What are some symptoms of gallstone ileus? (4)

N/V, Distention, Constipation, Abdominal pain

Which description best describes greenstick fractures?

Incomplete break, common in children

What are some non-modifiable risk factors for HTN? (3)

Being assigned male at birth, Being african-american, Older adults

What can result from burns to the eye? (5)

Conjunctivis, Sloughing, Pain, Swollen eyelids, Loss of vision

Which of the following best describes hypertonic fluids? (2)

Draws water out of the cells, Has an osmolarity higher than blood plasma

What is true about elderly mobility? (3)

Lower bone density, Increased risk of fractures, Muscle atrophy

What causes pleural friction rub?

Inflamed pleural surfaces slide against each other

Which of the following statements are true about scoliosis? (2)

C or S shape, Lateral curve to the spine

What can result from blunt trauma to the eye? (2)

Subconjunctival hemorrhage, Lid ecchymosis

What are some risk factors for urinary retention? (6!) Also voluntary urinary retention

Infection, Medications, UTIs, Trauma, Benign prostatic hyperplasia, Anesthia

Optic neuropathy with gradual loss of peripheral vision

Which of the following best describes cysts?

Elevated, encapsulated, fluid-or semi-solid mass

Which of the following best describes vesicles?

Elevated, fluid filled, round or oval-shaped, circumscribed borders

Which description best describes wheezing?

High-pitched whistling sound usually heard on expiration

What are some risk factors for peripheral neuropathies? (6!) Also alcohol use.

Toxin exposure, Kidney/liver/thyroid disorders, Tall height, Vitamin B deficiency, Diabetes, Immune system suppression

What is the cause of corneal abrasions?

Disruption of the superficial epithelium of the cornea

Transfer of heat through a fluid motion of liquid and gas

Which of the following are surgical therapies for hearing loss? (3)

Tympanoplasty, Myringotomy, Cochlear implant

What causes crackles?

Fluid from inflammation or exudates

What is age-related macular degeneration (AMD)?

The gradual process of degeneration in the macular area of the retina

What are the risk factors for appendicitis? (3)

Fecal impaction, Rural home, Family history

A feeling of rotation or imbalance

What are some possible s/s of a UTI? (5)

Painful urination, Urgency to urinate despite little amount of urine in the bladder, Cloudy urine, Lower back pain, Bloody urine

Which description best describes crackles?

High-pitched popping sounds heard on inspiration

What is the pathophysiology of COPD?

Alveolar damage limits gas exchange

Which of the following best describes hypotonic fluids? (2)

Causes water to move into cells, Has an osmolarity lower than blood plasma

Which description best describes cholecystitis?

Less than 3 bowel movements in a week

What are some tests that measure cardiac function? (5)

Serum cholesterol levels, ECG, Imaging tests like X-rays, Cardiac catheterization, Stress tests

What are some ways to prevent macular degeneration? (3)

Stop smoking, Limit UV exposure, Eat a healthy diet

What are the causes of cholecystitis? (3)

Inactivity, Low fiber, Opioid use

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Fundamentals Final Exam Study Guide

144 termsStudBud Administration25 plays

Questions were created using the study guides and Delanie’s memory game. Questions may be added over time so stay tuned. If anyone has any suggestions for additional questions, please email me so that I can add them. Good luck everyone!! I added some more questions on 5/4 at 12:58pm.

