stud
bud
Sign up
Log in
Home
Library
Explore
SAT
More
Pharm Nursing Comprehensive Flashcards | StudBud
Explore
/
Pharm Nursing Comprehensive
Pharm Nursing Comprehensive
156 terms
·
StudBud Administration
·
15 plays
ADN Nursing pharm
Flashcards
156 cards
F
Practice quiz
P
Host live
L
Questions
156
Answers
1
Phenobarbitol should be used cautiously with patients with what?
hepatic dysfunction
seizure disorder
increased motor activity
diabetes
2
Which of the following drug levels are not therapeutic?
Digoxin 1.8
Dilantin 1.4
Theophylline 15
Lithium 1.4
3
the nurse if putting erthromycin in a newborn's eye. Where is the correct place to put it?
On the cornea
In the conjuctival sac
Under the lid
By the optic disc
4
A patient is started on Dopamine via peripheral iv site. Which effect should the nurse monitor?
Tissue Necrosis
Pitting edema
Petechia
Hypotension
5
The nurse should monitor a pat receiving phenytoin for what side effect?
hypertension
gum erosion
psychosis
nosebleeds
6
Which class of drugs enhances GABA?
barbituates
vasopressin
benzodiazepines
dopamine
7
A patient has heart rate of 34 and blood pressure of 76/48. Which medication would you give?
Atropine
Dobutamine
Dopamine
Epinephrine
8
After falling from a roof a man needs an open airway, the best method to do this is:
Modified head tilt-chin lift
Jaw thrust maneuver
Flexed position
Head tilt-chin lift
9
4 clients have received chemotherapy. Which client should the nurse see first
The client with a fever of 100.3 F
The client with lightly bleeding gums
The client with diarrhea and mouth sores
The client with nausea and vomiting
10
Which is a side effect of analgesic?
No Bowel Movement for 3 days
Decreased Platelet Count
Elevated Heart Rate
Bruising
11
Which type of antibiotic interacts with Ca, Fe, and Mg?
Macrolids
Penicillins
Tetracyline
Cephalosporin
12
What is an action of sympathomimetics (adrenergics)?
Increase BP
Constricted pupils
Decrease BP
Increase muscle tone
13
Which instruction should the nurse include to a female patient who is taking zolpidem?
to increase effectiveness of zolpidem, take it with a meal
take the medication 1 hour before you plan to go to sleep
notify the provider if you plan to become pregnant
allow at least 6 hr for sleep when taking zolpiderm
14
Order: 10 mg; Pharmacy Provides: 20 mg per tablet. How many tablets should be given?
0.5 tablet
4 tablets
1 tablet
2 tablet
15
Where does disintegration of enteric-coated tablets occur?
Small intestine
Colon
Liver
Stomach
16
Which barbiturate is a long acting anti- epileptic?
dantrolene (pantrium)
nembutal (Pentobarbital)
prozom (Estazolam)
luminal (Phenobarbital)
17
Right not included in the ten Rights of Medication Administration
Right for Consul
Right Education
Right assessment
Right Evaluation
18
A client who uses OTC Phenylephrine nasal spray asks the nurse how the medication works?
Shrink swelling in nose by tightening the bloodvessels there
it coats the nasal passage to reduce swelling
destroys the invading organisms that cause colds and flu
it is absorbed after you swallow it to act as a decongestant
19
How should statins be administered?
1st thing in the morning
Without meals in the evening
After a full meal
With milk in the afternoon
20
AD
left ear
right eye
left eye
right ear
21
Which data indicates that simvastatin (Zocor), an HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor, is effective?
The clients bp is 132/80
The clients HDL is 35 mg/dL.
The clients LDL is 180 mg/dL.
The clients cholesterol level is 180mg/dL.
22
Which antibiotic often causes C-Dif
Rocephin
Cipro
Vancomycin
Minocycline
23
Which of the following adverse effects is associated with levothyroxine therapy?
