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Human Physiology 2 Body System Blood immunology - Compilation Flashcards | StudBud
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Human Physiology 2 Body System Blood immunology - Compilation
Human Physiology 2 Body System Blood immunology - Compilation
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#RMIT
Flashcards
243 cards
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Practice quiz
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Questions
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Answers
1
Ab-bound viruses cannot enter target cells
False
True
2
what vaccine is moderately protective (40-60%) against what disease?
Yellow fever
Variola
Polio
Influenza
3
Which of the following is
not
one of the 3 layers in the bodies immune response
Insoluble immune factors
Physical and chemical barriers
Soluble immune factors
Immune response
4
Haemophilia A is a loss of clotting
Factor V
Factor VIII
Factor VI
Factor VII
5
In erythropoiesis normoblasts are converted to _____?
Reticulocytes
Granulocytes
Areticulocytes
Agranulocytes
6
In soluble immune factors, the
phagocytes
factor does what?
Immediately attempt to coat and destroy the organisms
Either destroy or suppress the pathogen by ingesting it
More molecules are released to recruit more immune cells
All of the answers
7
After 20 yrs, erythropoisis only occurs where?
Liver, spleen and lymph nodes
Membranous bones
Red bone marrow
Yellow bone marrow
8
1.______ stimulates erythropoiesis, while 2.______ inhibits the process
1. Leucocytes 2. Erythrocytes
1. Estrogen 2. Testosterone
1. Testosterone 2. Estrogen
1. Erythrocytes 2. Leucocytes
9
__? caused by roughened vess, imbalanced CF & release of tPA from big amounts of injured tissue
Fibrinemboli
Plasminemboli
Antithromemboli
Thromboemboli
10
The main function of Fibrinogen?
Assists osmotic pressure/carriers water-insoluble molecules
Important for haemostasis
Immunoglobulins mostly made by leucocytes
Iron transport
11
In blood clotting pathways, which is most true for
extrinsic
pathways?
is shorter
is slower but results in a more effective clot
is slower
is shorter and faster
12
In blood clotting pathways, which is most true for
intrinsic
pathways?
is slower but results in a more effective clot
is shorter and faster
is shorter
is slower
13
Any substance which stimulates an immune response is a/an?
Antigen
Immunogen
White blood cells response
Bone marrow response
14
Leucocytes contain _______ and other chemicals which they use to kill invading pathogens
Macrophages
Bacteria
Lysosomes
Protein
15
In transfusion Antibodies bind to antigen, causing cells to clump together and?
Gluntinate
Agglutinate
Coagulate
Haemolyse
16
Which of the following is
not
one of the sites of erythropoiesis in the foetus
Liver
Lymph nodes
Yolk sac
Pancreas
17
Immune response can be innateor acquired/adaptive
False
True
18
When an allergen enter the vascular system it is engulfed by phagocytes & presented to ______
B cells
Macrophages
Opsonins
T cells
19
When there is a lack of immune response the classified types are?
Primary and Secondary
Secondary and Genetic
Secondary and Acquired
Primary and Acquired
20
Which of the following are the 2 types of cytokines that increase the number of WBC precursors?
Erythropoietin (EPO) and Interleukins
Thrombopoietin (TPO) and Interleukins
Colony stimulating factors (CSFs) and Interleukins
Colony stimulating factors (CSFs) and Thrombopoietin
21
Vaccination is recognized by immune system and stimulates formation of
B cells
T cells
Memory cells
Macrophages
22
The main function of leucocytes is
To destroy viruses
Protection against parasites
To destroy bacteria
Protection against infection
23
Which of the following is
not
one of the causes of
elevated
Haematocrit (HCT)?
Haemoconcentration due to severe burns
Fluid loss from severe diarrhoea or vomiting
Leukaemia
Dehydration
24
What is the process called when healing takes place and unnecessary clots are removed?
Thromboplastlysis
Collagenlysis
Fibrinolysis
Prothromlysis
25
The acquired immune response is primarily mediated by what?
Erythrocytes
Lymphocytes
Cytokines
Leucocytes
26
Leucocytes are formed where?
Spleen and liver from stem cells
Bone marrow and lymphatic tissues from stem cells
Spleen and lymphatic tissues from stem cells
Bone marrow and liver from stem cells
27
In vasoactive substances platelets release the contents from their granules which is reversible
False
True
28
Which of the following is
not
one of the advantages of being anucleate?
Less work for heart as a pump
Improves deformability
Improves bio-availability
Higher SA/V ratio
29
B lymphocytes provide
Exogenous immunity
Extracellular immunity
Endogenous immunity
Intracellular immunity
30
Within antibody structure, both light chains and both heavy chains are?
The same
Obtuse
Different
Identical
31
Which of the following is
not
one of the disadvantages of being anucleate?
