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Practice Exam # 5 Flashcards | StudBud
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Practice Exam # 5
Practice Exam # 5
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175 questions of the # 5 Practice exam by Judith Exavier-Joinville
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Answers
1
What is the name of the retractor shown below?
Kelly
Harrington
Deaver
Richardson
2
What immediate postoperative complication most often occurs with pediatric patients?
Electrolyte imbalance
Airway difficulty
Hypertension
Dysrhythmias
3
Which skin prep is contraindicated for use around eyes and ears due to potential for corneal abrasions and ototoxicity
Parachlorometaxylenol
Isopropyl alcohol
Iodophor
Chlorhexidine
4
Wound dressings should be opened:
During skin closure
After the skin incision is made
Just before skin closure is started
After last count is completed
5
A rapid-onset muscle relaxant used for intubation is:
Pitocin®
Lanoxin®
Anectine®
Morphine
6
What term refers to items remaining sterile indefinitely until the wrapping is compromised?
Time-related sterility
Event-related sterility
Shelf-life sterility
Contaminated-related sterility
7
Which of the following types of equipment would require preoperative draping by the surgical technologist?
C-arm
Arthroscope
ESU
Video monitor
8
Which of the following has legal significance in the mishandling of a bullet?
Tearing surgical gloves
Contaminating the specimen
Damage to tissue while removing specimen
Damaging ballistic markings
9
The closing sponge count should be initiated at the:
Operative field
Kick bucket
Backtable
Mayo stand
10
During which step of an abdominal hysterectomy would the instrument shown below be used?
Enlarge peritoneal incision
Mobilize paracevical fascia
Dissect bladder from uterus
Make last cut to free the uterus
11
A specimen that is 5 centimeters is equal to:
5 inches
2 inches
4 inches
.3 inches
12
Type and cross match for blood is completed:
In the OR, just before the incision is made
On all surgical patients
On all hospital patients
If blood loss with replacement is anticipated
13
A general consent form authorizes:
Experimental surgical treatment
Receiving general anesthesia
Routine medical treatment
Hazardous therapy
14
Which of the following factors is used to determine the inflation pressure of a tourniquet?
Type of incision
Previous surgeries
Length of surgery
Patient's age
15
When performing the surgical scrub, the hands and arms are considered:
Sanitized
Surgically clean
Disinfected
Sterile
16
Where should the EtO biological indicator be placed in the load?
Center
Side
Front
Back
17
In severe aortic stenosis, all of the following are indications of valve replacement except:
Myocardial ischemia
Palpitations
Angina
Left ventricle hypertrophy
18
Which of the following ultrasonic devices can be used intraoperatively to assess the patency of arterial blood flow?
Spirometer
Lithotripter
Doppler probe
Stethoscope
19
What type of solution is recommended for cleaning the OR floors during room turnover?
Sodium hypochlorite
Isopropyl alcohol
Detergent-disinfectant
Hydrogen peroxide
20
A patient is instructed to be NPO for 8 hours prior to surgery to prevent:
Ulcers
Aspiration
Wound infection
Intestinal obstruction
21
The instrument shown below is used during a/an:
Thyroidectomy
Rhinoplasty
Gastrectomy
Myringoplasty
22
What does pneumonectomy mean?
Incision into the trachea
Removal of the lung
Removal of air from pleura
Incision into the bronchi
23
When storing information on the hard drive of a computer, what is clicked?
Delete
Enter
Save
Open
24
Which of the following instruments is not a retractor used during a prostatectomy?
Gil Vernet
Mason-Judd
Harrington
Denis-Browne
25
What specialized retractors are used during a rotator cuff repair?
Taylor
Hohmann
Bankart
Hibbs
26
Which medication is contraindicated for patients with a history of malignant hyperthermia?
Vecuronium
Succinylcholine
Papaverine
Dantrolene
27
What is the proper method for removing the knife blade from the handle when breaking down the Mayo stand?
Use a heavy hemostat or needle holder
Throw handle with knife blade in sharps container
Do not remove and place handle in instrument tray
Use fingers
28
Which of the following vitamins is essential for the clotting process?
K
B
A
D
29
Which of the following is a type of one-layer dressing?