Bradycardia
Tachycardia
Hypotension
Constipation
24
Carbamazepine is used for what condition?
Dehydration
Sleep Disorder
Fever
Epilepsy and Bipolar Disorder
25
Patient experiences pulmonary edema because the RN forgot to give AM Meds. What can RN face?
Tort
Slander
Negligence
Assault charge
26
Adrenergics are known as
Rest and Digest
Fight or Flight
Flight and Rest
Catch and Release
27
Which of the following is not a side effect of epinephrine?
Insomnia
Pupil relaxation
Tremor
Nervousness
28
What is an early sign of digitalis toxicity for a 2 y.o CHF patient taking digoxin?
vomiting
bradypnea
failure to thrive
tachycardia
29
What class of antibiotics can discolor teeth?
Cephalosporins
NSAIDS
Penicillins
Tetracycline
30
Overdoses of acetaminophen can precipitate life-threatening abnormalities in which organ?
Kidney
Liver
Adrenal Glands
Lungs
31
Main side effect of a to quick infusion of Vancomycin?
HTN
Flushing
SOB
Fever
32
Epinephrine is given to a client with allergic reaction. The primary purpose of this med is to
increase the number of white blood cells
stop the systemic release of histamine produced by cells
counteract the formation of antibodies
elevated blood pressure and dilate constricting bronchi
33
What type of lung sounds are heard on a health patient
Vesicular
Crackles
Adventitious
High-pitched blowing sounds
34
What is Donepezil indicated for?
Relief of anxiety
Treatment of seizures
Alzheimer's disease
Parkinson's disease
35
What is given for a Barbituate overdose?
Charcoal
Narcan
Romazicon
Tylenol
36
What is one of the symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome?
excitability
severe muscle stiffness
nausea
hallucinations
37
physician orders Cefaclor 100mg PO QID. Pharmacy supplies Cefaclor 125mg per 5 mL. How many mls
3 ml
4 ml
5 ml
2 ml
38
What PT teaching should be included with MAO I?
take medication with milk
avoid fruit
avoid chocolate and cheese
avoid walking without assistance
39
What foods should patients with anemia eat?
tomatoes and cheese
bananas and lobster
potatoes and rice
chicken liver and apricots
40
Client in ED has benzodiazepine toxicity due to an overdose. Which is the nursing priority?
Identify the clients level of orientation
Prepare the client for gastric lavage
Infuse IV fluids
Administer flumazenil (Romazicon)
41
Adverse reaction that could occur from lidocaine used during skin laceration repair?
tachycardia
seizures
hypertension
fever
42
The most serious adverse effect of tricyclic antidepressant overdose is...
Cardiac arrhythmias
Seizures
Hyperprexia
Metabolic acidosis
43
Tetracycline's are contraindicated in:
Pregnancy
Mental Health Disease
Renal Disease
Infection
44
Benztropine is used to treat?
Urinary Retention
Parkinsonism
Dancing Fever
Paralytic ileus
45
What is the most important assessment before administering Metoprolol (Lopressor) to a client?
Check their lung sounds
Take their tempurature
Check them for peripheral edema
Take their blood pressure
46
Which situation necessitates the use of restraints on a client?
The family requests restraints for safety.
The client is confused.
Insufficient staffing on the unit
Medical evaluation and written provider orders.
47
Convert 100 kg into lbs.
66 lbs
220 lbs
440 lbs
22 lbs
48
What is the proper method when mixing a short and long acting insulin?
pull long acting in the syringe first
pull short acting in the syringe first
cannot mix these type of insulins
pull 1/2 long acting, then short, then balance of long
49
What insulin should never be mixed with another insulin?
Humalog
Lantus
Regular insulin
NPH
50
With Cholinergic drugs you will not experience?
Increased Heart Rate
Increased peristalsis
Dilation of Blood Vessels
Increase in Sweat Glands
51
Side effects of Dopamine analogues
Confusion and insomnia
GI bleeding
Dyskinesias
Respiratory depression
52
A child weighing 44 lbs would weigh how many kilograms?
