What methodology is used by Air Force for presenting forces to combatant commanders (CCDR)?

Aerospace Expeditionary Force (AEF)

What unit installs, reconstitute, and test critical C4 systems for combatant commanders anywhere at any time?

85th Engineering Installation Squadron

What directive publication prescribes the mission, area of responsibility, organization and relationships of MAJCOM

Air Force Mission Directives (AFMD)

What personnel oversees technical order requirements and distribution within an organization?

Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO)

What cyberspace weapon includes the I-NOSC, ESU and the APC functions

Air Force Cyber Security and Control System

What policy outlines the (US) Armed Forces’ comprehensive strategic approach for using cyberspace operations

National Military Strategy for Cyberspace operations

Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?

Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCM)

What two levels are joint task forces (JTF) divided into?

Unified command and subordinate unified command

What joint publication (JP) is the keystone document for the communications-system series of publications?

JP 6-0, Joint Communications System

What system manages the distribution and printing of paper technical orders?

Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS)

Which policy has prevention of cyber attacks against America’s critical infrastructure as a key strategic priority?

National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace

Proactive defense is one of the four integrated sub-disciplines of what cyberspace defense weapon system?

Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System

Who develops standards for interconnect, passive and electro-mechanical electronic components under ANSI designation of

Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA)

What directive publications expire one year after their effective date or when superseded by an Air Force Policy Direct

Air Force Policy Memorandum (AFPM)

What cyberspace weapon system identifies vulnerabilities and provides commanders with a comprehensive assessment

Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/ Hunter Weapon System

Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan requirements to include CDCs

Air Force Career Field manager (AFCM)

Which type of TO has a numerical designator beginning with "31" and covers topics such as basic electronics technology

Standard Installation Practice TO (SIPTO)

Who assists with identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with development of SKT and CDC

Major Command Functional manager (MFM)

What publications are orders by SECAF that contain directive policy statements to initiate, govern, or regulate actions

Air Force Policy Directives (AFPD)

Which agency is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization and remediation of critical GIG

Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA)

What cyberspace weapon system resulted from an operational initiative to consolidate MAJCOM networks into 3 central nets

Air Force Cyber Security and Control System

What document directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace?

Department of Defense Strategic Planning Guidance

What cyberspace weapon system is the top-level boundary and entry point into the Air Force Information Network (AFIN)?

Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System

What document spells out the comprehensive strategy for the United States to secure cybperspace