Pressure
Bulky
Rigid
Steri-Strips™
30
A sustained contraction produced by rapid stimuli is called:
Twitch
Tension
Tetany
Torsion
31
he body's first line of defense against infection is:
Immune response
Intact skin
Hair follicles
Respiratory tract
32
Which two structures are identified and ligated during a cholecystectomy?
Splenic artery and splenic vein
Cystic artery and cystic duct
Hepatic duct and portal vein
Right and left hepatic artery
33
What is the proper way to remove a patient from the lithotomy position?
Lower each leg separately
Lower legs together quickly in unison
Lower legs together slowly in unison
Lower stirrups, then remove legs
34
A tissue specimen being sent to pathology for a frozen section is prepared by placing it into a:
Basin of water
Jar with formalin
Container without preservative
Jar with methylene blue
35
Which of the following conditions might require use of a Silastic® urethral catheter?
Hypospadius
Latex allergy
Prostatic hypertrophy
Stress incontinence
36
Which of the following vessels arises from the right ventricle of the heart?
Pulmonary vein
Pulmonary artery
Ascending aorta
Descending aorta
37
In which procedure must the surgical tech keep the backtable and Mayo stand sterile until the patient leaves the OR?
Laminoplasty
Rhinoplasty
Tympanoplasty
Tonsillectomy
38
How often should biological testing of EtO sterilization be conducted?
Monthly
Weekly
Every load
Twice-a-week
39
Which is a liquid chemical sterilant often used for sterilizing endoscopes with a cycle time of 30 minutes?
Peracetic acid
Isopropyl alcohol
Glutaraldehyde
Sodium hypochlorite
40
To prevent deep-vein thrombosis in the bariatric patient, what preoperative drug is given?
Vitamin K
Mannitol
Heparin
Nitroglycerine
41
What type of needle is used when suturing the skin?
Reverse cutting
Side cutting
Tapered
Conventional cutting
42
From where do most intracranial aneurysms arise?
Circle of Willis
Ventricular system
Cavernous sinus
Internal carotid
43
During a thyroidectomy, if all parathyroid glands are accidentally removed, what complication will occur?
Thyroid storm
Tetany
Hemorrhage
Bradycardia
44
What is the name of the instrument shown below?
Kocher
Dingman
Pean
Adson
45
Which of the following is the order for postoperative case management? (Rem= Remove)
Rem drapes; rem gown & gloves; don non-sterile gloves;preserve sterilefield
Rem drapes; keep sterile field until patient leaves OR; rem gown & gloves;
rem gown and gloves; don non-sterile gloves; remove drapes; break backtable
Rem gown; rem drapes; rem gloves; don non-sterile gloves; break backtable
46
Another name for a corneal transplant procedure is:
Scleral buckle
Diathermy
Vitrectomy
Keratoplasty
47
When is the surgical consent typically signed?
After preoperative medications are administered
After the IV has been inserted
Just before general anesthesia is administered
Before preoperative medications are administered
48
Which of the following incisions would be performed for repair of a liver laceration?
Pfannenstiel
McBurney
Midline
Transverse
49
Which of the following is inserted into the tympanic membrane incision during a myringotomy?
Speculum
PE tube
Weck-Cel® sponge
Fascial graft
50
Vitrectomy is the removal of the:
Gel from the eye
Iris
Trabecular meshwork
Opaque lenses
51
Which area is prepped first when performing the skin prep for a skin grafting procedure?
Donor site
Both sites together
Only recipient site
Recipient site
52
Induced hypothermia is typically associated with which of the following surgical specialties?
Gynecology
Cardiothoracic
Orthopedic
Pediatric
53
At the procedure end, and after the patient has been transported out of OR, the surgical technologist should remove the:
Gown
Gloves
Hair cover
Mask
54
A large, bony process found on the femur is a:
Tubercle
Condyle
Olecranon
Trochanter
55
Which of the following is an obstetric complication resulting from overstimulation of the clotting processes?
Dystocia
Placental abruption
Eclampsia
Disseminated intravascular coagulation
56
When should the first closing sponge, sharp and instrument count be completed?
Prior to closure of skin
Prior to closure of the body cavity
Prior to closure of the subcutaneous layer
Prior to closure of the muscle layer
57
The gravity steam sterilization process can be rendered ineffective if the:
Steam quality is 97%
Air is removed
Temperature is below 250°
Packs are loosely arranged on cart
58
What block involves medication being injected into the subarachnoid space?