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Questions 144

Answers

1
What are some symptoms of gallstone ileus? (4)
N/V
Distention
Weight loss
Urethral pain
Constipation
Abdominal pain
2
Which description best describes greenstick fractures?
Incomplete break, common in children
Bone breaks but does not penetrate the skin
Twisting force that causes the bone to break in a spiral pattern
Bone shatters into multiple fragments
Bone breaks through skin, increased risk of infection
Small cracks from repetitive force, common in athletes
3
Which blood pressure value indicates stage 2 HTN?
180/120
130/80
120/80
140/90
4
Fecal impaction is a mass/collection of hardened feces in the ___ or ___
Small intestine
Large intestine
Colon
Rectum
Stomach
Duodenum
5
What is the normal respiratory rate for school-age children?
18-30
24-40
12-20
30-60
6
Which blood pressure value indicates a hypertensive crisis?
170/70
140/90
180/120
120/80
7
What are some non-modifiable risk factors for HTN? (3)
Adolescents
Being assigned female at birth
Being caucasian
Being assigned male at birth
Being african-american
Older adults
8
Which two fluids would you give a patient with a low grade fever? (2)
Soda
Monster energy
Alcohol
Diet soda
Gatorade
Water
9
Which layer of the heart is responsible for contraction?
Endocardium
Epicardium
Myocardium
Pericardium
10
What can result from burns to the eye? (5)
Conjunctivis
Sloughing
Pain
Swollen eyelids
Photophobia
Loss of vision
11
Which of the following best describes hypertonic fluids? (2)
Draws water out of the cells
Has an osmolarity similar to blood plasma
No significant fluid shift
Has an osmolarity lower than blood plasma
Has an osmolarity higher than blood plasma
Causes water to move into cells
12
What is true about elderly mobility? (3)
Lower bone density
Coordination is developing
Higher bone density
Increased muscle strength
Increased risk of fractures
Muscle atrophy
13
What causes pleural friction rub?
Blockage in large airway passages
Narrowing of the bronchi
Inflamed pleural surfaces slide against each other
Narrowing of tracheal passage
Fluid from inflammation or exudates
14
Which blood pressure value is considered elevated?
120/80
140/90
110/70
125/80
15
Which of the following statements are true about scoliosis? (2)
C or S shape
Infection of the spine
Cannot be corrected or treated
Lateral curve to the spine
16
What can result from blunt trauma to the eye? (2)
Loss of vision
Subconjunctival hemorrhage
Sloughing
Lid ecchymosis
17
What can result from a corneal abrasion? (2)
Sloughing
Photophobia
Loss of vision
Lid ecchymosis
Pain
Tearing
18
Which of the following best describes macules?
Flat, <1 cm
Elevated, solid, circumscribed borders, <0.5 cm. Plaque is > 0.5 cm
Elevated, fluid filled, round or oval-shaped, circumscribed borders
Deep, irregular shaped area
Elevated, irregular border
Elevated, encapsulated, fluid-or semi-solid mass
19
Which diet would be prescribed to a patient with HTN?
Normal diet
NPO
RUN diet
DASH diet
20
What causes febrile seizures?
Hypothermia
Heat exhaustion
Rapid temperature decrease
Rapid temperature increase
21
What are some risk factors for urinary retention? (6!) Also voluntary urinary retention
Infection
Medications
UTIs
Trauma
Benign prostatic hyperplasia
Anesthia
22
What is glaucoma?
Gradual process of degeneration in the macular area of the retina
Clouding of the lens
Optic neuropathy with gradual loss of peripheral vision
23
Which of the following best describes cysts?
Elevated, encapsulated, fluid-or semi-solid mass
Elevated, fluid filled, round or oval-shaped, circumscribed borders
Elevated, irregular border
Deep, irregular shaped area
Elevated, solid, circumscribed borders, <0.5 cm. Plaque is > 0.5 cm
Flat, <1 cm
24
The Rinne and Weber tuning test tests for conductive hearing loss.
True
False
25
Which of the following best describes vesicles?
Elevated, fluid filled, round or oval-shaped, circumscribed borders
Elevated, encapsulated, fluid-or semi-solid mass
Flat, <1 cm
Deep, irregular shaped area
Elevated, solid, circumscribed borders, <0.5 cm. Plaque is > 0.5 cm
Elevated, irregular border
26
Which description best describes wheezing?
Low-pitched, crackling sound present on inspiration and expiration
High-pitched sound within the trachea and larynx
High-pitched whistling sound usually heard on expiration
Course, low-pitched sounds during inspiration
High-pitched popping sounds heard on inspiration
27
What are some risk factors for peripheral neuropathies? (6!) Also alcohol use.
Toxin exposure
Kidney/liver/thyroid disorders
Tall height
Vitamin B deficiency
Diabetes
Immune system suppression
28
What is the cause of corneal abrasions?
Separation of the eye from the choroid
Disruption of the superficial epithelium of the cornea
High force entering the eye
Lid ecchymosis, subconjunctival hemorrhage
29
Hydrocolloid dressings are only used for clean wounds.
True
False
30
What is convection?
Transfer of heat through a fluid motion of liquid and gas
Transfer of heat through rays/waves of particles
Converting water to vapor
Transfer of heat by direct contact
31
What causes neoplastic skin disorders?
Liver cancers
Burns
Fungal agents
Skin cancers
32
Which of the following are surgical therapies for hearing loss? (3)
Tympanoplasty
Myringotomy
Cochlear implant
Hearing aids
33
What causes crackles?
Narrowing of tracheal passage
Blockage in large airway passages
Fluid from inflammation or exudates
Inflamed pleural surfaces slide against each other
Narrowing of the bronchi
34
What is age-related macular degeneration (AMD)?
Clouding of the lens
Optic neuropathy with gradual loss of peripheral vision
The gradual process of degeneration in the macular area of the retina
35
What are the risk factors for appendicitis? (3)
Fecal impaction
Rural home
Gallstone Ileus
Diarrhea
Urban home
Family history
36
What is vertigo?
A film made in 1960 directed by Alfred Hitchcock
A condition in which one has an extreme tendency to fall asleep
A sudden loss of vision
A feeling of rotation or imbalance
37
What are some possible s/s of a UTI? (5)
Painful urination
Urgency to urinate despite little amount of urine in the bladder
Cloudy urine
Lower back pain
Bloody urine
Nausea
38
What is evaporation?
Transfer of heat by direct contact
Transfer of heat through a fluid motion of liquid and gas
Transfer of heat through rays/waves of particles
Converting water to vapor
39
Which description best describes crackles?
High-pitched sound within the trachea and larynx
Low-pitched, crackling sound present on inspiration and expiration
High-pitched popping sounds heard on inspiration
Course, low-pitched sounds during inspiration
High-pitched whistling sound usually heard on expiration
40
What is the pathophysiology of COPD?
Alveolar damage limits gas exchange
Airway obstruction due to bronchial tube inflammation
41
Which of the following best describes hypotonic fluids? (2)
Has an osmolarity higher than blood plasma
Causes water to move into cells
Has an osmolarity lower than blood plasma
Draws water out of the cells
Has an osmolarity similar to blood plasma
No significant fluid shift
42
What are some surgical treatments for pressure injuries? (2)
Debridement
Rhinoplasty
Degloving
Larvae
43
Which vitamin is essential for absorption?
Vitamin B12
Vitamin A
Vitamin C
Vitamin D
44
Which description best describes cholecystitis?
Gallbladder disorder that affects the ability to move bile to bile ducts
Less than 3 bowel movements in a week
Gallstone is unable to move through large intestine
Gallstone is unable to move through small intestine
45
What are some tests that measure cardiac function? (5)
Serum cholesterol levels
Sleep study
ECG
Imaging tests like X-rays
Cardiac catheterization
Stress tests
46
What are some ways to prevent macular degeneration? (3)
Prescription eye drops
Stop smoking
Limit UV exposure
Eat a healthy diet
Limit exercise
Increase UV exposure
47