National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace

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CDC Vol 1

77 termsStudBud Administration106 plays

warning, due to character limits the questions may be abbreviated

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Questions 77

Answers

1
What methodology is used by Air Force for presenting forces to combatant commanders (CCDR)?
Unit type codes (UTC)
Stratum levels (SL)
Aerospace Expeditionary Force (AEF)
Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF)
2
What unit installs, reconstitute, and test critical C4 systems for combatant commanders anywhere at any time?
644th Combat Communications Squadron
85th Engineering Installation Squadron
83th Network Operations Squadron
4th Expeditionary Fighter Wing
3
What directive publication prescribes the mission, area of responsibility, organization and relationships of MAJCOM
Air Force Mission Directives (AFMD)
Air Force Instructions (AFI)
Air Force Policy Memorandums (AFPM)
Air Force Policy Directives (AFPD)
4
What personnel oversees technical order requirements and distribution within an organization?
Technical Order Distribution Account (TODA)
Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO)
Non-Commissioned Officer in Charge (NCOIC)
Library Custodian
5
What cyberspace weapon includes the I-NOSC, ESU and the APC functions
Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System
Air Force Cyber Security and Control System
AF Cyber Command and Control Mission System
Air Force Intranet Control Weapons System
6
What reason is the main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk
Manpower
Efficiency
Department of Defense 8570 mandate
Reduce costs
7
What type of non-directive Air Force (AF) publication is not subject to frequent change?
AF Doctrine
AF Visual Aid (AFVA)
AF Handbook (AFH)
AF Pamphlet (AFPAM)
8
What title is normally assigned on the on-station ranking 3D cyberspace non-commissioned officer?
Unit Training Manager (UTM)
Major Command Functional Manager (MFM)
Air Force Career field manager (AFCM)
Base Functional Manager (BFM)
9
Who is charged with the duties of establishing training programs for newly appointed base records managers?
Functional area records manager
Command Records Manager
Based records manager
Chief of Office of Records
10
How many rules are there for effective communication via e-mail?
Six
Four
Two
Eight
11
What directive publications provide essential procedural guidance on implementing DoD , AF, or higher departmental poli
Air Force Mission Directives (AFMD)
Air Force Policy Memorandums (AFPM)
Air Force Instructions (AFI)
Air Force Policy Directives (AFPD)
12
What policy outlines the (US) Armed Forces’ comprehensive strategic approach for using cyberspace operations
National Military Strategy for Cyberspace operations
National Security Policy
Comprehensive National Cybersecurity Initiative
National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace
13
Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?
Unit Training Manager (UTM)
Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCM)
Major Command Functional Manager (MFM)
Base Functional Manager (BFM)
14
What DODD establishes that all authorized users of DoD info systems shall receive initial IA awareness orientation
DODD 8140.01
DODD 5515.01
DODD 8220.01
DODD 8570.01
15
What basic building block is used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF)?
Tempo Bands
Coding
Unit type code
Positioning
16
Which one of these is NOT an essential element in a Quality Assurance (QA) Program
Quality System
Quality Assurance
Trend Analysis
Quality Assessments
17
Which evaluation is NOT an assessment type in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?
Technical Evaluation
Managerial Evaluation
Personnel Evaluation
Standard Evaluation
18
Occupational surveys are used to develop the (SKT), what tasking is another use for occupational surveys?
Assist the UTM in course development
Allocate Manpower
Modify Local Training
Develop a CDC
19
What two levels are joint task forces (JTF) divided into?
Unified command and functional command
Unified command and subordinate unified command
Subordinate unified command and geographical command
Functional Command and Geographical Command
20
Which Air Force Instruction (AFI) defines an “official government record?”
AFI 33-222
AFI 33-329
AFI 33-322
AFI 33-221
21
Which Quality Assurance (QA) essential element collects, compiles, analyzes, and records data on the processes sampled
Quality System
Managerial Assessments
Quality Assessments
Trend Analysis
22
What Air Force publications are informational and suggest guidance that you can modify to fit the circumstances?
Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD)
Directive
Non-directive
Air Force Pamphlet (AFPAM)
23
What joint publication (JP) is the keystone document for the communications-system series of publications?
JP 5-0, Joint Communications System
JP 6-0, Joint Operations Series
JP 6-0, Joint Communications System
JP 5-0, Joint Operations Planning
24
What system manages the distribution and printing of paper technical orders?
Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS)
Office Automation System (OAS)
Decision Support System (DSS)
Training Business Area (TBA)
25
Which policy has prevention of cyber attacks against America’s critical infrastructure as a key strategic priority?
National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace
Comprehensive National Cybersecurity Initiative
National Military Strategy for Cyberspace operations
National Security Policy
26
What tests your understanding of the original message and your ability to re-state its main purpose?
A rewriting of the main point
A well-written summary
None of the above
A postscript message
27