27 kg
88 kg
33 kg
20 kg
53
Where is erythromycin eliminated?
Bowel
Sweat
Kidneys
Bile
54
Which body organ is the major site of drug metabolism?
Lung
Skin
Liver
Kidney
55
What is the purpose of radioactive iodine?
to help with GI distress
to treat hyperthyroidism
to treat colon cancer
to treat hypothyroidism
56
IV infusion of gentamicin at 0900 will take 1 hr to infuse. When should peak level be checked?
1000
1100
1130
1030
57
Adrenergics...
Increase bowel and bladder contractility
cause constipation
elevated heart rate and blood pressure, open airways
lower heart rate
58
Patient has been ordered cyclobenzaprine (for muscle spasms), which also may be ordered?
Both A and B
Rest
None of the above
Physical therapy
59
Patients who are allergic to intravenous contrast media are usually also allergic to which?
Soy
Acidic fruits
Shellfish
Eggs
60
What is a sign/symptom of Lithium toxicity?
Insomnia
Vomiting
Irregular Heartbeat
Depression
61
Good oral care is based on the nurses knowledge that Phenytoin has what effect on oral tissue?
Increases alkalinity of oral secretions
Promotes bacterial growth at the gum lines
It erodes and destroys tooth enamal
Causes hyperplasia of the gums
62
82 year old female presents with new onset confusion. She is incontinent. Which order fits?
New Dx of dementia
CBC, U/A, IV Antiboitic
Admit for observation and Neuro exam
CT of head
63
Patient taking Flagyl should avoid:
Pizza
Alcohol
Grapefruit Juice
Blueberries
64
A client tells the nurse that her skin is dry and irritated. Which product would help?
glycerin emollient
myoflex
aspercreame
acetic acid solution
65
What anti-neoplastic/nitrogen mustard do you have to watch for kidney toxicity with?
methotrexate
cyclophosphamide
folic acid
Aztrenonam
66
A drug ending in the suffix (azole) is considered a?
antibacterial
Ace inhibitor
antifungal
Beta agonist
67
What's the antibiotic combination that is used to treat C-Diff?
Rocephin & Iron
Vancomycin & Penicillin
Vancomycin &Flagyl
Doxycycline &Flagyl
68
Pertussis (whooping cough) vaccines are administered where?
Sub Q
IM
PO
Intradermal
69
Which type of drugs can cause a ruptured Achilles tendon?
Cephalosporins
Antifungals
Quinolones
Tetracyclines
70
The nurse should monitor the patient receiving phenytoin for which side effect?
Psychosis
Nose Bleeds
Gum Erosion
HTN
71
An adverse effect of barbiturates used for general anesthesia is:
hypotension and and tachycardia
anixiety
visual halucinations
hypertension and bradycardia
72
Common side effect of influenza vaccine
Blurred vision
Pain at the injection site
Constipation
Tinnitus
73
What position do you put patients in when giving vaginal medications?
Low Fowlers
Sims
Lateral
Supine
74
Which would be most important and require investigation on assessment of skin of an 85 yr old?
Nevi on the neck and head
Cherry hemangiomas across the anterior and posterior trunk
Tenting of the skin on the back of hands
ecchymoses on both forearms
75
What are the three interactions of aminoglycosides?
Grapefruit juice, coumadin, tylenol
Coumadin, Penicillin, Loop Diuretics
Advil, Penicillin, Vitamin B12
Loop, Diuretics, Penicillin, Potassium
76
Which drug for rheumatoid arthritis has both an anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive effect?
Azathioprine (Imuran)
Prednisone (Deltasone)
Naproxen (Naprosyn)
Gold sodium thiomalate (Myochrysine)
77
A medication is due at 2100 what is the correct time to give and chart the medication?
9:00pm
9:00am
11:00pm
11:00am
78
A patient is switched from lovodopa to ropinirole. Which is a side effect of ropinirole ?