What is one part of the body that should be frequently checked if you have a peripheral neuropathy?
Feet
Hands
Head
Perineal area
48
What can result from penetrating trauma to the eye? (2)
Floaters
Flashes of light
Loss of vision
Lid ecchymosis
Bleeding
Sloughing
49
Which part of the brain regulates temperature?
Occipital lobe
Hypothalamus
Medulla Oblongata
Pons
50
What are the causes of cholecystitis? (3)
Overactivity
High fiber
High cholesterol
Inactivity
Low fiber
Opioid use
51
What is the cause of nonexudative (dry) macular degeneration?
Drusen deposits
Contact lense use
Idiopathic
Aging
52
What is known as the pacemaker of the heart?
Atrioventricular bundle
Sinoatrial node
Atrioventricular node
Purkinje fibers
53
When is the POLICE mnemonic used?
To remember the order of medication to take with muscle injuries
To prevent pain/help recovery for muscle or soft tissue injuries
To prevent muscle or soft tissue injuries from happening
54
What is the cause of a detached retina?
Chemical burns
Separation of the eye from the choroid
High force entering the eye
Disruption of the superficial epithelium of the cornea
55
What is the normal respiratory rate for newborns?
18-30
24-40
12-20
30-60
56
What causes stridor?
Narrowing of tracheal passage
Inflamed pleural surfaces slide against each other
Fluid from inflammation or exudates
Narrowing of the bronchi
Blockage in large airway passages
57
Gallstone Ileus needs to be treated with emergency surgery.
False
True
58
Which of the following would be included in a kinesthetic assessment? (2)
Written methods
Verbal methods
Hands on activities
Physical movement
59
What are non-modifiable risk factors for biliary dyskinesia? (2)
Being overweight
Being native american
Eating a high-fat diet
Assigned female at birth
60
What causes glaucoma?
Endothelial growth
Aging
Idiopathic
Drusen deposits
61
What is the temperature range for hypothermia? (Fahrenheit)
<94
<96
<95
<97
62
Which of the following are manifestations of acute pain? (4)
Decreased BP and HR
Sweating
Increased BP and HR
Irritability
Rapid and shallow respirations
Lasts less than 6 months
63
What nutrients are needed for wound healing? (4)
Vitamin A
Vitamin C
Vitamin D
Vitamin B
Proteins
Carbohydrates
64
What is the function of brown fat?
Helps protect organs from extreme temperatures
Additional cushioning of organs
Breaks down with minimal activity to boost energy
Boosts metabolism
65
Which core temperature indicates hyperthermia? (Fahrenheit)
92
97
98
101
66
True or false: Insensible fluid loss is the amount of water lost through the skin that cannot be measured.
False, it is lost through urination
True
False, it is lost through urination and can be measured
False, it can be measured
67
What are some clinical manifestations of HTN? (5)
Visual disturbances
BP of 125/80
Headache
Renal insufficiency
N/V
Confusion
68
Which type of medication would you give to someone with a low-grade fever?
Antidepressants
Antibiotics
Antipyretics
Amphetamines
69
Which description best describes open fractures?
Twisting force that causes the bone to break in a spiral pattern
Incomplete break, common in children
Bone breaks but does not penetrate the skin
Small cracks from repetitive force, common in athletes
Bone breaks through skin, increased risk of infection
Bone shatters into multiple fragments
70
Which blood pressure value is considered normal?
130/90
150/100
100/70
80/50
71
What causes rhonchi?
Narrowing of tracheal passage
Blockage in large airway passages
Fluid from inflammation or exudates
Inflamed pleural surfaces slide against each other
Narrowing of the bronchi
72
What is the primary function of colloid osmotic pressure?
Helps in oxygen exchange
Helps to maintain fluid balance in the capillaries
Helps to prevent cardiac dysrhythmias
Helps maintain blood pressure in the heart
73
What is conduction?
Transfer of heat by direct contact
Converting water to vapor
Transfer of heat through a fluid motion of liquid and gas
Transfer of heat through rays/waves of particles
74
What are some symptoms of biliary dyskinesia? (5)
Murphy’s sign
Psoas sign
Jaundice
URQ pain
Bloating
Nausea
75
Which of the following are pharmacological therapies for HTN? (4)
Antidepressants
ACE Inhibitors
NSAIDs
Vasodilators
Diuretics
Calcium channel blockers
76
Which of the following best describes isotonic fluids? (2)
No significant fluid shift
Draws water out of the cells
Has an osmolarity similar to blood plasma
Has an osmolarity higher than blood plasma
Causes water to move into cells
Has an osmolarity lower than blood plasma
77
What are the two types of peptic ulcers?
Duodenal ulcers
Iliac ulcers
Gastric ulcers
Esophageal ulcers
78
Which could cause stenosis of the heart?
Too much blood entering the valves at once
Calcium deposits
Iron deposits
Blood leaking back through the valve
79
What is the normal respiratory rate for toddlers?
24-40
12-20
18-30
30-60
80
Which of the following are hypotonic fluids?
3% normal saline
0.9% normal saline
0.45% normal saline
Dextrose 10%
Lactated ringers
81
What are some symptoms of appendicitis? (5)
Stabbing navel pain
Fever
Diarrhea
Dull navel pain
N/V
No appetite
82
Harmless murmurs are caused by conditions such as stenosis, rheumatic fever, endocarditis, and regurgitation.
False
True
83
What are the treatment options for fibromyalgia? (6)
Massage
Analgesics
Anti-stress techniques
Antidepressants
Physical therapy
Anticonvulsants
84
What does the POLICE Therapy mnemonic stand for? (All are correct, remember this!)
Optimal Loading
Protection
Compression
Elevate
Ice
85
What is radiation?
Transfer of heat through a fluid motion of liquid and gas
Transfer of heat by direct contact
Transfer of heat through rays/waves of particles
Converting water to vapor
86
Which of the following are hypertonic fluids? (2)
Lactated ringers
0.9% normal saline
3% normal saline
0.45% normal saline
Dextrose 10%
87
Which age population has brown fat?
Infants
Pregnant women
Adolescents
Older adults
88
Which of the following are isotonic fluids? (2)
Lactated ringers
0.45% normal saline
Dextrose 10%
3% normal saline
0.9% normal saline
89
Which of the following are manifestations of chronic pain? (4)
Irritability
Depression
Lasts less than 6 months
Impaired mobility
Sweating
Sleep disturbances
90
In which trimesters of pregnancy does core body temperature decrease? (2)
1st trimester
2nd trimester
3rd trimester
91
Which description best describes closed fractures?
Bone shatters into multiple fragments
Small cracks from repetitive force, common in athletes
Bone breaks but does not penetrate the skin
Incomplete break, common in children
Twisting force that causes the bone to break in a spiral pattern
Bone breaks through skin, increased risk of infection
92
What is a treatment for a chemical eye burn?
Irrigate the eyes with water for 30-35 minutes
Irrigate the eyes with water for a couple of minutes
Irrigate the eyes with water for 5-10 minutes
Irrigate the eyes with water for 15-30 minutes
93
AMD is the leading cause of legal blindness in people over 60.
False
True
94
What are the s/s of heat exhaustion? (4)
Dizziness
Fainting
Seizures
N/V
Paleness
Temp of 106 F or higher
95
Which of the following best describes wheals?
Elevated, irregular border
Elevated, fluid filled, round or oval-shaped, circumscribed borders
Deep, irregular shaped area
Elevated, encapsulated, fluid-or semi-solid mass
Flat, <1 cm
Elevated, solid, circumscribed borders, <0.5 cm. Plaque is > 0.5 cm
96
Which of the following is true about acute fatigue?
Exacerbated by physical activity
Begins and resolves with rest
Associated with a single event
Caused by a long-term illness
97
Which of the following best describes papules?
Deep, irregular shaped area
Elevated, solid, circumscribed borders, <0.5 cm. Plaque is > 0.5 cm
Elevated, fluid filled, round or oval-shaped, circumscribed borders
Elevated, encapsulated, fluid-or semi-solid mass
Elevated, irregular border
Flat, <1 cm
98
What causes inflammatory skin disorders? (5)
