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Procedures 1 mid term review Flashcards | StudBud
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Procedures 1 mid term review
Procedures 1 mid term review
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1
Upper airway sound that may indicate life-threatening obstruction is called?
Wheezing
Stridor
Rhonci
Rales
2
Nurse explains to you that a post surgical neuromuscular pt cannot develop a good cough. Clearance device to use?
IPPB
MIE
CPAP
PEP
3
Pt who is suspected of having droplet infection, at which distance from pt does the HICPAC suggest don PPE?
12-15 feet
3 feet
6-10 feet
2-4 feet
4
How do we fix shunt?
PEP
PEEP
CPAP
EPAP
5
Contraindications of PD&P?
active hemorrhage
ICP greater than 15 mmHg
Head and injury until stabilized
Recent spinal surgery or acute spinal injury
6
Failure to clean equipment properly can do what?
Doesn;t matter because of sterilization
Render all subsequent processing efforts ineffective
Removes dirt always
Renders it clean enough
7
What are the 2 key sources of pt data for pt assessment?
CPT
Medical history
Physical examination
Advanced directive
8
What is compression atelectasis?
Breathing slowly
Breathing at small VT for an extended period
Breathing deep and fast
Breathing rapidly for 10 min
9
Normal breath sounds are called?
Wheezing
Crackles
Vesicular
Stidor
10
What does the term platypnea mean?
Dyspnea while in the upright position
Dyspnea while supine
Dyspnea while lying on your side
Dyspnea while prone
11
Hazards and complications of CPAP are?
Decreased wob
Increased intercranial pressure
Pulmonary leak syndrome
Decreased urine output
12
External obstruction of the airway lumen can impair airway clearance. An example would be?
congenital or thoracic anomalies/Kyphoscholiosis
A foreign body
asthma
tumor
13
Dz that permanently damages and dilates airways that are prone to obst due to retained secretions is?
Bronchiectasis
Asthma
PNA
Bronchitis
14
Causes of impaired mucocilliary clearance would be?
Blebs
Chronic pulmonary disease
Narcotics
Inadequate humidification
15
A dz that causes solute concentrations of mucus and is altered because of abnormal sodium and cloride transport is?
CF
COPD
Bronchietasis
PNA
16
What are some goals of airway clearance?
Help mobilize secretions
decreases wob
Improves pulmonary gas exchange
Increases sob
17
JVD is associated with what type of heart failure
Elevated triglycerides
Left bundle branch block
Left heart failure
Right heart failure (cor pulmonale)
18
What is the most common physical method of disinfection?
Pasteurization
disinfecting
Cleaning only
Sterilization
19
An example of preferential transmission would be which of the following?
TB
Measles
pneumonia
Small pox
20
What respiratory equipment have the greatest potential to spread infection
BVM
MIE
VEST
Large volume nebulizers
21
True benefits from IS are best achieved by?
Proper technique
Only teaching one time
Decreasing the goal for the patient
Repeated use
22
When is CPAP indicated for a patient?
To improve oxygenation
Stabilize chest wall and for Obst sleep apnea
For shunting
For splinting the airways open
23
What are the three phases of successful application of IS therapy?
Post therapy
Followup
Preminary planning
Implementation
24
Breath sounds that are reduced are termed?
Pleural fiction rub
Diminished
Vesicular
Crackles
25
What are the two part system of high frequency chest wall devices?
a non-stretch inflatable vest that wraps around the pt entire torso
Stretchable vest that goes around the arms
a variable air pulse generator
Stretchable wraps that go around a patients stomach
26
Diaphoresis means?
Sweating
Fever
pain
Chilled
27
What are some delivery systems of CPAP?
CPAP for dogs
bubble nasal cpap for infants
Mechanical ventilator CPAP
Home CPAP
28
Tachypnea means?
Slow heart rate
Fast breathing pattern
Slow breathing pattern
Fast heart rate
29
How do we fix V/Q mismatch?
Oxygen
Chest film
Antibiotics
IS
30
Characteristics should be monitored during IPPB breathing include?
compression sickness
Sensitivity
Flow
Peak pressure
31
Hemoptysis means
Blood in the urine
Blood in the sputum
Blood in the stool
Brown blood
32
What does the term comotose mean?
The pt is unconscious, does not respond to stimuli, does not move vol
exhibits slight decrease in consiousness, has slow mental responses
Lethargic
confused
33
Who is responsible for decreasing the risk of HAI's
All healthcare workers, including RT's
Infection control only
Only Nurses
Doctors only
34
What color is associated with Cyanosis
Blue
Pink
Red
Gray
35
What device uses pneumatic device deliver compressed gas minibursts to the airways at rates of above 100/min
IPV (intrapulmonary percussive ventilation
CPAP
HFCWO
IPPB
36
What three elements are necessary for the spread of infection to be present?
