stud
bud
Sign up
Log in
Home
Library
Explore
SAT
More
Level 4 Midterm Exam Quiz Activity (Chesca) Flashcards | StudBud
Explore
/
Level 4 Midterm Exam Quiz Activity (Chesca)
Level 4 Midterm Exam Quiz Activity (Chesca)
38 terms
·
StudBud Administration
Just quick refresher as we jump into midterms. Good luck!
Flashcards
38 cards
F
Practice quiz
P
Host live
L
Questions
38
Answers
1
The earliest electrocardiographic finding of acute myocardial infarction is sometimes the…
ST segment elevation
Hyperacute T wave
ST segment depression
Prolonged QT interval
2
What is the purpose of utilizing NANDA-approved nursing diagnosis?
To use medical diagnosis instead of nursing diagnosis
To make the nursing diagnosis longer and more detailed
To make the nursing diagnosis shorter and less specific
To ensure that the nursing diagnosis is complete and accurate
3
A nurse is giving discharge teaching for a patient who had an PE after a total knee surgery…Heparin to sodium warfarin
Nurse teaches: Coumadin will continue to break up the clot over weeks
He should take a vitamin supplement containing vitamin K
Nurse teaches: Coumadin is taken along with ASA to achieve anticoagulation
Nurse teaches: Anticoagulant therapy usually lasts between 3 and 6 months
4
What is the most common cause of dilated cardiomyopathy?
Atherosclerosis
Hypertension
Congenital heart defects
Viral infections
5
This program aims to ease pain and helps with problems if your illness is serious but not conspired life threatening
Palliative Care
Hospice Care
Supportive Care
Respite Care
6
In caring for the patient with AKI, what should the nurse be aware of?
Dietary NA and K during the oliguric phase of AKI are managed by I/O
The most common cause of death in AKI is irreversible metabolic acidosis.
Taking accurate daily weigh ins
Daily fluid intake is limited to 1000 mL during the oliguric phase
7
A patient has chest pain that started 3-4 hours ago. What is the most reliable and accurate indicator of heart damage?
LDH
Troponin I & T
CKMB
Myoglobin
8
A dehydrated patient is in the injury stage of RIFLE in AKI. What would the nurse first anticipate for this patient?
IV administration of insulin and sodium bicarbonate
IV administration of fluid and furosemide (Lasix)
Urinalysis to check for sediment, osmolality, sodium, and specific gravity
Assess daily weight
9
During the exudative phase of ARDS the patients lung cells that produce surfactant are damaged. This will lead to…
Atelectasis
Pulmonary edema
Bronchoconstriction
Upper airway blockage
10
A corticosteroid drug that reduces flare-ups in patients with COPD
Levalbuterol
Prednisone
O2 Therapy
Albuterol
11
The following are the possible complications of Pneumonia except:
Pulmonary embolism
ARDS
Lung abscess
Bacteremia
12
Clients undergoing hemodialysis are at risk for disequilibrium syndrome, the nurse assess the client during dialysis for
Hypertension, tachycardia, and fever
Restlessness, irritability, and generalized weakness
Hypotension, bradycardia, and hypothermia
Headache, deteriorating LOC, and twitching
13
Also known as end-tidal CO2, a test that assesses the amount of CO2 in exhaled air:
ABG
Forced expiratory volume
Capnography
Spirometerty
14
What is the importance of critical thinking in nursing?
It helps in providing compassionate care
It helps in retaining information
It helps in making logical and analytical decisions
It helps in maintaining safety and security
15
A patient has been admitted with a PE, the nurse notes a change in the patients O2 Sat from 94% to 88%. The nurse will:
Help the patient to sit in a more upright position
Suction the patient’s oropharynx
Increase the oxygen flow rate
Assist the patient to cough and deep breathe
16
Culture is a test to find germs that can cause an infection while, sensitivity test checks to _____
See the sensitivity of the patient to the bacteria
See what kind of medicine to fight the infection
See what specific bacteria causes CAP
See what know whether it is gram positive or negative
17
Patient who has had an acute disturbance in pulmonary perfusion is being treated for PE. These both affect…
The maintenance of constant osmotic pressure in the alveoli
The adequate flow of blood through the pulmonary circulation
The pH balance in the pulmonary veins and arteries
The maintenance of muscle tone in the diaphragm
18
What is the primary goal of nursing care for a patient with cardiac myopathy?