Proactive defense is one of the four integrated sub-disciplines of what cyberspace defense weapon system?
Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System
Air Force Cyber Security and Control System
Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System
Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System
28
Which 3D AFS responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large-scale network wiring in support
Cable and Antenna Systems
Spectrum Operations
Ground Radar Systems
Radio Frequency transmission
29
What regional computing and data center provide enterprise services like messaging, Web access, and storage?
Network Operations Security Center (NOSC)
Area Processing Center (APC)
Enterprise Service Desk (ESD)
Enterprise Service Unit (ESU)
30
How many workflow capabilities are available to you on a SharePoint server?
Two
One
Three
Four
31
Who develops standards for interconnect, passive and electro-mechanical electronic components under ANSI designation of
Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA)
Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA)
Information and Communication Technology (ICT)
Defense Standardization Program (DSP)
32
What directive publications expire one year after their effective date or when superseded by an Air Force Policy Direct
Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD)
Air Force Policy Memorandum (AFPM)
Air Force Instructions (AFI)
Air Force Mission Directives (AFMD)
33
Who is appointed at each base-level unit principal staff office within an AF org or contractor to do records management
Chief of office of records
Functional Area Records Manager
Base records manager
Command Records Manager
34
What cyberspace weapon system identifies vulnerabilities and provides commanders with a comprehensive assessment
Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/ Hunter Weapon System
Cyberspace Defense Analysis Weapon System
Air Force Intranet Control Weapons System
Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System
35
How many different types of Department of Defense Instructions (DODI) are there?
Three
One
Two
Four
36
Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan requirements to include CDCs
Major Command Functional Manager (MFM)
Air Force Career Field manager (AFCM)
Base Functional Manager (BFM)
Unit Training Manager (UTM)
37
Who is the second-highest ranking official in the Department of Defense?
The deputy secretary
The chief of staff
The vice president
The president
38
Which type of TO has a numerical designator beginning with "31" and covers topics such as basic electronics technology
Methods and Procedures TO
Operation and Maintenance TO
Standard Installation Practice TO (SIPTO)
General TO
39
Who assists with identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with development of SKT and CDC
Major Command Functional manager (MFM)
Unit Training Manager (UTM)
Base Functional Manager (BFM)
Air Force career field manager (AFCM)
40
What publications are orders by SECAF that contain directive policy statements to initiate, govern, or regulate actions
Air Force Policy Directives (AFPD)
Air Force Instructions (AFI)
Air Force Policy Memorandums (AFPM)
Air Force Mission Directives (AFMD)
41
Which agency is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization and remediation of critical GIG
Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA)
Defense Industrial Base (DIB)
Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA)
National Reconnaissance Office (NRO)
42
What cyberspace weapon system resulted from an operational initiative to consolidate MAJCOM networks into 3 central nets
Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System
Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System
Air Force Cyber Security and Control System
Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System
43
Who is responsible for scheduling the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT)?
AFCM with a SME
MFM with a SME
MFM with a Training Pipeline Manager (TPM)
AFCM with a TPM
44
What document directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace?
Strategic Considerations
Implementation and Assessment
Military Strategic Framework
Department of Defense Strategic Planning Guidance
45
What DoD Directive establishes Office of the Secretary of Defense component heads and other agencies official mission
Directive-type memo
Direct oversight directives
Secretary policy memo
Chartering Directives
46
Who may post an update to a technical order assuming they are trained and authorized access to the data?
Library Custodian
Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO)
Technical Order Distribution Account (TODA)
Any user
47
What year did the AF institute a single instance of Remedy allowing support to all locations within a single ticketing?
2011
2012
2010
2009
48
What cyberspace weapon system is the top-level boundary and entry point into the Air Force Information Network (AFIN)?
Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System
Air Force Cyber Security and Control System
Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System
Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System
49
What USC title authorizes the creation of the DoD as an executive component of government and establishes all branches
Title 50
Title 18
Title 32
Title 10
50
Whose duties include providing assistance, managing staging areas, and records training?
Chief of Office of Records
Base Records Manager
Command Records Manager
Functional Area Records Manager
51
What document spells out the comprehensive strategy for the United States to secure cybperspace
National Military Strategy to Secure Cyberspace
National Military Cyberspace Strategy
National Military Strategy for Cyberspace
