ALTERED peptidoglycan terminus that is responsible for vancomycin resistance in VRE?
D-alanine-D-alanine
D-galactose-D-galactose
D-galactose-L-Fucose
D-alanine-D-Lactate
63
What is the recommended storage conditions of CSF for long term storage?
4°C
-70°C
-20°C
Room Temperature
64
What is considered the hallmark sign of acute bronchitis?
Shortness of breath
Runny nose
Chest pain
Persistent cough
65
Which of these virulence factors does T.pallidum not possess?
Opsonic antibody resistance
LPS endotoxin
Flagella
Low PAMP expression
66
A specimen comes in from a patient suspected of a B. pertussis infection. Which of the following agars should be planted
CHOC
Bordet-Gengou
BAP
CNA
67
Samples for deep wounds should be planted within:
24 hours
48 hours
72 hours
7 days if refrigerated
68
Which of the following organisms is NOT normal gastrointestinal flora?
Lactobacillus acidophilus
Escherichia coli
Bacteroides spp.
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
69
Which if the following organisms is an opportunistic pathogen of the upper respiratory tract?
Neisseria meningitidis
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Chlamydia trachomatis
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
70
What instrument could be used when planting a urine specimen for the purpose of quantification?
1uL Calibrated Loop
10uL Sterile Disc
10mL Calibrated Loop
0.01mL Sterile Swab
71
Which media would NOT be used for isolating Enterococcus spp./VRE?
THIO
MAC
MTM
PEA
72
Which of the following organisms is NOT associated with enterotoxin-mediated diarrhea?
Bacillus cereus
Staphylococcus aureus
Vibrio cholerae
Yersinia enterocolitica
73
Which culture media is used to grow both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria from a skin wound?
Thayer-Martin agar
Lowenstein-Jensen agar
Blood agar
Sabouraud agar
74
What special media is used to differentiate yeast?
Tinsdale Agar
Diamond media
Candida Chromagar
Mueller-Hinton
75
What role does sweat play in defending against infection?
Stimulates the production of T cells
Prevents bacterial replication by damaging bacterial cell DNA
Breaks down bacterial cell walls
Raise the skins pH to kill bacteria
76
Which potential pathogen may be detected on a MacConkey agar plate from a skin wound specimen?
Corynebacterium spp.
Staphylococcus epidermidis
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Streptococcus pyogenes
77
Which of the following is a naturally occurring barrier to infection within the ear?
Phlegm
Cerumen
Mucociliary glands
Saliva
78
Which virulence factor of Haemophilus influenzae stops the sweeping motion of cilia in respiratory epithelium?
PRP capsule
LOS
LPXTG Anchored Proteins
Hyaluronidase
79
Which of the following is most likely to be identified as MRSA?
BAP: SWOP; Catalase: +; Coagulase: - ; CHROMagar: no growth
BAP: SwOP hemolytic; Catalase: +; Cefoxitin: sensitive
BAP: SWOP hemolytic; Coagulase: + ; CHROMagar: pink colonies
BAP: SWOP: hemolytic; MSA: yellow; Coagulase: +; Cefoxitin: sensitive
80
When an obligate anaerobe bacteria is suspected in an upper UTI what is the best option for sample collection?
Catheterized Sample
Urogenital Swab
Midstream clean catch
Suprapubic Aspiration
81
Which organism is capable of penetrating the epithelium on its own?
S.auerus
L.monocytogenes
B.cereus
H.influenzae
82
Which of the following is not found as NF in the eye
S.aureus
Nocardia spp.
S.pneumonaie
H.influenzae
83
Which class of immunoglobulin is the most important for the defense of the urinary tract?
IgD
IgG
IgM
IgA
84
What organism is most commonly associated with Nosocomial Bacteremia?
Staphylococcus aureus
Coagulase-negative staphylococci
Candida albicans
Escherichia coli
85
Which virulence factor found in VRE is actively secreted from the cell?
Gelatinase
Esp protein
Pilli
Aggregation proteins
86
What is the first-line antibiotic given to individuals who have been infected by Staphylococcus saprophyticus?
Nitrofurantoin
Novobiocin
Quinolones
TMP-SMX
87
Which unusual UTI symptom involving the nervous system may be seen in geriatric populations?
Anesthesia
Paralysis
Dementia
Delirium
88
Ringworm also knowns as:
Tinea corporis
Tines barbae
Tinea pedis
Tinea faciei
89
What is the correct term for a UTI involving an infection of the kidneys?
Pyelonephritis
Cystitis
Pyelorenatitis
L-UTI
90
Which species is known as an obligate pathogen?
Non-toxin producing Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Candida albicans
Lactobacillus sp
Toxin producing Corynebacterium diphtheriae
91
This disease commonly presents with a single painless, non-pus producing chancre?
Chlamydia
Genital Herpes
Syphilis
Chancroid
92
A critical phase of sepsis characterized by low blood pressure
Bacteremia
Septic Shock
Fungemia
Sepsis
93
Which diagnostic technique is identified as the preferred method for the diagnosis of CNS infections:
Cell count with chemistry analysis
PCR
Culture
Latex agg.
94
Which virulence factor contributes to tissue destruction by inhibiting protein synthesis?
Exotoxin A
IgA protease
Protein A
Phospholipase
95
Pseudobacteremia caused by contamination of normal flora is seen in what percentage of blood collection bottles?
4-7%
1-3%
22-25%
16-19%

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