Regional
Bier
Spinal
Nerve
59
When the surgical technologist is breaking down the backtable, instruments with ratchets should be:
Placed in a basin with saline for transport to decontamination
in a basin with enzymatic solution in open position for transport to decon
Run through the steam flash sterilizer before transport to decontamination
Closed and placed in instrument tray for transport to decontamination
60
Which nerve could be compressed against the humerus in the prone position?
Tibial
Peroneal
Brachial
Radial
61
Which of the following is responsible for causing transmission of spongiform encephalopathy?
Bacteria
Fungi
Prion
Parasites
62
Which laser can be used on light and dark tissues?
Nd:YAG
Excimer
Carbon dioxide
Argon
63
Where should the biological indicator test be placed on the steam sterilizer cart?
Middle second shelf
Top back
Top front
Bottom front
64
The structure that facilitates the exchange of nutrients and wastes between the fetus and mother is the:
Umbilical cord
Amniotic fluid
Endometrium
Placenta
65
Which portion of the stomach is superior to the esophageal sphincter?
Fundus
Antrum
Body
Pylorus
66
What is the most common cause of aortic aneurysm?
Hypotension
Thrombus
Embolus
Atherosclerosis
67
Which of the following is not a requirement when a patient is placed in the prone position?
Safety belt is placed below the knees
Bolsters placed under axillae
Head placed on donut
Arms on armboards parallel to bed
68
The large artery found posterior to the knee is the:
Geniculate
Popliteal
Tibial
Femoral
69
During general anesthesia induction, which sense is the last to be experienced by the patient?
Touch
Taste
Hearing
Smell
70
The instrument below is used to:
Resect tendon
Split muscle
Extend incision
Cut bone
71
Which anatomical structure is removed during a total hip arthroplasty?
Femoral head
Condyle
Trochanter
Fossa
72
Which of the following clips is used for scalp hemostasis in cranial procedures?
Backhaus
Hemoclip
Raney
Filshie
73
Which closed wound drainage device requires being connected to a bulb evacuator?
Stryker
Cigarette drain
Jackson-Pratt
Hemovac
74
The vascular, fibrous covering of bone is the:
Periosteum
Epiphysis
Aponeurosis
Endosteum
75
Which surgical procedure may require a suprapubic catheter to drain the urinary bladder?
Cloward procedure
Cesarean section
Appendectomy
Prostatectomy
76
Ethylene oxide sterilization destroys microbes by the process of:
Alkylation
Osmosis
Oxidation
Cavitation
77
A short-acting narcotic opioid given for preoperative sedation is:
Methylprednisolone
Morphine sulfate
Midazolam
Meperidine
78
In the presence of infection, the absorption rate of surgical gut is:
Not affected
Terminated
Increased
Decreased
79
What is the primary responsibility of the first scrub surgical technologist during a cardiac arrest in the OR?
Protect the sterile field
Assist the anesthesia provider
Assist the circulator
Give CPR to the patient
80
When helping to turn over an OR between patients, the surgical technologist should:
Wipe down entire walls
Use a clean mop head
Clean around the furniture
Clean overhead lights after last procedure of day
81
When using EtO sterilization, the recommended aeration time for an aerator set at 140°F is:
12 hours
24 hours
8 hours
10 hours
82
Which tank would be brought into the OR if a surgical technologist is preparing an oscillating saw?
Compressed air
Compressed nitrogen
Freon
Nitrous oxide
83
Fertilization normally occurs in the:
Myometrium
Vaginal vault
Cervical os
Fallopian tube
84
Which of the following would be the least likely complication of a suprapubic prostatectomy?
Acute epididymitis
Embolism
Acute phlebitis
Hemorrhage
85
Knife blades should be loaded onto the handle with a:
Needle holder
DeBakey forceps
Allis clamp
Sterile gloved hands
86
What body system aids in the metastatic spread of cancer cells?
Reproductive
Respiratory
Lymphatic
Limbic
87
Which of the following can cause lumbosacral strain in the lithotomy position?