Dry mouth
Psychosis
Postural hypotension
Sleep attacks
79
What is the normal gauge needle for an adult?
20-22 gauge
23-26 gauge
10-12 gauge
15-18 gauge
80
Which of these groups should be counseled to avoid the use of oral contraceptives?
Women who have had an IUD in the past
Women who smoke heavily
Women who had an abortion
Women who have given birth
81
Immediately discontinuing the use of benzodiazepines will NOT cause hallucinations.
false
true
82
What 2 medications cause a disulfiram like reaction
Zoloft & Oxycodone
Docusate & Multivitamin
Metoprolol & Lasix
Metronidazole & Doxycycline
83
What drug is used in treating Parkinson's Disease?
Barclofen (Lioresal)
Memantine (Namenda)
Zolpidem (Ambiem)
Selegiline (Elderprly)
84
Which drug is often used when a patient has a penicillin allergy?
Tylenol
Asprin
Chocolate
Macrolides (erythromycin)
85
How many mL's are in 1 ounce?
30
1,000
100
60
86
What category of drugs have names that end in, "-lol"?
Benzos
Beta Blockers
Ace Inhibitors
Insulins
87
Erythromycin can cause which frequent side effect?
Abdominal cramping
Yellow discoloration to the white part of the eye
Severe diarrhea
Yellow-colored skin
88
A nurse is providing instructions to a client regarding Accupril. The nurse tells the client:
to rise slowly from a lying to a sitting position
to discontinue the medication if nausea occurs
to take the medication with food only
that a therapeutic effect will be noted immediately
89
What is the legal responsibility for a medication given to a patient that they were allergic to
The pharmacist's responsibility
The pharmasist, physician, and nurse
The nurses's responsibility
The physician's responsibility
90
8 oz + 1 cup + 240 mL is how many cups?
5 Cups
24 Cups
3 mL
3 Cups
91
When taking Fluoroquinolones, the client should report what to the health care provider?
Calf pain
Constipation
Diaphoresis
Nausea and vomiting
92
What is a known side effect of heparin?
Leukopenia
Diarrhea
Tinnitus
Thrombocytopenia
93
What part of the eye should you put erythromycin ointment in the eyes to prevent infection?
in the lower conjunctival sac
by the optic disc
on the cornea
under the eyelid
94
What immunoglobulins are released during an allergic response?
IgA
IgG
IgD
IgE
95
Avoid foods with ____ when taking a (MAOI) monoamine oxidase inhibitor.
Tyramine
Oranges
Apples
Cookies
96
What is Antabuse prescribed to treat?
cocaine addiction
heroine addiction
alcholism
opioid overdose
97
A drug ending in the suffix (pril) is considered a?
Beta agonist
H
antifungal
ACE inhibitor
98
what is the pregnancy risk category for methotrexate?
D
X
C
A
99
A client with a malignant brain tumor. Which anticipated med will the doctor prescribe?
Octreotide (Sandostatin), a pituitary suppressant.
Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan), an alkylating agent, IVPB.
Phenytoin (Dilantin), an anticonvulsant.
Erythropoietin (Epogen), a biological response modifier.
100
What is the most commonly prescribed medication to aid patients with sleep disorders?
Sedative-hypnotic
Triptan
Anesthetic
Analeptic
101
Which is incorrect about insulin?
store below 60 degrees Fahrenheit
avoid proximity to sunlight
store at room temperature
discard after 1 month
102
A male is having tonic-clonic seizures. What should the nurse do first?
Place a tongue blade in the client's mouth
Restrain the client's arms and legs
Elevate the head of the head
Take measures to prevent injury
103
What precautions should the nurse give to a patient taking an MAO inhibitor?
Take the medication with milk
Avoid chocolate and cheese
Avoid walking without assistance
Take frequent naps
104
A common sign of an adverse reaction to a medication in the older client is?
difficulty swallowing
incontinence
shortness of breath
a sudden change in mental staus
105
What medication can not be crushed?