Not all species have anucleate erythrocytes
RBC lack mitochondria & survive on anaerobic metabolism
Produced more metabolic wastes
No protein synthesis or repair
32
Anaemias are defined as having
↓Haemoglobin, ↓Red cell count, ↑Haematocrit
↑Haemoglobin, ↑Red cell count, ↓Haematocrit
↑Haemoglobin, ↑Red cell count, ↑Haematocrit
↓Haemoglobin, ↓Red cell count, ↓Haematocrit
33
In a viral response Ab acts as 1.___ coating the virus for destruction by macrophages
Carrier
Target
Cytokin
Opsonins
34
IgA is found where
External secretions
Endogenous secretions
Internal secretions
Endocrine secretions
35
How much of the population are Rh+?
20%
15%
80%
85%
36
Inside the cell the pathogen is encapsulated in a
Phagosome
Hagosome
Bactosome
Lymphosome
37
Which of the following is
not
a causative factor in thrombocytopaenia?
Decreased levels of EPO
Radiation therapy
Pharmaceutical drugs (Aspirin)
Autoimmunity
38
Main anticoagulants produced in the body are?
Heparin, Antithrombin I, Protein X
Heparin, Antithrombin III, Protein C
Plasmin, Antithrombin I, Protein X
Plasmin, Antithrombin III, Protein C
39
Antibody structure is comprised of 1._____ chains linked into a 2.______ molecule
1. 4 polypeptide chains 2. Y shaped
1. 3 polypeptide chains 2. Y shaped
1. 3 polypeptide chains 2. W shaped
1. 4 polypeptide chains 2. W shaped
40
Neutrophils are phagocytic and primarily do what?
Attack viruses
Attack bacteria
Increase eosinophils
Increase lymphocytes
41
Cytotoxic T lymphocytes also induce apoptosis on target cells through activating
Fas receptor
True
False
42
In the sensitisation phase the production of IgE by B cells is?
T cell dependent and requires IL-3
B cell dependent and requires IL-4
B cell dependent and requires IL-3
T cell dependent and requires IL-4
43
Plasma contains isoantibodies or ______? to the A or B antigens not found in your blood
Antibodies
Antigens
Glutinins
Agglutinins
44
T cells continuously ________ via the blood and lymph through different lymph nodes
Evade
Invade
Created
Circulate
45
The main function of Globulins?
Iron transport
Assists osmotic pressure/carriers water-insoluble molecules
Immunoglobulins mostly made by leucocytes
Important for haemostasis
46
Erythrocyte contain high intracellular 1.___ and low 2.___
1. Na+ 2. K+
1. Ca2+ 2. Na+
1. Na+ 2. Ca2+
1. K+ 2. Na+
47
Regulatory T cells (Treg) have to be presented with Ag to become activated
True
False
48
Which of the following is
incorrect
for antibodies making antigens more visible?
Acting as opsonins
Inactivate bacterial toxins
Making Ab clump
Making Ag clump
49
Erythrocytes contain glycolytic enzymes and carbonic anhydrase
True
False
50
Haemoglobin is composed of 2 parts: 1.____ and 2.____
Haem (~4% iron and porphyrin) & Globin (~96% a protein)
Haem (~14% iron and porphyrin) & Globin (~86% a protein)
Haem (~86% a protein) & Globin (~14% iron and porphyrin)
Haem (~96% a protein) & Globin (~4% iron and porphyrin)
51
T cells primarily do what?
2. Destroys bacteria and their toxins
Neither 1 or 2
1. Attacks viruses, fungi, cancer cells & some bacteria
Both 1 and 2
52
Histamine are found in the granules of what cells
Mast cells and neutrophils
B cells and neutrophils
Mast cells and basophils
B cells and basophils
53
Thrombopoietin (TPO) is produced where?
Osteocytes in the bone marrow
Splenocyte in the spleen
Hypothalamus
Hepatocytes in the liver
54
Which cells respond causing tissue damage & discomfort to things like poison ivy/ chemicals
Lymphocytes
B Cells
T Cells
Monocytes
55
what is the main defence against intracellular viruses?
Cytotoxic T lymphocytes
Cytotoxic B monocytes
Cytotoxic T monocytes
Cytotoxic B lymphocytes
56
The main T cell groups are
Cytoplasmic T cells & helper T cells
Cytoplasmic T cells & killer T cells
Cytotoxic T cells & killer T cells
Cytotoxic T cells & helper T cells
57
Immune system has the ability to distinguish its own cells from foreign cells, this is called?
Self-intelligence
Self-tolerance
Self-awareness
Self-resistance
58
HDN (Haemolytic disease of the newborn) also known as
Haemotolic neonatal destructive
Haemotolic destructive neonatal
Haemolysis neonatal isoimmune haemolysis
Neonatal isoimmune haemolysis
59
Platelets live for approx ______? in the blood, until removed by the spleen/liver
15 days
10 days
20 days
5 days
60
Anaphylaxis is characterised by
All of the answers
Hives
Widespread vasodialation
Peripheral circulatory failure and bronchonconstriction
61
Activated B cells produce what?