Buttocks extend past table break
Stirrups not properly padded
Safety strap is placed too tightly
Arm boards placed beyond 90 degrees
88
Which of the following procedures requires preoperative high-level disinfection of the endoscope?
Bronchoscopy
Mediastinoscopy
Thoracoscopy
Laparoscopy
89
A midline xiphoid to pubis incision is commonly made for a/an:
Nephrectomy
Appendectomy
Abdominal aortic aneurysmectomy
Transverse colectomy
90
The inner layer of an artery is the:
Intima
Adventitia
Viscera
Media
91
If the surgeon uses a knife blade to incise the oral mucosa, the preferred blade is
20
11
10
12
92
Splenectomy places the patient at an increased risk for:
Diabetes
Jaundice
Cirrhosis
Infection
93
Which of the following statements concerning peel-packs is correct?
Use staples to close a peel pack
Use chemical indicator tape to hold multiple items together
Position peel packs plastic side facing plastic side
When labeling with felt-tip marker write on the plastic side
94
A suture used to retract a structure to the side of the operative field is a/an:
Traction suture
Primary suture
Retention suture
Bolster suture
95
What is the lining of the thoracic cavity?
Pericardium
Parietal
Peritoneum
Pleura
96
Proper placement of the Foley catheter is confirmed prior to balloon inflation by which of the following?
Urine flowing out of catheter
Removal of 5 mL of air from balloon
Collapse of catheter lumen
Secure connection to drainage bag
97
Which of the following is an incision into the tympanic membrane for the removal of accumulated fluid?
Tympanoplasty
Stapedotomy
Otoplasty
Myringotomy
98
What is considered the operative stage of anesthesia?
First
Fourth
Second
Third
99
A urinary tract infection, following a cystoscopy, is an example of what type of infection?
Recurrent
Community-acquired infection
Healthcare-associated infection
Latent
100
What postoperative complication can result from excess or prolonged plantar flexion?
Compartment syndrome
Decubitus ulcer
Foot drop
Sciatica
101
Which of the following instruments would be used to remove nasal polyps?
Gruenwald nasal forceps
Krause nasal snare
Knight nasal scissors
Antrum rasp
102
How often should the steam sterilizing machine's strainer be cleaned?
Daily
Once-a-week
During annual maintenance
After each use
103
Braided nonabsorbable sutures should not be used in infected wounds because suture crevices:
Cause necrosis of tissues
Can harbor bacteria that travel length of suture
Lead to pooling of tissue fluids
Cause excessive postoperative pain
104
A linen pack to be steam sterilized must not weigh more than:
12 lbs
4 lbs
8 lbs
16 lbs
105
What does the suffix -ectomy mean?
Opening
Anastomosis
Incision
Excision
106
Dark blood in the sterile field could indicate:
Hypovolemia
Hypoxia
Bradycardia
Tachycardia
107
Just before the surgeon makes the skin incision, which of the following must be performed?
Verify placement of EKG electrodes
Mayo stand is correctly positioned
Postoperative orders are completed
Time-out
108
The pulse rate of pregnant patients:
Does not change
Decreases
Fluctuates
Increases
109
Which one of these microorganisms is least likely to be associated with wound infections?
Clostridium perfringens
Staphylococcus
Treponema pallidum
Escherichia coli
110
What does the term -scopy mean?
Probing
Viewing
Incision
Excision
111
What is used to determine the position of cannulated screws during repair of a femoral neck fracture?
Broach
Ruler
Canal reamer
Guide pins
112
The leg extensor muscles: rectus femoris, vastus lateralis, vastus medialis and the vastus intermedius are called the:
Medial compartment
Peroneus longus
Quadriceps femoris
Popliteal fossa
113
Which space is entered during a thymectomy?
Interstitial
Retroperitoneum
Mediastinum
Pleural cavity
114
Packing material would be placed as a dressing after surgery on the:
Neck
Chest
Knee
Rectum
115
The concave notch of the kidney through which the ureter exits is the:
Hilum
Capsule
Pyramid
Calyx
116
What type of heart rate does tachycardia describe?
Fast
Normal
Absent
Slow
117
Which of the following must be completed preoperatively if a patient underwent a barium study the day of surgery?