Managing hypertension
Smoking Cessation
Preventing weight gain
Strengthening the heart muscle
19
Patient who has history of PE is experiencing sudden dyspnea, rapid breathing, and chest pain. What is the best action?
Arrange for an ECG
Increase the height of the patient’s bed
Manage the patient’s anxiety
Rapidly assess the patient’s cardiopulmonary status
20
A COPD patient complains of shortness of breath when doing simple tasks like dressing. Forced expiratory volume is 35%
Patient is in stage 1 (Gold 1)
Patient is in stage 3 (Gold 3)
Patient is in stage 4 (Gold 4)
Patient is in stage 2 (Gold 2)
21
A patient is on mechanical ventilation with PEEP. Which finding indicates the patient is developing a complication…
HCO3 26 mmHg
PaCO2 38 mmHg
Blood pressure 75/45
PaO2 80 mmHg
22
What is the difference between sickness, illness, and disease?
They all mean the same thing
Sickness = physical state, illness = psychological state, Disease = medical
Sickness = medical condition, Illness = Physical state, Disease = psycho…
Sickness = psychological state, illness = medical condition, disease = ph..
23
Which of the following is an sign of Left Sided Heart Failure?
Hemoptysis
Peripheral Edema
Ascites
Increase CVP
24
Patient complains of acute chest pain that spreads to his jaw, neck and left arm. What ECG reading supports an MI?
Absent of P wave
Absent Q wave
ST elevation and marked Q wave
QRS
25
What should you do if you are not sure about something in your practice?
Ignore it and hope for the best
Find something else to do
Ask your colleagues
Ask the patient
26
A patient with PE is being treated with a heparin infusion what diagnostic finding shows that the treatment is effective
The patient’s PT is within reference ranges
The patient’s platelet level is below 100,000/mm3
The patient’s aPTT is 1.5 to 2.5 times the control value
Arterial blood sampling tests positive for the presence of factor XIII
27
A patient has a GFR of 55 mL/min and a history of uncontrolled hypertension and CAD. What medication treats both?
Verapamil
Metoprolol
Amlodipine
Lisinopril
28
Patient has aspiration pneumonia with a 100% non-rebreather mask. What is the HALLMARK sign & symptom of developing ARDS
The patient;s PaO2 remains at 45 mmHg
The patient’s blood pressure is 180/96
The patient is experiencing bradypnea
The patient is tired and confused
29
When giving medication, what should be the basis of your practice?
Personal preference
Evidence-based practice and outcome-based
Patient’s request
Hospital protocol
30
If ST segment elevation is present in leads II, III, and AVF, the possible occlusion could be on…
LCA
LCX
RCA
PDA
31
A patient complains of dyspnea, chronic cough, and difficulties sleeping at night. What lab findings supports HF
Troponin <0.03
BUN 9
K+ 5.8
BNP 780
32
A patient has been diagnosed with HF and has or had signs and symptoms of HF. Which stage of heart failure is this?
Stage C
Stage B
Stage D
Stage A
33
What is the immediate key nursing intervention for a patient with cardiac myopathy experiencing fluid overload?
Administering oxygen
Discouraging salt intake
Administering more fluids
Elevating lower extremities
34
In patients with pneumonia, what is the BEST nursing intervention to improve oxygenation?
Place the patient in lateral decubitus position
Administer bronchodilators and oxygen
Deep breathing exercises
Monitor O2 saturation and RR
35
True or false, a Left Ventricle Assist Device (LVAD) is considered Stage D therapy
True
False
36
Which of the following is the most common effect of dysrhythmias?
Stroke
Decreased cardiac output
Sudden cardiac death/arrest
Heart failure
37
A patient with stage 5 CKD has extreme pruritus and has areas of crystallized white deposits on the skin, this is due to
Excessive calcium
Excessive erythropoietin
Excessive urea
Excessive phosphate
38
This is the only fibrinolytic agent approved for acute ischemic stroke and must be started 3hr from onset of symptoms
Streptokinase
Tenecteplase
Rateplase
Alteplase