Globular proteins
Immunoglobulins
Antibodies
Antigens
62
Blood clotting is the formation of a fibrin clot and is called
Secondary haemostasis
Tertiary haemostatsis
Fribrogenisis
Primary haemostasis
63
Serum lacks the blood protein?
Leucocytes
Plasma
Erythrocytes
Fibrinogen
64
___? allergy response mediated by helper T cells & macrophages & takes hours to days to develop
A staggered
An immediate
A timed
A delayed
65
Smallpox declared eradicated by the WHO in what year
1980
1990
1975
1985
66
Viruses are
Unable to divide, Must invade another cell to replicate
Able to divide , cannot invade another cell to replicate
Able to divide , Must invade another cell to replicate
Unable to divide , cannot invade another cell to replicate
67
The complement soluble factor is a major defence mechanism against what?
Protozoa
Extracellular pathogens
Bacteria
Intracellular pathogens
68
The clonal expansion process occurs in
Neutrophils
B and T cells
T cells
B cells
69
Bacteria are cells capable of 1.____ while viruses 2.____ unless they are inside another cell
1. Self-replication 2. Cannot
1. Diffusion 2. Cannot
1. Self-replication 2. Can
1. Diffusion 2. Can
70
Neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils are known as______?
agranulocytes
mononuclear cells
granulocytes
Dinuclear cells
71
A patient with type O- blood can only receive from O+ donors
False
True
72
IgE is specifically very important in
Secondary immune responses
Blood clotting
Antibody secretion
Allergic responses
73
In coagulation cascade both intrinsic/extrinsic pathways lead to the formation of ______?
Prothrombin
Ca2+
Thromboplastin
Fibrinogen
74
The basis for vaccinations is the acquired system has “memory” of previous exposures
True
False
75
Which classes are involved in the Major histocompatibility complex (MHC) for T cells
Class I, II, III
Class I
Class I and II
Class I, II, III, VI
76
Aggregated platelets release which factor that activates a clotting cascade?
Factor X
Factor Y
Factor W
Factor V
77
T cells are formed in the bone marrow but mature where?
Thymus
Red bone marrow
Spleen
Thyroid
78
In acquired immune respone each lymphocyte only has a ____ antigen target and is called a clone
Quadruple
Double
Triple
Single
79
What are the correct normal reference ranges for Haematocrit (HCT) in males and females?
males 50-60%, females 40-50%
males 40-54%, females 37-47%
males 40-50%, females 50-60%
males 37-47%, females 40-54%
80
IgM is associated with the
Primary immune response
Innate immune response
Complementary immune response
Secondary immune response
81
Active bone marrow is red because of 1.___, Inactive bone marrow is yellow due to 2.___
1. Adipocytes 2. Haemoglobin
1. Haemoglobin 2. Adipocytes
1. Cholesterol 2. Haem Iron
1. Haem Iron 2. Cholesterol
82
T cell receptor Consists of _______ glycopolypeptide chains
Heterotrimeric
Heteroquadmeric
Heterodimeric
Heteromimeric
83
Vaccines are 1._____ (thus immunogenic) but they are not 2._____
1. Antibiotic 2. Antigenic
1. Antibiotic 2. Pathogenic
1. Antigenic 2. Antibiotic
1. Antigenic 2. Pathogenic
84
IgD is also found on surface of
E cells
B cells
D cells
T cells
85
Macrophages can ingest bacteria either directly or after coating them with?
Cytotoxic T lymphocytes
Opsonins
Kinins
Cytotoxic B lymphocytes
86
What is the arrow pointing to from (<Blank>)
Basophil
Erythrocyte
Lymphocyte
Platelet
87
Which of the following substances
are not
released in the presence of inflammation?
Cytokins
Histamine
Kinins
Prostaglandins
88
An allergy causes an inflammatory immune response to a
Pathogenic antibody
Pathogenic antigen
Nonpathogenic antigen
Nonpathogenic antibody
89
Some blood clotting factors are released by platelets
False
True
90
In the stages of HIV infection Seroconversion is
Symptoms usually develop, Fever, lymphadenopathy, rash
when CD4 count <200 cells/mL blood
Viral load increases
Antibodies to virus appear, 4 to 10 weeks after infection
91
NK cells bind to Fc stem and elicits a response, this non specific response is called
antibody-cell-mediated independent cytotoxicity (ACIC)
antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC)
antibody-independent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (AICC)
antibody-cell-mediated dependent cytotoxicity (ACDC)
92
Which cells are responsible for immune surveillance?
Phagocytes
Natural Killer cells
Dendritic Cells
Cytotoxic cells
93
Which of the following is not a function of the immune system
Distribution of nutrients to cells
Removal of dead/abnormal cells
Protect from pathogens
Tissue rejection and allergy response
94
Acute phase proteins are released early and these plasma proteins include
Opsonins and C-reactive protein
Monocytes and C-reactive protein
Monocytes and D-reactive protein
Opsonins and D-reactive protein
95
__? begins with release of tissue factor by damaged peripheral tissues and aggregated platelets
Exogenous pathway
Endogenous pathway
Extrinsic pathway
Intrinsic pathway
96
Erythropoietin (EPO) is produced by the?