Depakote
Lisinopril
Tylenol
Aspirin
106
Patients who are allergic to IV contrast are commonly allergic to what?
Shellfish
Soy
Acidic fruits
Eggs
107
A nurse notices a clumpy precipitate inside the insulin vial. The nurse should:
shake the vial in an attempt to disperse the clumps
warm the bottle under running water to dissolve the clump
draw the dose from a new vial
draw up and administer the dose
108
How many milligrams (mg) are there in 1 gram?
100
1
1000
10
109
What side effect should be most important to recognize when giving ziprasidone (Geodon)
increase in QT interval
drowsiness
epigastric pain
diarrhea
110
When giving intradermal TB skin test what angle do you insert the needle
45
30-40
10-15
90
111
A pt. with CHF has been receiving digoxin for 1 week. An early sign of toxicity is . . .
tachycardia
vomiting
bradypnea
failure to thrive
112
A nurse should not administer more than _mL per intramuscular or _mL per subcutaneous injection
5mL; 2mL
3mL; 1mL
5mL; 1mL
2mL; 2mL
113
A client takes a dose of albuterol (Ventolin) before bed. Which is a normal side effect?
Tinnitus
Sleepiness
Urticaria
Insomnia
114
When assessing clients for a penicillin allergy,which symptom may not be a hypersentivity react
wheezing
nausea
uticaria
edema
115
Coumadin 9mg pharmacy provides 3mg tablets. How many do you give?
1 tablet
3 tablets
9 tablets
2 tablets
116
Which two combinations of drugs should not be taken in combination?
isoproterenol and propanolol
ASA and codiene
amoxicillin and clavulanate
meperidine and promethazine
117
Which lab value will best reflect renal function in a client taking multiple medicines?
potassium levels
magnesium
creatinine clearance
phosphorus
118
People with Pernicious anemia cant absorb B12 because of what deficiency?
Folic Acid
Extrinsic Factor
Intrinsic Factor
Gastrin
119
What drug class blocks the signs of hypoglycemia?
Antipyretics
Alpha
Beta Blockers
Ace Inhibitors
120
What herbal supplement increases the effect of warfarin?
Bitter Melon
Marijuana
Ginkgo Biloba
Thistle
121
Order: 2,500 mcg; Pharmacy provides: 5 mg/mL. How many mL should be administered?
1 mL
0.75 mL
0.5 mL
2 mL
122
What scheduled class do antitussives fall under?
Schedule IV
Schedule I
Schedule V
Schedule II
123
nurse is giving a patient an antibiotic.How will nurse verify he is giving it to right person
Check the patient's room number on the census list
Call patient by their name
Read the patient chart on the back of the door
Check Patient wristband and ask them name and DOB
124
Macrolides are best known for which side effect?
Sudden Cardiac Death
Uritcaria
Polyuria
Tinnitus
125
What is important for a nurse teaching a patient about secobarbital?
It is a long-acting that can be associated with dependence
It is intermediate-acting that can cause a hangover effect
It is short-acting and may cause one to awaken early
It is intermediate-acting that can cause REM rebound
126
What condition would benztropine be ordered for?
Urinary Retention
Motion Sickness
Paralytic ileus
Parkinsonism
127
Which instruction should a nurse give her diabetic client on a beta-blocker for hypertension?
Increase insulin intake by 2 times units daily each morning.
Decrease intake of carbs while on the hypertensives.
Monitor blood glucose levels and report hypoglycemia.
128
Can't see, can't spit, can't pee, can't poop. What drug causes these symptoms?
Atropine
Atricept
Buspar
Tetracycline
129
Which of the following is true when educating patients about penicillin therapy?
signs of a allergic reaction, continue meds and call dr
if taking oral contraceptives, you must use a back up
make save leftover meds for future illnesses
must be taken at evenly spaced intervals
130
Which drug can cause Red-Man Syndrome?
rocephin (ceftrioxone)
Desmopressin
Bicillin
vancocin (vancomycin)
131
What mm in a Tuberculin Skin test results in a positive screening
3 mm
4 mm
5 mm
1 mm
132
Why would a myasthenia patient need to take their anticholinesterase med 1 hour before meals?