Burns
Fungal agents
Dermatitis
Psoriasis
Acne
Eczema
99
What are some EARLY s/s of hypoxemia? (3)
Shortness of breath (SOB)
Cyanosis
Tachycardia
Rapid breathing
100
What happens during stage 1 of inflammation? (5)
Increased blood flow
Release of prostaglandins
Exudate production
Blood vessels constrict
Release of kinins
Release of histamines
101
What is a cataract?
Optic neuropathy w/ gradual loss of peripheral vision
Clouding of the lens
Gradual process of degeneration in the macular area of the retina
102
Harmless murmurs are not true heart murmurs.
False
True
103
In which age population are febrile seizures likely to occur?
Infants
Young adults
Older adults
Pregnant women
104
What can result from a detached retina? (3)
Loss of vision
Sloughing
Flashes of light
Pain
Floaters
Bleeding
105
Which sound is indicative of a heart murmur?
Soft blowing
Harsh grating
Soft whistling
Harsh blowing
106
The serum levels of which two vitamins should be obtained to test for peripheral neuropathies? (2)
Iron
Vitamin B6
Magnesium
Vitamin B12
Thiamine
107
Which description best describes gallstone ileus?
Gallbladder disorder that affects the ability to move bile to bile ducts
Gallstone is unable to move through small intestine
Gallstone is unable to move through large intestine
Less than 3 bowel movements in a week
108
What causes infectious skin disorders? (4)
Skin cancers
Acne
Viral agents
Fungal agents
Bacterial agents
Parasitic agents
109
Keloid: an elevated irregular darkened area of excess scar tissue from excessive collagen formation during healing
True
False
110
Which of the following best describes ulcers?
Elevated, encapsulated, fluid-or semi-solid mass
Flat, <1 cm
Elevated, fluid filled, round or oval-shaped, circumscribed borders
Elevated, solid, circumscribed borders, <0.5 cm. Plaque is > 0.5 cm
Deep, irregular shaped area
Elevated, irregular border
111
Which description best describes pleural friction rub?
High-pitched popping sounds heard on inspiration
Course, low-pitched sounds during inspiration
High-pitched whistling sound usually heard on expiration
High-pitched sound within the trachea and larynx
Low-pitched, crackling sound present on inspiration and expiration
112
What are some manifestations of fibromyalgia? (4)
Bradypnea
Widespread musculoskeletal pain
Fatigue
Cognitive difficulties
Sleep issues
Bradycardia
113
What are some modifiable risk factors for altered skin integrity? (5)
Hygiene
Age
Avoidance of irritants
Activity levels
Exposure to UV light
Nutrition
114
What are examples of peripheral neuropathies? (6!)
Alcoholic neuropathy
Diabetic peripheral neuropathy
Polyneuropathies
Mononeuropathies
Guillain-Barre Syndrome
Charcot-Marie Tooth disease
115
What is the most common type of burn in relation to eye injuries?
Radiation
Electrical
Thermal
Chemical
116
Which description best describes comminuted fractures?
Twisting force that causes the bone to break in a spiral pattern
Incomplete break, common in children
Bone breaks but does not penetrate the skin
Small cracks from repetitive force, common in athletes
Bone shatters into multiple fragments
Bone breaks through skin, increased risk of infection
117
What are some signs of adequate perfusion? (3)
Presence of pain/cramping in extremities
Cool skin temperature
Urine output of 30 mL/hr
Warm skin temperature
Normal skin color
118
What is some preventative education for UTIs? (3)
Drink plenty of fluids
Urinate less frequently
Wear tighter clothing
Wear loose-fitting clothing
Do not delay urination
119
What are some non-modifiable risk factors for altered tissue integrity? (5)
Nutrition
Sex
Skin color
Genetics
Ethnicity
Age
120
What are the factors affecting heat production? (5)
Parasympathetic stimulation
Muscle activity
Thyroxine
BMR
Fever
Sympathetic stimulation
121
What is the cause of exudative (wet) macular degeneration?
Endothelial growth
Drusen deposits
Aging
Idiopathic
122
What causes wheezing?
Fluid from inflammation or exudates
Narrowing of tracheal passage
Blockage in large airway passages
Narrowing of the bronchi
Inflamed pleural surfaces slide against each other
123
What causes cataracts?
Drusen deposits
Idiopathic
Aging
Endothelial growth
124
What is true about hospice care?
Focused on comfort
Illness can still be treated
Focused on relieving symptoms of illnesses
Life expectancy is 6 months or less
125
What is true about toddler mobility? (3)
Increased risk of fractures
Decreased risk of fractures
Prone to falls
Coordination is developing
126
Which blood pressure value indicates stage 1 HTN?
140/90
120/80
130/80
110/60
127
Sleep apnea is characterized by repeated pauses in breathing during sleep
True
False
128
What are some diagnostic tests for peripheral neuropathies? (6!)
EMG
Metabolic panel
Thyroid function test
CBC
Nerve biopsy
Urine screening
129
Grade IV pressure injuries may not present with full thickness skin loss.
True
False
130
What is true about palliative care?
Aims to treat symptoms
Focuses on comfort care
Focuses on quality of life
Focuses on relieving symptoms AND stress of serious illnesses
Life expectancy is less than 6 months
131
Which of the following are aspects of the sensory process? (4)
Stimulus
Perception
Reaction
Receptors
Impulse conduction
132
What are some risks that come with obesity? (5)
Joint/muscle pain
Type 2 DM
Heart failure
Hiatal hernia
Type 1 DM
Stroke
133
What are some symptoms of gallbladder disease? (3)
Bloated stomach
Episodic RUQ pain
Constant RLQ pain
Weight gain
Constant RUQ pain
Weight loss
134
Which of the following are strategies to prevent hypertension? (4)
Increase cholesterol intake
Reduce sodium intake
Use stress management techniques
Aerobic exercises for 30 minutes a day
Maintain normal body weight
Reduce intake of dairy products
135
What are the s/s of heat stroke? (5)
Warm, flushed skin
Unconsciousness
Seizures
N/V
Delirium
Temp of 106 F or higher
136
What are some signs and symptoms of poor perfusion? (4)
Abdominal pain
Cyanosis
Decreased urine output
Chest pain
Cool, clammy skin
Increased urine output
137
Which description best describes stridor?
High-pitched popping sounds heard on inspiration
Course, low-pitched sounds during inspiration
Low-pitched, crackling sound present on inspiration and expiration
High-pitched whistling sound usually heard on expiration
High-pitched sound within the trachea and larynx
138
Which description best describes spiral fractures?
Bone shatters into multiple fragments
Small cracks from repetitive force, common in athletes
Incomplete break, common in children
Twisting force that causes the bone to break in a spiral pattern
Bone breaks through skin, increased risk of infection
Bone breaks but does not penetrate the skin
139
Which description best describes stress fractures?
Incomplete break, common in children
Twisting force that causes the bone to break in a spiral pattern
Bone breaks but does not penetrate the skin
Small cracks from repetitive force, common in athletes
Bone shatters into multiple fragments
Bone breaks through skin, increased risk of infection
140
What are some clinical manifestations of coronary artery disease? (5)
Nausea
Vomiting
Angina
Fatigue
Neck, shoulder, jaw, or arm pain
SOB
141
People that suffer a heat stroke will always sweat.
False
True
142
Which description best describes Gallbladder disease?
Gallstone is unable to move through small intestine
Less than 3 bowel movements in a week
Gallbladder disorder that affects the ability to move bile to bile ducts
Gallstone is unable to move through large intestine
143
What is the range of a normal Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP)?
60-70
30-35
60-65
16-20
144
Which description best describes rhonchi?
High-pitched popping sounds heard on inspiration
Course, low-pitched sounds during inspiration
High-pitched sound within the trachea and larynx
High-pitched whistling sound usually heard on expiration
Low-pitched, crackling sound present on inspiration and expiration