Liver
Kidneys
Adrenal glands
Bone marrow
97
When the same antigen is encountered, the secondary immune response is _________
Stronger
Weaker and more rapid
Weaker and slower
Stronger and more rapid
98
What copies viral genetic material from RNA into double-stranded DNA?
Reverse transcriptase
Inverse protease
Inverse transcriptase
Reverse protease
99
In aggregation platelets swell and adhere to ____ in the surrounding connective tissue
Protein
Collagen
Cell wall
Calcium
100
What is the arrow pointing to from (<Blank>)
Lymphocyte
Erythrocyte
Platelet
Basophil
101
There are 4 major types of Haemoglobin (Hb) found in adult blood?
False
True
102
At site of infection which cells will be activated if they encounter antigens they recognise?
B cells
Lymphocytes
T cells
Monocytes
103
In the effector phase which of the following
is not
involved with a histamine response
cramp and diarrhoea due to release of gastric fluid
difficulty in breathing (as seen in asthma)
stimulate nasal secretions
causes vasoconstriction (increase in bp)
104
Fill in the blank
Leucocytes
Monocytes
Lymphocytes
Basophils
105
______ grow around the pathogen & it is internalised into a phagosome where it is broken down
Pseudopodia
Neutropodia
Aggropodia
Plasminopodia
106
In antigen presenting cells macrophages express both
MHC class II with CD4
MHC class I, II, III and IV WIth CD8
MHC class I With CD4
MHC class I and II with CD8
107
Haemophilia B is loss of clotting
Factor XII
Factor IX
Factor XI
Factor X
108
Pluripotent Haematopoietic Stem Cell give rise to two committed progenitor cells, these are?
Basoloid lineage and Lymphoid lineage
Basoloid lineage and Monophoid lineage
Myeloid lineage and Monophoid lineage
Myeloid lineage and Lymphoid lineage
109
which of the phagocytic leucocytes arrive first to the injury site?
Neutrophils
Lymphocytes
Monocytes
Basophils
110
What is the first step in cell-mediated response?
release of antibodies to lymph node(s)
transfer of antibodies to lymph node(s)
transfer of antigens to lymph node(s)
release of antigens from lymph node(s)
111
Which of the following is diseases is not considered solid immunity through vaccination
Mumps
Measles
Rubella
Typhoid
112
Some leucocytes engulf foreign material by what action?
Exocytosis
Agrocytosis
Phagocytosis
Endocytosis
113
TCR coreceptors, aβ TCRs only recognise Ag in presence of MHC, they will
NOT
recognise Ag alone
True
False
114
Which of the following are the correct 3 steps of
Haemostasis
?
1. Vasodilation 2. Aggregation 3. Coagulation
1. Vasoconstriction 2. Gregation 3. Coagulation
1. Vasoconstriction 2. Aggregation 3. Coagulation
1. Vasodilation 2. Gregation 3. Coagulation
115
Bacteria do not possess a cell wall
False
True
116
The 2 major mechanisms which limit clotting within a blood vessel are?
Inhibition of plasma adhesion & fibrin cascade
Inhibition of plasma adhesion & coagulation cascade
Inhibition of platelet adhesion & fibrin cascade
Inhibition of platelet adhesion & coagulation cascade
117
Physical symptoms of Hyperbilirubinaemia are?
Low RBC count
High Haemacrit
Jaundice
High RBC count
118
When a blood vessel is damaged and blood escapes the vessel wall it undergoes what?
Aggregation
Coagulation
Vasodilation
Vasoconstriction
119
In antigen presenting cells B cells express
MHC class I and produce soluble Ab
MHC class I and produce insoluble Ab
MHC class II and produce soluble Ab
MHC class II and produce insoluble Ab
120
Antibodies can also enhance inflammation by which two actions?
Activate complement and activate immune cells
Activate complacent and activate mast cells
Activate complacent and activate immune cells
Activate complement and activate mast cells
121
Tissue repair begins early, isn't completed until all products have been neutralized/removed
False
True
122
Cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTL) use viral _______ complexes to recognize infected host cells
Ag-MHC class IV
Ag-MHC class II
Ag-MHC class I
Ag-MHC class III
123
Treg cells are responsible for _______ the immune system after an infection has been dealt with
Turning on
Keeping stable
Shutting down
All of the answers
124
Basophils are mainly involved in what?
Ingesting and destroying invaders
Inflammation and allergic responses
Allergic response and parasitic disease
Recognise pathogens and activating immune cells
125
The study of haemostasis is the human body's response to blood vessel injury and bleeding
True
False
126
What is the
final result
in EPO that causes a haemopoietic stem into a mature RBC
Normoblasts
Proerythroblasts
Basophilic erythroblasts
Polychromatophilic erythroblasts
127
In blood centrifugation which components sit on the top and bottom?