Susceptible host
Route of transmission
Infection barrier
Source of pathogen
37
Which of the following are signs in assessment?
Respiratory rate
Heart rate
Blood pressure
percussion
38
Each interview should begin with RT doing what?
Checking breath sounds
Praying
Checking patient MRN number
Introducing themselves
39
Which of the following is a common cause of abdominal paradox
Complete diaphragmatic fatique
Myocardial infarction
Diabetes
Small pox
40
What does V/Q mean?
Ratio of diffusion
Ratio between Alveolar minute ventilation to pulm blood flow (vent to perf)
Ratio between Alveolar and arterial O2
Ratio between diffusion and perfusion
41
What does HAI stand for?
Health care associated infection
Hospital associated failure
Hospital aquired infection
Health applied infection
42
What is breathlessness?
An unpleasant urge to breathe
Tachypnea
A pleasant urge to breathe
Bradypnea
43
What does the term Phlegm mean?
Mucus expectorated from the mouth
Musus expectorated from the nose
Mucus from the tracheobronchial tree
Mucus with blood in it
44
A slow heart rate is termed?
Bradypnea
Tachycardia
Tachypnea
Bradycardia
45
What is a typical treatment session time for MIE?
1 cycle of inspiration only
3 cycles of inspir and expir
4-6 cycles of inspir and expir followed by a period normal spont or assist
2 cycles of inspir and expiration, followed by normal breathing
46
What are the oscillatory frequencies of HFCWO?
2-6 Hz
15 to 30Hz
25-30 Hz
5-25 Hz
47
Inspiratory sound associated with atelectasis, pna, and fibrosis are called?
Bronchiovesicular
Rhonci
Stridor
Crackles or rales
48
What does the acronym CPT mean?
Chest physical therapy
Chest pressure
Chest trauma
Chest pain
49
Absorption atelectasis is caused by?
Breathing small VT
high levels of oxygen, washing out Nitrogen in the lungs resulting collapse
High levels of HE
Breathing large volumes of Nitrogen
50
What does purulent mean?
Green sputum
Sputum containing pus
Sputum containing blood
Sputum that is foul smelling
51
What term describes when you have a fever?
Febrile
Lethargic
Afrebrile
LOC
52
Musical inspiratory and expiratory sounds are what type of breath sounds?
Wheezing
Crackles
Rales
Diminished
53
What are some indications for CPT and other ACT devices or techniques?
Ciliary dyskinetic syndrome
CF, Bronchiectasis
Pulmonary disorders associated with retained secretions
Pt's with copious secretions, inability to mobilize secretions
54
Retention of secretions can result in full or partial airway obst. Mucus plugging can result in?
Edema
Shunting
Hypoxemia
Atelectasis
55
Kussmaul's pattern means?
Fast and shallow
Deep and slow
Deep and fast
Slow and shallow
56
What PPE is required for contact precautions?
Gloves
mask
PAPR
gowns
57
What is typical therapy session of HFCWO?
6-10 times a day
1-3 times a day
5-10 times a day
2-6 times a day
58
How do all modes of lung expansion therapy aid lung expansion?
decreased cardiac output
decreasing transpulmonary pressure gradient
does not change the transpulmonary gradient
by increasing the transpulmonary pressure gradient
59
Three related purposes when interviewing the pt and taking medical history includes?
Wash hands
Rapport between pt and RT
Help monitor changes in the pt symptoms and response to therapy
Obtain info for diagnosis
60
Procedures that are designed to remove pathogens fall into two major categories which are?
Eliminating trash
Scrubbing the floors
General sanitation measures
Specialized equipment processing
61
What types of pt's might benefit from MIE or cough assist?
Neuromuscular pts who not able to generate a peak flow rate greater 270 L/m
Asthma patients
CF patients
Bronchiectasis patients
62
Causes of atelectasis are?
Large volume nebulizers
Obstructed airways with secretions
Mucus plugs
Tumors
63
What clinical signs indicate that a pt is having problems with retained secretions?
Increased insp and expir crackles
Ineffective cough
Labored breathing
development of fever
64
When should ventilator circuits be changed?
By manufacturer's recommendations
Weekly
When visibly soiled or malfunctioning
Monthly
65
What parameters should be evaluated after a IPPB breathing treatment therapy?
Borg scale
Breath sounds
Vital signs
Sensorium
66
What is an advanced directive?
Document only used during hospitalization
A legal document (a living will)
Only used when the patient is competent
Signed by a competent person to provide guidance for medical and healthcare
67
When should a high-risk surgical patient be oriented to IS therapy?