Allows the medication to kick in making it easier to chew
Prevents blood sugar from dropping
Medication is irritating to stomach
Medication can cause vomiting so waiting will prevent that
133
Which is false about therapeutics uses of Thionamides?
blocks the synthesis of thyroid hormones
inhibits conversion of T4 into T3
prevents oxidation of iodide
treatment for Grave's disease
134
Normal blood urea nitrogen range (BUN) is?
0.5-1.2 mg/dl
4,500-11,000 mms
13-17 g/dl
10-20 mg/dl
135
Which of the following drugs would the nurse question for a patient with a seizure disorder?
Valproic acid (Depakote), 150 mg BID
Phenobarbital, 150 mg hs
Phenytoin (Dilantin), 100 mg TID
Amitriptyline (Elavil), 10 mg QID
136
Walter is admitted to hospital due to Tylenol overdose. Which organ will this effect most?
Lungs
Kidney
Liver
Adrenal Glands
137
The nurse is giving an IV vesicant chemo med. Highest priority complication?
A rash on the client's extremeties
Severe nausea and vomiting
Stomatitis lesion in the mouth
Complaints of pain at site of infusion
138
What is a side effect of heparin?
Thrombocytopenia
diarrhea
Anxiety
Excess thirst
139
Which drug has a potential interaction with garlic?
Acetaminophen
Digoxin
Warfarin
Phenytoin
140
RN order to give IM penicillin, patient states rash from penicillin. What do you do?
Ad,minister oral antihistamine at the same time
withhold medication
Ask provider to change the RX to oral form
Administer dose
141
What patients should not receive an attenuated vaccine?
Children
Pregnant women
Teens
Immunocompromised patients
142
A patient is getting digoxin and lasix. Which symptoms must be reported
immediately
?
Low blood pressure and dark urine
Night sweats and headache
Stomach upset and headache
Vomiting and halos around lights
143
What lab value best reflects renal function while taking multiple medications?
Potassium levels
Sodium levels
Creatine clearance
Calcium levels
144
What symptom does valporic acid treat?
Migraine
Indigestion
Seizure
Diarrhea
145
What short acting benzodiazepine is used for conscious sedation?
Midazolam
Lorazepam
Diazepam
Chlordiazepoxide
146
What would be given to reverse the effects of a Benzodiazepine?
Active Charcoal
Naloxone
Buprenorphine
Flumazenil
147
What does Ciproflaxin treat?
Tendon pain
UTI
Bacterial Meningitis
TB
148
What is appropriate client education about insulin injections?
use site where severely bruised
allow less than 1 inch between sites
use the same site
rotate injection sites
149
A client is receiving Bethanechol, this used to treat what condition?
Delayed Gastric emptying
Gastroesophageal reflux disease
Glaucoma
Urinary Retention
150
Contraindication for topical corticosteriod in male patient with atopic dermatitis (eczema)
bacterial infection
viral infection
spirochete infection
parasite infection
151
12 year old prescribed methylphenidate. What should the nurse monitor?
Intake and Output
Height and Weight
Temperature
Respirations
152
Treatment for status epilepticus is:
donepezil & amytryptilline
Diazepam & lorazepam
Benztropine & MS Contin
buspirone & Atropine
153
What medicine should you stress oral care due to gingival hyperplasia?
Phenytoin (Dilantin)
Dantrolene (Dantrium)
Epinephrine
Triopental (Penotal)
154
Which is least likely to influence the potential for a client to comply with lithium therapy?
The potential side effects of lithium
The need for consistent blood level monitoring
What their friends think of his need to take medication
The impact of lithium on their energy level & lifestyle
155
What is an example of an SSRI drug?
Dexedrine
Acetaminophen
Lexapro
Ritalin
156
What is the abbreviation for right ear?
OU
AS
AD
OD