Erythrocytes on top, Leucocytes bottom
Leucocytes on top, Erythrocytes bottom
Plasma on top, Formed elements bottom
Formed elements on top, Plasma bottom
128
The primary type of Polycythaemia is?
Caused by a tumour-like condition of the pituitary gland
Caused by a tumour-like condition of the bone marrow
EPO-mediated ↑ in erythrocyte due to prolonged ↓ O2 levels
TPO-mediated ↑ in erythrocyte due to prolonged ↓ O2 levels
129
Eosinophils are mainly involved in what?
Recognise pathogens and activating immune cells
Inflammation and allergic responses
Ingesting and destroying invaders
Allergic response and parasitic disease
130
What phase is initiated when re-exposure to allergen occurs?
Activation phase
Resensitisation phase
Reactivation phase
Sensitisation phase
131
What slowly dissolves a fibrin clot?
Fibrin
Plasmin
Elastin
Thrombin
132
Type "A" blood possess
"A" surface glutinins
"A" surface antigen
"A" surface agglutinins
"A" surface antibody
133
A piece of a thrombus or any other traveling piece of debris in a blood vessel is called a/an?
Thrombi
Embolus
Plasminbus
Fibrinobus
134
Iron (Fe) is transported around in the blood attached to the protein _____?
Erythroferritin
Transferrin
Ferritin
Transerythroferritin
135
Plasma is comprised of
92% water, 7% protein, 1% other elements
7% water, 92% protein, 1% other elements
7% water, 1% protein, 92% other elements
1% water, 7% protein, 92% other elements
136
Secondary lymphoid organs are
Spleen and lymph nodes
Bone marrow and thymus
Bone marrow and liver
Spleen and kidneys
137
If antigens binds to Antibodies this stimulates B cells to become a 1._____ or a 2._____
1. Lymphocyte 2. Plasma cell
1. Red blood cell 2. Memory cell
1. Memory cell 2. Plasma cell
1. White blood cell 2. Red blood cell
138
RhoGAM ___ any foetal Rh+ cells before mother’s immune cells can find them & produce anti-Rh Ab
Creates
Destroys
Stabilises
Protects
139
Memory cells
Create an immune response and are long-lived
Create an immune response and are short-lived
Are longer lived and reproduce themselves
Are short lived and reproduce themselves
140
The universal recipient blood type is
Type O+
Type AB+
Type O-
Type AB-
141
Plasma proteins also contribute to the blood’s _____?
Blood pressure
Lymphatic pressure
Interstitial pressure
Osmotic pressure
142
Bone marrow provides structural support for 1.___ as well as a microenvironment for 2.___
1. Homeostasis 2. Breakdown
1. Haematopoiesis 2. Breakdown
1. Haematopoiesis 2. Development
1. Homeostasis 2. Development
143
An unwanted blood clot is called a
Fibrinobus
Plasminbus
Embolus
Thrombus
144
In leucocyte migration, ____________ emigrate from blood vessels to injury site
Neutrophils and lymphocytes
Neutrophils and monocytes
Basophils and lymphocytes
Basophils and monocytes
145
What does the reticulo-endothelia system do? (BM-= Bone marrow)
Produced from the breakdown of haem molecules
RBCs are destroyed by phagocytic cells in spleen, liver & BM
WBCs are destroyed by phagocytic cells in spleen, liver & BM
Produced from the breakdown of bilirubin molecules
146
Which of the following foreign substances can
not
act as an antigen?
Small polysacchardies
Protein
Lipoprotein molecules
Large polysaccharides
147
Haemophiliacs are unable to?
Produce white blood cells
Produce red blood cells
Form antibodies
Form blood clots
148
In Cytotoxic T lymphocyte after contact TC cells release ___? to kill target cells by apoptosis
Perforin and agranzymes
Interleukins and agranzymes
Perforin and granzymes
Interleukins and granzymes
149
Blood comprises approximately how much of body weight?
5-6%
10-11%
7-8%
12-13%
150
Which Cytokine increases the number of platelet precursors?
Erythropoietin (EPO)
Interleukins
Thrombopoietin (TPO)
Colony stimulating factors (CSFs)
151
__? begins when enzymes are exposed to collagen fibres at the injury site
Extrinsic pathway
Endogenous pathway
Intrinsic pathway
Exogenous pathway
152
Which of the following is
not
one of the causes of
reduced
Haematocrit (HCT)?
Anaemia
Polycythaemia
Massive or prolonged blood loss
Leukaemia
153
Which "other elements" are
not
in plasma?
Trace elements
ions and gases
Organic molecules
Electrolytes and enzymes
154
What are some microbes covered with that makes them "invisible" to phagocyte receptors?
2. Disaccharides
3. Polysaccharides
Both 1. and 2.