Fundamentals Final Exam Study Guide Flashcards | StudBud

Fundamentals Final Exam Study Guide

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Questions 144

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1
What are some symptoms of gallstone ileus? (4)
N/V
Distention
Weight loss
Urethral pain
Constipation
Abdominal pain
2
Which description best describes greenstick fractures?
Incomplete break, common in children
Bone breaks but does not penetrate the skin
Twisting force that causes the bone to break in a spiral pattern
Bone shatters into multiple fragments
Bone breaks through skin, increased risk of infection
Small cracks from repetitive force, common in athletes
3
Which blood pressure value indicates stage 2 HTN?
180/120
130/80
120/80
140/90
4
Fecal impaction is a mass/collection of hardened feces in the ___ or ___
Small intestine
Large intestine
Colon
Rectum
Stomach
Duodenum
5
What is the normal respiratory rate for school-age children?
18-30
24-40
12-20
30-60
6
Which blood pressure value indicates a hypertensive crisis?
170/70
140/90
180/120
120/80
7
What are some non-modifiable risk factors for HTN? (3)
Adolescents
Being assigned female at birth
Being caucasian
Being assigned male at birth
Being african-american
Older adults
8
Which two fluids would you give a patient with a low grade fever? (2)
Soda
Monster energy
Alcohol
Diet soda
Gatorade
Water
9
Which layer of the heart is responsible for contraction?
Endocardium
Epicardium
Myocardium
Pericardium
10
What can result from burns to the eye? (5)
Conjunctivis
Sloughing
Pain
Swollen eyelids
Photophobia
Loss of vision
11
Which of the following best describes hypertonic fluids? (2)
Draws water out of the cells
Has an osmolarity similar to blood plasma
No significant fluid shift
Has an osmolarity lower than blood plasma
Has an osmolarity higher than blood plasma
Causes water to move into cells
12
What is true about elderly mobility? (3)
Lower bone density
Coordination is developing
Higher bone density
Increased muscle strength
Increased risk of fractures
Muscle atrophy
13
What causes pleural friction rub?
Blockage in large airway passages
Narrowing of the bronchi
Inflamed pleural surfaces slide against each other
Narrowing of tracheal passage
Fluid from inflammation or exudates
14
Which blood pressure value is considered elevated?
120/80
140/90
110/70
125/80
15
Which of the following statements are true about scoliosis? (2)
C or S shape
Infection of the spine
Cannot be corrected or treated
Lateral curve to the spine
16
What can result from blunt trauma to the eye? (2)
Loss of vision
Subconjunctival hemorrhage
Sloughing
Lid ecchymosis
17
What can result from a corneal abrasion? (2)
Sloughing
Photophobia
Loss of vision
Lid ecchymosis
Pain
Tearing
18
Which of the following best describes macules?
Flat, <1 cm
Elevated, solid, circumscribed borders, <0.5 cm. Plaque is > 0.5 cm
Elevated, fluid filled, round or oval-shaped, circumscribed borders
Deep, irregular shaped area
Elevated, irregular border
Elevated, encapsulated, fluid-or semi-solid mass
19
Which diet would be prescribed to a patient with HTN?
Normal diet
NPO
RUN diet
DASH diet
20
What causes febrile seizures?
Hypothermia
Heat exhaustion
Rapid temperature decrease
Rapid temperature increase
21
What are some risk factors for urinary retention? (6!) Also voluntary urinary retention
Infection
Medications
UTIs
Trauma
Benign prostatic hyperplasia
Anesthia
22
What is glaucoma?
Gradual process of degeneration in the macular area of the retina
Clouding of the lens
Optic neuropathy with gradual loss of peripheral vision
23
Which of the following best describes cysts?
Elevated, encapsulated, fluid-or semi-solid mass
Elevated, fluid filled, round or oval-shaped, circumscribed borders
Elevated, irregular border
Deep, irregular shaped area
Elevated, solid, circumscribed borders, <0.5 cm. Plaque is > 0.5 cm
Flat, <1 cm
24
The Rinne and Weber tuning test tests for conductive hearing loss.
True
False
25
Which of the following best describes vesicles?
Elevated, fluid filled, round or oval-shaped, circumscribed borders
Elevated, encapsulated, fluid-or semi-solid mass
Flat, <1 cm
Deep, irregular shaped area
Elevated, solid, circumscribed borders, <0.5 cm. Plaque is > 0.5 cm
Elevated, irregular border
26
Which description best describes wheezing?
Low-pitched, crackling sound present on inspiration and expiration
High-pitched sound within the trachea and larynx
High-pitched whistling sound usually heard on expiration
Course, low-pitched sounds during inspiration
High-pitched popping sounds heard on inspiration
27
What are some risk factors for peripheral neuropathies? (6!) Also alcohol use.
Toxin exposure
Kidney/liver/thyroid disorders
Tall height
Vitamin B deficiency
Diabetes
Immune system suppression
28
What is the cause of corneal abrasions?
Separation of the eye from the choroid
Disruption of the superficial epithelium of the cornea
High force entering the eye
Lid ecchymosis, subconjunctival hemorrhage
29
Hydrocolloid dressings are only used for clean wounds.
True
False
30
What is convection?
Transfer of heat through a fluid motion of liquid and gas
Transfer of heat through rays/waves of particles
Converting water to vapor
Transfer of heat by direct contact
31
What causes neoplastic skin disorders?
Liver cancers
Burns
Fungal agents
Skin cancers
32
Which of the following are surgical therapies for hearing loss? (3)
Tympanoplasty
Myringotomy
Cochlear implant
Hearing aids
33
What causes crackles?
Narrowing of tracheal passage
Blockage in large airway passages
Fluid from inflammation or exudates
Inflamed pleural surfaces slide against each other
Narrowing of the bronchi
34
What is age-related macular degeneration (AMD)?
Clouding of the lens
Optic neuropathy with gradual loss of peripheral vision
The gradual process of degeneration in the macular area of the retina
35
What are the risk factors for appendicitis? (3)
Fecal impaction
Rural home
Gallstone Ileus
Diarrhea
Urban home
Family history
36