Enema
Colonoscopy
Urinalysis
Gastrostomy
118
The area of the brain that controls respiration is the:
Corpus callosum
Cerebellum
Hypothalamus
Medulla oblongata
119
A stent may be placed to identify the ureter during which of the following procedures?
Right colectomy
Hip arthroplasty
Endarterectomy
Craniotomy
120
The local freezing of diseased tissue to facilitate removal without bleeding is:
Electrocautery
Harmonic scalpel
Cryosurgery
Diathermy
121
The purpose of the kidney elevator is to:
Increase the space between the lower rib and iliac crest
Facilitate respiration of the dependent lung
Increase the intercostal spaces
Stabilize the patient
122
The purpose of creating an arteriovenous fistula is for:
Hemodialysis
Lavage
Chemotherapy
Hemostasis
123
Prior to being placed in the EtO sterilizer, items must:
Be completely dry
Be lubricated with oil
Have residual water on their surface
Not be heat sensitive
124
What is the surgical procedure for reducing testosterone in prostate cancer?
Vasectomy
Orchiectomy
Varicocelectomy
Hydrocelectomy
125
The instrument shown below is used to:
Dissect periosteum from bone
Smooth jagged ends of bone
Cut bone
Dissect tendon
126
Which of the following preoperative procedures should be completed for the diabetic patient?
Increase preoperative insulin dose
Preoperative meal to avoid hyperglycemia
Increase preoperative medications
Antiembolic stockings placed on patient
127
Where is the anterior chamber of the eye located?
Posterior to the iris and anterior to the lens
Posterior to the iris and anterior to the retina
Posterior to the cornea and anterior to the lens
Posterior to the cornea and anterior to the iris
128
Which of the following is used to remove resected prostatic tissue during a TURP?
Pezzar
Robinson
Ellik
Foley
129
Which organelle contains digestive juices?
Ribosome
Mitochondria
Nucleus
Lysosome
130
What controls the arrow on your monitor?
Mouse
Shift
Enter
Function keys
131
What anatomical structure is Mersilene® tape sutured around during a cerclage?
Ligaments
Uterus
Fallopian tubes
Cervix
132
When incubated, the EtO biological indicator can be read after:
48 hours
12 hours
24 hours
10 hours
133
What route of drug administration is parenteral?
Sublingual
Transdermal
Intravenous
Rectal
134
What would the preoperative diagnosis be for an infant undergoing craniectomy?
Myelomeningocele
Arteriovenous malformation
Craniosynostosis
Anencephaly
135
Which portion of the small intestine joins to the large intestine?
Jejunum
Cecum
Ileum
Duodenum
136
Which of the following is part of the immune system?
Pancreas
Thyroid
Liver
Spleen
137
Which of the following describes the time from incision to the dressing application?
Postoperative
Preoperative
Intraoperative
Interoperative
138
The essential element of hemoglobin is
Sodium
Iron
Nitrogen
Oxygen
139
The normal range of intraoperative pressure for the insufflator during a laparoscopy is:
3-6 mm Hg
6-8 mm Hg
12-15 mm Hg
8-12 mm Hg
140
Which of the following maintains the position of the uterus?
Pubic symphysis
Levator muscle
Broad ligament
Suspensory ligament
141
Liquid agents used to reduce microorganisms on the patient's skin are:
Sporicidals
Disinfectants
Germicidals
Antiseptics
142
What incision is frequently used for pediatric aortic coarctation repair?
Median sternotomy
Thoracoabdominal
Anterolateral thoracotomy
Posterolateral thoracotomy
143
What must the circulating surgical technologist do when placing the patient in the supine position?
Place rolls under the axillae
Confirm ankles are not crossed
Place a pillow between the knees
Confirm chest is not compromised
144
Which of the following veins will be harvested during a CABG?
Popliteal
Saphenous
Femoral
Subclavian
145
Which of the following sutures is contraindicated in the presence of infection?
Chromic
Polypropylene
Steel
Silk
146
A patient receives preoperative instructions to remove nail polish to:
Allow completion of nuclear medicine study
Prevent pulse oximeter malfunction
Prevent an infection
Allow arterial blood to be drawn
147
The cup-like extensions of the renal pelvis that collect urine from the pyramids are:
Medulla
Papillae
Cortex
Calyces
148
Howmany minute should a Frazier suction tip be immediate-use sterilized (flash sterilized) in a gravity steam sterilizer
5
15
10
20
149
Which of the following is the proper method for handling disposable suction containers when turning over an OR?