1. Monosaccharides
155
A deficiency of clotting factor VIII or IX is due to what
Haemophilia
Belonephilia
Hebephilia
Canophilia
156
What is the arrow pointing to from (<Blank>)
Erythrocyte
Lymphocyte
Basophil
Platelet
157
Components of bacterial wall activates the what system
Secondary system
Primary system
Complement system
Innate immunity
158
First vaccination takes place in North America in what year?
1853
1977
1800
1980
159
Antihistamines do what
increase action with respect to breathing
block action with respect to blood pressure
increase action with respect to blood pressure
block action with respect to breathing
160
Substances that interact with the immune system and elicit an immune response are either
immunogens or antigens (Ag)
immunoglobins or lymphocytes
immunoglobins or antigens (Ag)
immunogens or lymphocytes
161
Megakaryocytes are what?
Red blood cells
White blood cells
Platelets
Lymphocytes
162
In soluble immune factors, the
chemotaxins
factor does what?
Immediately attempt to coat and destroy the organisms
All of the answers
More molecules are released to recruit more immune cells
Either destroy or suppress the pathogen by ingesting it
163
A cause of pernicious anaemia is?
Vitamin B12 deficiency
Toxic chemicals
Low dietary iron intake
Destruction of bone marrow
164
The antibody structure are chains linked by Monosulfide bonds?
True
False
165
What is the arrow pointing to from (<Blank>)
Erythrocyte
Platelet
Basophil
Lymphocyte
166
Which vaccine is absolutely protective (100%) against what disease
Yellow fever
Variola
Polio
Influenza
167
In soluble immune factors, the
complement
factor does what?
Either destroy or suppress the pathogen by ingesting it
More molecules are released to recruit more immune cells
Immediately attempt to coat and destroy the organisms
All of the answers
168
Blood helps distribute?
O2,Nutrients to cells & Metabolic waste to elimination sites
CO2,nutrients to cells & Anabolic waste to elimination sites
CO2,nutrient to cells & Metabolic waste to elimination sites
O2,nutrients to cells & Anabolic waste to elimination sites
169
Lymphocytes and monocytes are known as?
granulocytes
Dinuclear cells
agranulocytes
mononuclear cells
170
ABO Blood Groups are based on how many glycolipid isoantigens?
3
4
2
1
171
Which 2 components of blood can initiate blood clot formation?
Antibodies (eg. lymphocytes) and proteins (eg. fibrinogen)
Antibodies (eg. lymphocytes) and Lipids (eg. fatty acids)
Cells (eg. platelets) and proteins (eg. fibrinogen)
Cells (eg. platelets) and Lipids (eg. fatty acids)
172
Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) is considered
a DNA rotovirus
an RNA rotovirus
a DNA retrovirus
an RNA retrovirus
173
In acquired immunity the body requires an initial exposure, the cell then undergoes ________
Immune response
Activation of T cells
Clonal expansion
Active replication
174
Effector cells
Are short lived and reproduce themselves
Create an immune response and are long-lived
Are longer lived and reproduce themselves
Create an immune response and are short-lived
175
What does a Natural killer cell secrete to prevent viral reproduction?
Cytotoxic lymphocytes
Cytoplasmic granules
Interferons
Granzymes
176
The main function of Albumin is to
Assists osmotic pressure/carriers water-insoluble molecules
Immunoglobulins mostly made by leucocytes
Iron transport
Important for haemostasis
177
Bilirubin taken up by the liver is converted to 1._____ bilirubin which is 2.____
1. Unconjugated 2. Lipid soluble
1. Conjugated 2. Lipid soluble
1. Conjugated 2. Water soluble
1. Unconjugated 2. Water soluble
178
Most plasma proteins are produced where?
Spleen
Pancreas
Bone marrow
Liver
179
Monocytes are precursors to macrophages and are
Larger and more effective scavengers than neutrophils
Smaller and more effective scavengers than basophils
Smaller and more effective scavengers than neutrophils
Larger and more effective scavengers than basophils
180
Vitamin K is involved in the synthesis of 4 clotting factors including?
Thrombin
Prothrombin
Aggrombin
Athrombin
181
Erythrocyte formation is called erythropoiesis?
False
True
182
Polycythaemia is due to the?
Overproduction of erythrocytes by increased secretion of EPO
Overproduction of erythrocytes by increased secretion of TPO
Overproduction of Leukocytes by increased secretion of EPO
Overproduction of Leukocytes by increased secretion of TPO
183
Once the clot has formed what causes the clot to retract
Blood vessels contract
Collagen contract
Platelets contract
Fibrin contract
184
B cells then differentiate into plasma cells and secrete specific antibodies which are?
IgB
IgD
IgG
IgE
185
Kaposi’s sarcoma is
Rare tumour of the bone marrow that is associated with HIV
Rare tumour of the blood vessels that is associated with HIV
Rare tumour of the blood vessel that is associated with AIDS
Rare tumour of the bone marrow that is associated with AIDS
186
B cells primarily do what?