What is vertigo?
A film made in 1960 directed by Alfred Hitchcock
A condition in which one has an extreme tendency to fall asleep
A sudden loss of vision
A feeling of rotation or imbalance
37
What are some possible s/s of a UTI? (5)
Painful urination
Urgency to urinate despite little amount of urine in the bladder
Cloudy urine
Lower back pain
Bloody urine
Nausea
38
What is evaporation?
Transfer of heat by direct contact
Transfer of heat through a fluid motion of liquid and gas
Transfer of heat through rays/waves of particles
Converting water to vapor
39
Which description best describes crackles?
High-pitched sound within the trachea and larynx
Low-pitched, crackling sound present on inspiration and expiration
High-pitched popping sounds heard on inspiration
Course, low-pitched sounds during inspiration
High-pitched whistling sound usually heard on expiration
40
What is the pathophysiology of COPD?
Alveolar damage limits gas exchange
Airway obstruction due to bronchial tube inflammation
41
Which of the following best describes hypotonic fluids? (2)
Has an osmolarity higher than blood plasma
Causes water to move into cells
Has an osmolarity lower than blood plasma
Draws water out of the cells
Has an osmolarity similar to blood plasma
No significant fluid shift
42
What are some surgical treatments for pressure injuries? (2)
Debridement
Rhinoplasty
Degloving
Larvae
43
Which vitamin is essential for absorption?
Vitamin B12
Vitamin A
Vitamin C
Vitamin D
44
Which description best describes cholecystitis?
Gallbladder disorder that affects the ability to move bile to bile ducts
Less than 3 bowel movements in a week
Gallstone is unable to move through large intestine
Gallstone is unable to move through small intestine
45
What are some tests that measure cardiac function? (5)
Serum cholesterol levels
Sleep study
ECG
Imaging tests like X-rays
Cardiac catheterization
Stress tests
46
What are some ways to prevent macular degeneration? (3)
Prescription eye drops
Stop smoking
Limit UV exposure
Eat a healthy diet
Limit exercise
Increase UV exposure
47
What is one part of the body that should be frequently checked if you have a peripheral neuropathy?
Feet
Hands
Head
Perineal area
48
What can result from penetrating trauma to the eye? (2)
Floaters
Flashes of light
Loss of vision
Lid ecchymosis
Bleeding
Sloughing
49
Which part of the brain regulates temperature?
Occipital lobe
Hypothalamus
Medulla Oblongata
Pons
50
What are the causes of cholecystitis? (3)
Overactivity
High fiber
High cholesterol
Inactivity
Low fiber
Opioid use
51
What is the cause of nonexudative (dry) macular degeneration?
Drusen deposits
Contact lense use
Idiopathic
Aging
52
What is known as the pacemaker of the heart?
Atrioventricular bundle
Sinoatrial node
Atrioventricular node
Purkinje fibers
53
When is the POLICE mnemonic used?
To remember the order of medication to take with muscle injuries
To prevent pain/help recovery for muscle or soft tissue injuries
To prevent muscle or soft tissue injuries from happening
54
What is the cause of a detached retina?
Chemical burns
Separation of the eye from the choroid
High force entering the eye
Disruption of the superficial epithelium of the cornea
55
What is the normal respiratory rate for newborns?
18-30
24-40
12-20
30-60
56
What causes stridor?
Narrowing of tracheal passage
Inflamed pleural surfaces slide against each other
Fluid from inflammation or exudates
Narrowing of the bronchi
Blockage in large airway passages
57
Gallstone Ileus needs to be treated with emergency surgery.
False
True
58
Which of the following would be included in a kinesthetic assessment? (2)
Written methods
Verbal methods
Hands on activities
Physical movement
59
What are non-modifiable risk factors for biliary dyskinesia? (2)
Being overweight
Being native american
Eating a high-fat diet
Assigned female at birth
60
What causes glaucoma?
Endothelial growth
Aging
Idiopathic
Drusen deposits
61
What is the temperature range for hypothermia? (Fahrenheit)
<94
<96
<95
<97
62
Which of the following are manifestations of acute pain? (4)
Decreased BP and HR
Sweating
Increased BP and HR
Irritability
Rapid and shallow respirations
Lasts less than 6 months
63
What nutrients are needed for wound healing? (4)
Vitamin A
Vitamin C
Vitamin D
Vitamin B
Proteins
Carbohydrates
64
What is the function of brown fat?
Helps protect organs from extreme temperatures
Additional cushioning of organs
Breaks down with minimal activity to boost energy
Boosts metabolism
65
Which core temperature indicates hyperthermia? (Fahrenheit)
92
97
98
101
66
True or false: Insensible fluid loss is the amount of water lost through the skin that cannot be measured.
False, it is lost through urination
True
False, it is lost through urination and can be measured
False, it can be measured
67
What are some clinical manifestations of HTN? (5)
Visual disturbances
BP of 125/80
Headache
Renal insufficiency
N/V
Confusion
68
Which type of medication would you give to someone with a low-grade fever?
Antidepressants
Antibiotics
Antipyretics
Amphetamines
69
Which description best describes open fractures?
Twisting force that causes the bone to break in a spiral pattern
Incomplete break, common in children
Bone breaks but does not penetrate the skin
Small cracks from repetitive force, common in athletes
Bone breaks through skin, increased risk of infection
Bone shatters into multiple fragments
70
Which blood pressure value is considered normal?
130/90
150/100
100/70
80/50
71
What causes rhonchi?
Narrowing of tracheal passage
Blockage in large airway passages
Fluid from inflammation or exudates
Inflamed pleural surfaces slide against each other
Narrowing of the bronchi
72
What is the primary function of colloid osmotic pressure?
Helps in oxygen exchange
Helps to maintain fluid balance in the capillaries
Helps to prevent cardiac dysrhythmias
Helps maintain blood pressure in the heart
73
What is conduction?
Transfer of heat by direct contact
Converting water to vapor
Transfer of heat through a fluid motion of liquid and gas