Transport with instruments in case cart to decontamination room
Wipe down outside of container and place in biohazard bag for disposal
Empty contents in hopper and place in waste container
Place container in waste disposal
150
What dietary substance enhances the production of collagen?
Fats
Carbohydrates
Protein
Vitamins
151
In which procedure would the instrument shown below be used?
Lobectomy
Laminectomy
Nephrectomy
Hysterectomy
152
A Surgeon might provide the operative exposure for the neurosurgeon in a transsphenoidal approach to the sella turcica?
Interventional radiologist
Otorhinolaryngologist
Maxillofacial endodontist
Cardiothoracic surgeon
153
In the event a child requires emergency surgery, but the parents cannot be located to sign the surgical consent:
Consent is signed by two consulting physicians
No consent is required
Consent is signed by a court of law
Consent is signed by the surgeon
154
An intraoperative mutagenic and carcinogenic hazard of laser use is:
Infectious waste
Waste gases
Laser plume
Static electricity
155
Which item listed below should the surgical technologist confirm is available for a nerve repair?
Loupes
CUSA
Nd:YAG Laser
Cryotherapy unit
156
If the broth in the steam sterilization biological indicator is yellow after incubation, what action should be taken?
Sterile items should be immediately used
Indicates autoclave chamber needs cleaning
Items must be immediately recalled
No action necessary
157
What device would the surgeon use to preserve facial motor and sensory functions during a parotidectomy?
Mass spectrometer
Nerve stimulator
Ultrasound transducer
Doppler probe
158
How many hours must the steam biological indicator be incubated before recording the results?
24
16
8
32
159
Procedure that surgical tech sets up for when a female patient is undergoing a repair for a cystocele and rectocele
Anterior and posterior colporrhaphy
Abdominal hysterectomy
D & C
Myomectomy
160
The instruments shown below are used to dilate the:
Urethra
Cervix
Intranasal antrostomy
Coronary artery
161
Which of the following surgical instruments is used to retract the lung?
Kocher
Davidson
Allison
Glover
162
What does the term symbiosis mean?
Relationship between unlike species of organisms
Organisms that destroy each other
Anaerobic organism
Aerobic organism
163
What nerve is at greatest risk during a thyroidectomy?
Recurrent laryngeal
Cervical sympathetic chain
Vagus
Inferior laryngeal
164
What type of dressing would usually be used for a laparotomy procedure?
Wet-to-wet
Pressure
One-layer
Bolster
165
The thyroid gland consists of right and left lobes joined by the:
Larynx
Parathyroid gland
Isthmus
Cricoid cartilage
166
Which of the following is a type of meniscal tear?
Bucket handle
Greenstick
Capsular
Comminuted
167
What implant is used for individuals with sensorineural deafness?
Fascial graft
Internal hearing aid
Stapes implant
Cochlear implant
168
Which vein drains the small intestine?
Hepatic portal
Hepatic
Inferior vena cava
Gastric
169
Which stapling device would be used to create an anastomosis during a low anterior resection?
EEA
GIA
TA
LDS
170
Femoral rasps are used for which of the following reasons?
Prepare the intramedullary space for a prosthesis
Inject bone cement into the intramedullary space
Expose the operative site
File the cortical bone
171
What is the smallest microorganism that requires a host cell for replication?
Fungi
Bacteria
Amoeba
Virus
172
Which of the following statements is true concerning cleaning OR walls between surgical procedures?
Only clean walls at the end of the day
Only clean walls splashed with blood or debris at end of day
Clean all walls floor to ceiling
Clean areas of wall splashed with blood or debris
173
Which instrument will the surgeon use to free the entrapped orbital fat during repair of an orbital floor fracture?
Rongeur
Senn
Freer
Chalazion
174
Which of the following would contraindicate preoperatively setting up the cell saver machine?
Patient has cancer
Patient is on preoperative steroids
Patient received preoperative blood transfusion
Sponges will be used during procedure
175
Which of the following blood vessels empties into the right atrium?
Aortic arch
Pulmonary vein
Pulmonary artery
Superior vena cava