Both 1 and 2
1. Attacks viruses, fungi, cancer cells & some bacteria
Neither 1 or 2
2. Destroys bacteria and their toxins
187
Autoimmunity results from a breakdown of tolerance, and results in the production of
autoantibodies and/or autoreactive T cells
autoantibodies and/or autoreactive B cells
autoantigens and/or under reactive B cells
autoantigens and/or under reactive T cells
188
Which of the following pharmaceuticals prevent blood clot formation
Warfarin
Heparin
None of the answers
Aspirin
189
The two major markers of blood antigens are?
AB blood group antigens and Rh antigens
AB blood group antigens and Gh antigens
ABO blood group antigens and Gh antigens
ABO blood group antigens and Rh antigens
190
Which of the following statements about anticoagulant drug (warfarin) is true
Blocks formation of small blood clots and actions of Vit K
Blocks formation of small blood clots and actions of Vit A
Creates formation of small blood clots and actions of Vit A
Creates formation of small blood clots and actions of Vit K
191
Plasma cells do not express Ab on their membrane, instead they synthesize and secrete Ab
False
True
192
MHC Class II molecules present 1.______ which has been 2.______ and processed eg bacteria
1. Endogenous antigen 2. Phagocytosed
1. Exogenous antigen 2. Hydrolised
1. Exogenous antigen 2. Phagocytosed
1. Endogenous antigen 2. Hydrolised
193
Factor X is crucial for blood clotting, along with factor X the enzyme _____ is formed
Thrombin
Thromboplastin
Fibrinogen
Prothrombinase
194
For the following plasma protiens which are the correct %'s?
Albumin(~60%), Globulins (~30%), Fibrinogen (2%)
Albumin(~30%), Globulins (~60%), Fibrinogen (4%)
Albumin(~30%), Globulins (~60%), Fibrinogen (2%)
Albumin(~60%), Globulins (~30%), Fibrinogen (4%)
195
Erythrocytes originate from progenitor stem cells called ________?
All of the answers
haemacytoclasts
haemacytoblasts
haemacytes
196
Blood consists of 2 main parts these are?
Plasma(~50%), Formed elements(~50%)
Erythrocytes (~55%), Platelets(~45%)
Plasma(~55%), Formed elements(~45%)
Erythrocytes (~50%), Platelets(~50%)
197
If there is a decrease in tissue oxygenation what is secreted into the blood from the kidney?
Erythropoietin (EPO)
Interleukins
Colony stimulating factors (CSFs)
Thrombopoietin (TPO)
198
Membrane attack complex helps actions of antibodies & cells, they are plasma proteins produced
by RBC
in the bone marrow
in the liver
by plasma
199
The Allergen and IgE attach to _________ which sensitises these cells to this allergen
Mast cells
Cytotoxic T cells
T cells
B cells
200
Natural killer cells are large cytotoxic lymphocytes containing
Endoplasmic granules
Endoplasmic agranules
Cytoplasmic agranules
Cytoplasmic granules
201
Smallpox is caused by the
virus bariola
virus sariola
virus tariola
virus variola
202
Haematocrit (HCT) measures what? in the total volume of blood
concentration of Megakaryocyte
concentration of Erythrocytes
concentration of Lymphocytes
concentration of Leucocytes
203
1_____ and long term use of antibiotics reduces 2_____ production by bacteria in the gut
1. Liver disease 2. Vitamin D
1. Liver disease 2. Vitamin K
1. Kidney disease 2. Vitamin D
1. Kidney disease 2. Vitamin K
204
Ciliated epithelial cells line respiratory & urogenital tracts and are covered by layer of
Collagen
Cholesterol
Muscus
Elastin
205
Primary lymphoid organs are
Bone marrow and thymus
Bone marrow and liver
Spleen and kidneys
Spleen and lymph nodes
206
Kinins act directly on local smooth muscle and causes muscle relaxation
True
False
207
In phagocytosis what is the correct sequence of events
1. Endocytosis 2. Attachment 3. Digestion
1. Endocytosis 2. Digestion 3. Attachment
1. Attachment 2. Digestion 3. Endocytosis
1. Attachment 2. Endocytosis 3. Digestion
208
Flexibility of the cell membrane allows the cell to change shape and respond to ______
Cell changes
Pressure changes
Interstitial changes
Osmotic changes
209
Helper T cells (Th cells) possess what surface antigen?
CD8
CD4
CD2
CD6
210
Iron is removed from the haem molecule which in turn is converted to ______?
Haemoglobin
Rubin
Bilirubin
Haem
211
_______ is also present on
erythrocytes
Rhesus antibody
D antibody
Rhesus antigen
D antigen
212
Most vaccines are delivered
Subcutaneous
Oral route
Subcutaneous or intramuscular
All of the answers
213
MHC Class I molecules are found
Cytoplasm of all anucleate cells
Surface of all nucleated cells
Surface of all anucleated cells
Cytoplasm of all nucleate cells
214
Which 2 components of blood that are apart of the immune system prevent infection?