Only in the ED
Only when necessary
Post-operatively only
Preoperatively, before going into surg procedure
68
What does obtunded mean?
dowsy
Sleepy
The pt awakens only with difficulty and responds appropriately when aroused
Confused
69
What is the most frequent mode of pathogen transmission in the hospital setting?
Direct
Indirect
Lateral
Anterior
70
What does shunt mean?
blood flows does not pass vent alveoli and doesnt participate in gas exchan
increased blood flow
Decreased stroke volume
Wasted perfusion
71
What does VAP mean?
Ventilator acquired pseudomonas
Ventilator associated pneumonia
Ventilated assessment of plasma
Vast access procedure
72
Disinfection means?
The process of destoying fungus
The process of destroying at least the vegetative phase
The process of destroying food
The process of destroying the spores
73
What types of patient's would most benefit from PEP therapy?
Patient's with secretion retention
Cardiac patients
COPD patient's
CF patients
74
Methods that kill bacterial are called_______and methods that inhibit growth of bacteria are called_______?
Bacteriostatic
Bactericidal
Baclava
Bacteria
75
What is pulsus alternans?
Cold and clammy skin
alternating succession of strong and weak pulses, suggests left-sided heart
Weak peripheral pulses
Strong central pulses
76
HME's can be used safely for how many hours?
48 hours or with some pt's up to 7 days
12 hours
24 hours
6 hours
77
What is the most common complication associated with IPPB?
Metabolic acidosis
Respiratory acidosis
Metabolic alkalosis
Respiratory alkalosis
78
When performing manual percussion by hand. What is the hand position
Flat hand
Use of the back of the hand
Cupped hand with fingers and thumb open
Cupped hand with fingers and thumb closed
79
What therapy would be used with an aerosolized medication and lung expansion therapy
CPAP
Face tent
IPPB
NRB mask
80
What is the term used to describe chest pain associated with blockage of the coronary arteries
Stroke
Angina
Bronchiectasis
PNA
81
When placed between the ventilator and the circuit, it can eleminate bacteria
Hepa filter
HME
carborator filter
Stent filter
82
What helps mobilize secretions, improves pulm gas exchange, decreases wob?
CPAP
Epap
Postural drainage therapy
BIPAP
83
Causes of impaired mucociliary clearance include?
bland aerosol
Chronic pulm disease
Narcotics
excessive humidity
84
What are some complications of postural drainage therapy?
Cardiac arrhythmias
Increased intracranial pressure
hypertension
acute hypotension
85
Methods that destroy spores are called______ and methods that destroy viruses are called______?
Sporicidal
Fungalcidal
Bactericidal
Virucidal
86
What is a nosocomial infection
Infection acquired in the grocery store
Infection acquired at the beach
An infection acquired in the hospital
Infection from an animal
87
While percussing a pt's chest wall, you encounter an area that has decreased resonance to percussion. Potential causes?
Atelectasis
Pneumonia
Pleural effusion
Cardiac tamponade
88
Do we drain condensation back into the reservoir of a heater?
No
Yes
89
Postural drainage should be maintained for at least how long?
6 minutes
2 minutes
10 minutes or longer is tolerated
3 minutes or longer if tolerated
90
Cough reflex includes?
Compression
Inspiration
Irritation
Expulsion
91
Positional dyspnea is also known as?
Kussmaul
Orthopnea
Platypnea
Hypopnea
92
What are the 4 criteria to evaluate a pt's sensorium or alertness?
Time
situation
Person
Place
93
What are the physiologic effects of CPAP?
Increases FRC
Eliminates or reduces the need for prolonged ventilatory support
Increases PaO2, improves lung mechanics
Improves V/Q mismatch, decreases WOB
94
A private room is not available in the hosp, what would be an acceptable placement of pt with the same infection called?
Co-pay
Cooperation of patients
Cost effective
Cohorting
95
What is the recommended time to leave a patient in a position for PD&P?
10-12 minutes
3-15 minutes
15-20 minutes
1 to 2 minutes
96
What would be benefits of IS for a patient with atelectsis?
Decreased FVC
improved PaO2
Improved chest radiograph
Decreased RR
97
Although careful cleaning removes most pathogens from equipment, does it eleminate the risk of infection?
Yes
No
98
Specialized equipment processing is decontaminate equipment capable spreading infection. Equipment processing involves?
Disinfection
Using standard precautions
Cleaning
Sterilization
99
What is the primary source of infection in the healthcare setting?
Instruments
Bugs
Humans
Gurney's
100
What occurs during the compression phase of a cough?
Mucus is produced
What is expiratory muscle contraction
Rapid increase in pleural and alveolar pressure
An abnormal stimulus provokes sensory fibers