Transfer of heat through rays/waves of particles
74
What are some symptoms of biliary dyskinesia? (5)
Murphy’s sign
Psoas sign
Jaundice
URQ pain
Bloating
Nausea
75
Which of the following are pharmacological therapies for HTN? (4)
Antidepressants
ACE Inhibitors
NSAIDs
Vasodilators
Diuretics
Calcium channel blockers
76
Which of the following best describes isotonic fluids? (2)
No significant fluid shift
Draws water out of the cells
Has an osmolarity similar to blood plasma
Has an osmolarity higher than blood plasma
Causes water to move into cells
Has an osmolarity lower than blood plasma
77
What are the two types of peptic ulcers?
Duodenal ulcers
Iliac ulcers
Gastric ulcers
Esophageal ulcers
78
Which could cause stenosis of the heart?
Too much blood entering the valves at once
Calcium deposits
Iron deposits
Blood leaking back through the valve
79
What is the normal respiratory rate for toddlers?
24-40
12-20
18-30
30-60
80
Which of the following are hypotonic fluids?
3% normal saline
0.9% normal saline
0.45% normal saline
Dextrose 10%
Lactated ringers
81
What are some symptoms of appendicitis? (5)
Stabbing navel pain
Fever
Diarrhea
Dull navel pain
N/V
No appetite
82
Harmless murmurs are caused by conditions such as stenosis, rheumatic fever, endocarditis, and regurgitation.
False
True
83
What are the treatment options for fibromyalgia? (6)
Massage
Analgesics
Anti-stress techniques
Antidepressants
Physical therapy
Anticonvulsants
84
What does the POLICE Therapy mnemonic stand for? (All are correct, remember this!)
Optimal Loading
Protection
Compression
Elevate
Ice
85
What is radiation?
Transfer of heat through a fluid motion of liquid and gas
Transfer of heat by direct contact
Transfer of heat through rays/waves of particles
Converting water to vapor
86
Which of the following are hypertonic fluids? (2)
Lactated ringers
0.9% normal saline
3% normal saline
0.45% normal saline
Dextrose 10%
87
Which age population has brown fat?
Infants
Pregnant women
Adolescents
Older adults
88
Which of the following are isotonic fluids? (2)
Lactated ringers
0.45% normal saline
Dextrose 10%
3% normal saline
0.9% normal saline
89
Which of the following are manifestations of chronic pain? (4)
Irritability
Depression
Lasts less than 6 months
Impaired mobility
Sweating
Sleep disturbances
90
In which trimesters of pregnancy does core body temperature decrease? (2)
1st trimester
2nd trimester
3rd trimester
91
Which description best describes closed fractures?
Bone shatters into multiple fragments
Small cracks from repetitive force, common in athletes
Bone breaks but does not penetrate the skin
Incomplete break, common in children
Twisting force that causes the bone to break in a spiral pattern
Bone breaks through skin, increased risk of infection
92
What is a treatment for a chemical eye burn?
Irrigate the eyes with water for 30-35 minutes
Irrigate the eyes with water for a couple of minutes
Irrigate the eyes with water for 5-10 minutes
Irrigate the eyes with water for 15-30 minutes
93
AMD is the leading cause of legal blindness in people over 60.
False
True
94
What are the s/s of heat exhaustion? (4)
Dizziness
Fainting
Seizures
N/V
Paleness
Temp of 106 F or higher
95
Which of the following best describes wheals?
Elevated, irregular border
Elevated, fluid filled, round or oval-shaped, circumscribed borders
Deep, irregular shaped area
Elevated, encapsulated, fluid-or semi-solid mass
Flat, <1 cm
Elevated, solid, circumscribed borders, <0.5 cm. Plaque is > 0.5 cm
96
Which of the following is true about acute fatigue?
Exacerbated by physical activity
Begins and resolves with rest
Associated with a single event
Caused by a long-term illness
97
Which of the following best describes papules?
Deep, irregular shaped area
Elevated, solid, circumscribed borders, <0.5 cm. Plaque is > 0.5 cm
Elevated, fluid filled, round or oval-shaped, circumscribed borders
Elevated, encapsulated, fluid-or semi-solid mass
Elevated, irregular border
Flat, <1 cm
98
What causes inflammatory skin disorders? (5)
Burns
Fungal agents
Dermatitis
Psoriasis
Acne
Eczema
99
What are some EARLY s/s of hypoxemia? (3)
Shortness of breath (SOB)
Cyanosis
Tachycardia
Rapid breathing
100
What happens during stage 1 of inflammation? (5)
Increased blood flow
Release of prostaglandins
Exudate production
Blood vessels constrict
Release of kinins
Release of histamines
101
What is a cataract?
Optic neuropathy w/ gradual loss of peripheral vision
Clouding of the lens
Gradual process of degeneration in the macular area of the retina
102
Harmless murmurs are not true heart murmurs.
False
True
103
In which age population are febrile seizures likely to occur?
Infants
Young adults
Older adults
Pregnant women
104
What can result from a detached retina? (3)
Loss of vision
Sloughing
Flashes of light
Pain
Floaters
Bleeding
105
Which sound is indicative of a heart murmur?
Soft blowing
Harsh grating
Soft whistling
Harsh blowing
106
The serum levels of which two vitamins should be obtained to test for peripheral neuropathies? (2)
Iron
Vitamin B6
Magnesium
Vitamin B12
Thiamine
107
Which description best describes gallstone ileus?
Gallbladder disorder that affects the ability to move bile to bile ducts
Gallstone is unable to move through small intestine
Gallstone is unable to move through large intestine
Less than 3 bowel movements in a week
108
What causes infectious skin disorders? (4)
Skin cancers
Acne
Viral agents
Fungal agents
Bacterial agents
Parasitic agents
109
Keloid: an elevated irregular darkened area of excess scar tissue from excessive collagen formation during healing
True
False
110
Which of the following best describes ulcers?
Elevated, encapsulated, fluid-or semi-solid mass
Flat, <1 cm
Elevated, fluid filled, round or oval-shaped, circumscribed borders
Elevated, solid, circumscribed borders, <0.5 cm. Plaque is > 0.5 cm
Deep, irregular shaped area
Elevated, irregular border
111
Which description best describes pleural friction rub?