National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace
52
What program provides training for personnel to attain knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform duty
Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS)
OJT
Occupational Analysis Program
CFETP
53
Which 3D AFS responsibilities include deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting and repairing of standard RF satellites?
Spectrum Operations
Cable and Antenna Systems
Radio Frequency Transmission
Ground Radar Systems
54
What major command and numbered Air Force (NAF) were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission?
Air Education and Training Command, 2nd AF
Air Force Space Command, 24th AF
Air Force Global Strike Command, 8th AF
Air Combat Command, 9th AF
55
Failure to observe the prohibitions and provisions of AFMAN33-152, User Responsibilities and Guide for Info sys violate
Article 100
Article 32
Article 40
Article 92
56
Which unit within the Air Force Network Operations community has a goal to reduce training and increase the warfighters
Area Processing Center (APC)
Network Operations Security Center (NOSC)
Enterprise Service Desk (ESD)
Enterprise Service Unit (ESU)
57
Who has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record?
Base Records Manager
Command Records Manager
Chief of the Office of Records
Functional area records manager
58
What action is the main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?
Conduct climate training surveys
Review the occupational analysis report
Develop CDCs
Establish a viable CFETP
59
The commander, Air Force forces commands an Air Expeditionary Task Force and provides unity of command to a
Joint force air and space component commander (JFACC)
Joint Force Commander (JFC)
Combined force air and space component commander (CFAAC)
Component numbered air force (CNAF)
60
What entity assigns numbers to (DOD) issuances based on the established subject groups and sub subject groups?
Chief, Manuals Division, under the Director, Washington HQ Service
Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
Deputy Secretary of Defense and authorized signer
Chief, Directives Division, under the director, Washington HQ Services
61
Who serves as the major command voting representative during career field Utilization and Training Workshops (U&TW)
Major Command Functional Manager (MFM)
Base Functional Manager (BFM)
Air Force Career Manager (AFCM)
Unit Training Manager
62
) Which of the following does NOT describe information outlined in technical order (TO) 00–5–1?
Resources required to manage and use TOs.
Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures
Infrastructure to manage and use TOs
Training to manage and use TOs
63
What inspection integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a new IG of unit
Commander's Inspection Program (CCIP)
Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI)
Management Inspection (MI)
Consolidated Unit Inspection (CUI)
64
The vision of Enterprise Information Management (EIM) is to provide tools to empower users to
improve the efficiency of the mission
safeguard information in an enterprise-wide environment
improve the effectiveness of the mission
exploit information in an enterprise-wide environment
65
The UCMJ is derived from what USC
Title 10
Title 8
Title 18
Title 3
66
Members of a household or relatives with whom you have a close personal relationship is an example of which type
Misuse of position
Personal Conflict of Interest
Covered Relationship
None
67
Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance to AFI 36-2201, Air force training program
Duty Position Task
Core task
Duty Competency
Core Competency
68
Which stage is NOT one of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) Service Life Cycle stages?
Service Transition
Service Contract
Service Design
Service Strategy
69
Which document is NOT considered an official government record?
Library reference or museum exhibitions
Published doctrines
Photographs of retreat ceremony
Geographical Base maps
70
Records that are considered to be in draft format
Can be altered and are not officially released
Can't be altered, but are officially released
Officially signed and officially released
Can't be altered and are officially signed
71
What two cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing and directly counter an adversary
Subversive and Divisive
Evasive and Decisive
Offensive and Defensive
Active and Reactive
72
What automated information system manages the entire lifecycle of (IT) assets from procurement to retirement
Telephone Management System
Remedy
Integrated Maintenance Data System
Training Business Area
73
What Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage is an overarching stage for maintaining service quality?
Service Design
Service Transition
Service Contract
Continual Service Improvement
74
What cyberspace weapon system ensures unfettered access, mission assurance and joint warfighter use of networks
Air Force Internet Control Weapon System
Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System
Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System
Air Force Cyber Security and Control System
75
Since military info support operations and public affairs share a common specific audience, which activities mislead
Operation Security
Intelligence Surveillance and Reconaissance
Counterintelligence
Military Deception
76
An employee or employer relationship that leads to impartiality or favoritism is an unethical situation
personal conflict of interest
misuse of position
covered relationships
non public information
77
When ANG personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations, what title status must they be in to execute missions
Title 52
Title 50
Title 30
Title 10

CDC Vol 1 Flashcards | StudBud