Antibodies and Erythrocytes
Antibodies and leucocytes
Karyocyte and Erythrocytes
Karyocytes and leucocytes
215
Cells in the spleen monitor for specifically what?
Damaged cells
Parasites
Foreign pathogens
All of the answers
216
The universal donor blood type is
Type O+
Type AB-
Type AB+
Type O-
217
Which of the following is not one of the major functions of blood?
Distribution
Regulation
Production
Protection
218
The ______ immune response can occur by either a T cell-independent or -dependent mechanism
Extracellular
Intracellular
Endogenous
Exogenous
219
The HIV virus binds to ______ on helper T cells
CD2 protein
CD2 B cell
CD4 protein
CD4 B cell
220
Which of the following is
not
one of the most likely ways HIV can be transmitted
Sexual activity
Blood
Mother-baby
Saliva
221
Which of the statements about interleukins is true?
Reduce fever
Stimulate acute phase protein synthesis
Stimulate blood vessels contraction to reduce blood flow
Reduce cytokine and endocrine secretion
222
Erythrocytes (RBC) are biconcaved shaped 1.____ cells and their main protein is 2.____
1. nucleate 2. immunoglobulin
1. anucleate 2. haemoglobin
1. anucleate 2. immunoglobulin
1. nucleate 2. haemoglobin
223
HDN is very common in
Preconception
Its a genetic disposition
Pregnancy
Childbirth
224
In coagulation most are synthesized in the ____ & circulate in an inactive form until activated
Kidney
Heart
Lungs
Liver
225
Which are the correct 4 steps in the conversion of firbrinogen to fibrin? (Form = fromation)
Activation of X, Initiation, Form fibrin clot, Form thrombin
Activation of X, Initiation, Form thrombin, Form fibrin clot
Initiation, Activation of X, Form fibrin clot, Form thrombin
Initiation, Activation of X, Form thrombin, Form fibrin clot
226
A patient with blood type B+ can receive blood from B+, B-, O+, O- donors
False
True
227
T lymphocytes provide
Extracellular immunity
Intracellular immunity
Exogenous immunity
Endogenous immunity
228
In antigen presenting cells Dendritic cells express both
MHC class II
MHC class I, II, III and IV
MHC class I and II
MHC class I
229
Which cytokine increases platelet production?
Interleukins
Erythropoietin (EPO)
Colony stimulating factors (CSFs)
Thrombopoietin (TPO)
230
In acquired immune response, each cell contains ___? which bind to different ligands (antigens)
3 receptors
2 receptors
Multiple receptors
Different receptors
231
A patient with type AB- blood can receive from all ABO and Rh blood types
False
True
232
In 1796 Edward Jenner used _____to immunize people against smallpox
Cowpox
Porkpox
Pigpox
Smallpox
233
Aggregation of platelets in haemostasis can also be described as the
escape of platelets from the artery
escape of collagen from the blood vessel
escape of collagen from the artery
escape of platelets from the blood vessel
234
An overactive immune response can cause what in the body
Viral infection
Bacterial infection
Autoimmune disease
Allergies
235
All cells originate from a single precursor cell _____?
Multipotent Haematopoietic Stem Cell (MHSC)
Unipotent Haematopoietic Stem Cell (UHSC)
Omnipotent Haematopoietic Stem Cell (OHSC)
Pluripotent Haematopoietic Stem Cell (PHSC)
236
Which are the regulatory roles of blood?
Body temperature, pH, waste volume and interstial pressure
Body fluidity, pH, waste volume and interstitial pressure
Body temperature, pH, Fluid volume and osmotic pressure
Body fluidity, pH, Fluid volume and osmotic pressure
237
_? allergy response is mediated by Ab & mast cells occurs after exposure to Ag called allergens
A staggered
A timed
An immediate
A delayed
238
Which Cytokine increases the number of RBC precursors?
Thrombopoietin (TPO)
Colony stimulating factors (CSFs)
Erythropoietin (EPO)
Interleukins
239
Platelets (thrombocytes) are made in bone marrow as fragments of?
Erythrocytes
Leucocytes
Lymphocytes
Megakaryocytes
240
What binds to viral Ag on macrophage MHC class II molecules?
Cytotoxic B cells
Helper B cells
Cytotoxic T cells
Helper T cells
241
The most common antibody found in 75% of body fluids is?
IgE
IgG
IgM
IgA
242
Saliva in mouth contains 1._____ enzymes, stomach and vaginal fluids are 2._____
1. Hydrochloric enzymes 2. Alkaline
1. Hydrolytic enzymes 2. Alkaline
1. Hydrochloric enzymes 2. Acidic
1. Hydrolytic enzymes 2. Acidic
243
Anaemia can occur in patients suffering renal failure due to insufficient ____ production.
Thrombopoietin (TPO)
Colony stimulating factors (CSFs)
Erythropoietin (EPO)
Interleukins