High-pitched popping sounds heard on inspiration
Course, low-pitched sounds during inspiration
High-pitched whistling sound usually heard on expiration
High-pitched sound within the trachea and larynx
Low-pitched, crackling sound present on inspiration and expiration
112
What are some manifestations of fibromyalgia? (4)
Bradypnea
Widespread musculoskeletal pain
Fatigue
Cognitive difficulties
Sleep issues
Bradycardia
113
What are some modifiable risk factors for altered skin integrity? (5)
Hygiene
Age
Avoidance of irritants
Activity levels
Exposure to UV light
Nutrition
114
What are examples of peripheral neuropathies? (6!)
Alcoholic neuropathy
Diabetic peripheral neuropathy
Polyneuropathies
Mononeuropathies
Guillain-Barre Syndrome
Charcot-Marie Tooth disease
115
What is the most common type of burn in relation to eye injuries?
Radiation
Electrical
Thermal
Chemical
116
Which description best describes comminuted fractures?
Twisting force that causes the bone to break in a spiral pattern
Incomplete break, common in children
Bone breaks but does not penetrate the skin
Small cracks from repetitive force, common in athletes
Bone shatters into multiple fragments
Bone breaks through skin, increased risk of infection
117
What are some signs of adequate perfusion? (3)
Presence of pain/cramping in extremities
Cool skin temperature
Urine output of 30 mL/hr
Warm skin temperature
Normal skin color
118
What is some preventative education for UTIs? (3)
Drink plenty of fluids
Urinate less frequently
Wear tighter clothing
Wear loose-fitting clothing
Do not delay urination
119
What are some non-modifiable risk factors for altered tissue integrity? (5)
Nutrition
Sex
Skin color
Genetics
Ethnicity
Age
120
What are the factors affecting heat production? (5)
Parasympathetic stimulation
Muscle activity
Thyroxine
BMR
Fever
Sympathetic stimulation
121
What is the cause of exudative (wet) macular degeneration?
Endothelial growth
Drusen deposits
Aging
Idiopathic
122
What causes wheezing?
Fluid from inflammation or exudates
Narrowing of tracheal passage
Blockage in large airway passages
Narrowing of the bronchi
Inflamed pleural surfaces slide against each other
123
What causes cataracts?
Drusen deposits
Idiopathic
Aging
Endothelial growth
124
What is true about hospice care?
Focused on comfort
Illness can still be treated
Focused on relieving symptoms of illnesses
Life expectancy is 6 months or less
125
What is true about toddler mobility? (3)
Increased risk of fractures
Decreased risk of fractures
Prone to falls
Coordination is developing
126
Which blood pressure value indicates stage 1 HTN?
140/90
120/80
130/80
110/60
127
Sleep apnea is characterized by repeated pauses in breathing during sleep
True
False
128
What are some diagnostic tests for peripheral neuropathies? (6!)
EMG
Metabolic panel
Thyroid function test
CBC
Nerve biopsy
Urine screening
129
Grade IV pressure injuries may not present with full thickness skin loss.
True
False
130
What is true about palliative care?
Aims to treat symptoms
Focuses on comfort care
Focuses on quality of life
Focuses on relieving symptoms AND stress of serious illnesses
Life expectancy is less than 6 months
131
Which of the following are aspects of the sensory process? (4)
Stimulus
Perception
Reaction
Receptors
Impulse conduction
132
What are some risks that come with obesity? (5)
Joint/muscle pain
Type 2 DM
Heart failure
Hiatal hernia
Type 1 DM
Stroke
133
What are some symptoms of gallbladder disease? (3)
Bloated stomach
Episodic RUQ pain
Constant RLQ pain
Weight gain
Constant RUQ pain
Weight loss
134
Which of the following are strategies to prevent hypertension? (4)
Increase cholesterol intake
Reduce sodium intake
Use stress management techniques
Aerobic exercises for 30 minutes a day
Maintain normal body weight
Reduce intake of dairy products
135
What are the s/s of heat stroke? (5)
Warm, flushed skin
Unconsciousness
Seizures
N/V
Delirium
Temp of 106 F or higher
136
What are some signs and symptoms of poor perfusion? (4)
Abdominal pain
Cyanosis
Decreased urine output
Chest pain
Cool, clammy skin
Increased urine output
137
Which description best describes stridor?
High-pitched popping sounds heard on inspiration
Course, low-pitched sounds during inspiration
Low-pitched, crackling sound present on inspiration and expiration
High-pitched whistling sound usually heard on expiration
High-pitched sound within the trachea and larynx
138
Which description best describes spiral fractures?
Bone shatters into multiple fragments
Small cracks from repetitive force, common in athletes
Incomplete break, common in children
Twisting force that causes the bone to break in a spiral pattern
Bone breaks through skin, increased risk of infection
Bone breaks but does not penetrate the skin
139
Which description best describes stress fractures?
Incomplete break, common in children
Twisting force that causes the bone to break in a spiral pattern
Bone breaks but does not penetrate the skin
Small cracks from repetitive force, common in athletes
Bone shatters into multiple fragments
Bone breaks through skin, increased risk of infection
140
What are some clinical manifestations of coronary artery disease? (5)
Nausea
Vomiting
Angina
Fatigue
Neck, shoulder, jaw, or arm pain
SOB
141
People that suffer a heat stroke will always sweat.
False
True
142
Which description best describes Gallbladder disease?
Gallstone is unable to move through small intestine
Less than 3 bowel movements in a week
Gallbladder disorder that affects the ability to move bile to bile ducts
Gallstone is unable to move through large intestine
143
What is the range of a normal Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP)?
60-70
30-35
60-65
16-20
144
Which description best describes rhonchi?
High-pitched popping sounds heard on inspiration
Course, low-pitched sounds during inspiration
High-pitched sound within the trachea and larynx
High-pitched whistling sound usually heard on expiration
Low-pitched, crackling sound present on inspiration and expiration