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HIV/AIDS
HIV/AIDS
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6030 Primary Care of Adults: HIV/AIDS
Flashcards
39 cards
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Practice quiz
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Host live
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Questions
39
Answers
1
T/F: The typical treatment for HIV includes 2 NRTIs and a 3rd drug.
True
False
2
T/F: ART has no alternative effect in patients with PTSD and can be safely administered.
True
False
3
What is the key reason for the decrease in adherence to safe practices in individuals with a history of substance abuse?
Mental illness
Substance abuse history
Accidental needle stick
Blood transfusion
4
Cough is a common symptom of Acute HIV Infection.
False
True
5
What is the period of viral replication called in the natural course of HIV?
Recovery and Seroconversion
Period of Viral Replication
Acute Retroviral Syndrome
Asymptomatic chronic HIV infection
6
What are the five major classes of ART?
Integrase Inhibitors
Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors (NUKES)
Protease Inhibitors
Fusion inhibitors/Entry Inhibitors
Non-nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors
Antiretroviral technological inhibitor
7
What is a characteristic of HIV-2 compared to HIV-1?
More easily transmitted
Higher likelihood of perinatal transmission
Faster rate of CD4 and T-cell decline
Less pathogenic
8
The natural course of HIV includes a period of viral replication with over 1 million copies.
True
False
9
Screening for gonorrhea, chlamydia, syphilis, & hepatic serologies should be completed every __ months in high risk pts.
8
1
12
3-6
10
Select the potential benefits of early ART. (SATA)
Decreased barriers to starting early
Decrease risk of liver disease progression from Hepatitis B or C
Decreased risk of neurocognitive decline
Increased efficacy of ART
Decreased risk of Malignancies (AIDS defining and non-AIDS defining)
Decreased risk of HIV-associated nephropathy (HIVAN) and CV disease
11
Prevention: behavior modification includes which of the following? (SATA)
Prevention message every clinic visit
Monogamy vs Partner reduction
Safe sex and drug practices
Consistent condom use
Screen and treat for mental health
Opiate substitution treatment (Methadone)
12
When should deferral of ART be considered? (SATA)
When there are significant barriers to adherence
To potentially decrease the risk of many complications
If co-morbidities complicate or prohibit ART
Clinical or personal factors
13
What information will the CD4 T-cell count/percentage (200/14) provide? (SATA)
Idea of severity, cannot determine duration
Best test for progression and for determining ART
More info about % of WBC
Idea of immune system
14
T/F: In prophylaxis treatment for HIV (to prevent opportunistic infections), CD4 determines treatment not symptoms.
False
True
15
How might protease inhibitors and beta blockers interact?
Monitor for hepatotoxicity
Metabolism of BBs in inhibited by PIs
Starting at a low dose may lead to renal impairment
PIs may increase BB level
16
T/F: HIV antibodies provide protection against HIV infection.
False
True
17
What is Immune Reconstitution Inflammation Syndromes (IRIS)?
Paradoxical worsening of a preexisting infection of undiagnosed condition
An unfortunate event that happens with all patients diagnosed with HIV
When the body redistributes inflammation to other areas
Alternative name for tax collection agency
18
Which type of HIV is more common worldwide?
HIV-2
HIV-1 and HIV-2 have the same prevalence
HIV-1
19
What should be considered in the plan of care for a patient diagnosed with HIV? (SATA)
Patient’s desires & motivation to succeed over time
Barriers and facilitators to care and medication adherence
How long since diagnosis
Access to care, support services, & medications
History with medical care
Patient’s social, emotional, & spiritual milieu
20
ART is recommended to all HIV-infected individuals. Specifically, when should ART be started/initiated?
Pregnancy (to prevent transmission to fetus)
Hepatitis B (HBV) co-infection
History of AIDS-defining illness (thrush, kaposis sarcoma)
HIV-associated nephropathy (HIVAN)
Age >50years (because of delayed immunity)
21
Which of the following are not considered infectious for HIV (unless visibly bloody)?
Semen or vaginal secretions
Tears
Saliva, sputum, or vomit
Sweat
Feces or urine
Nasal secretions
22
Asymptomatic chronic HIV infection is not transmissible.
False
True
23
What is the main goal of 'Establish Care' for HIV patients?
How soon care can be started
Cultural humility
Leave bias alone
Unawareness of HIV diagnosis
24
What are common symptoms of Acute HIV Infection?
Chest pain, Shortness of breath, Dizziness, Cough
Fever, Adenopathy, Sore Throat
Joint pain, Muscle weakness, Fatigue
Abdominal pain, Nausea, Vomiting
25
T/F: HIV-2 is less pathogenic than HIV-1.
True
False
26
What is the goal of 'Retention in Care' for HIV patients?
Follow up and engagement in care to prevent further infection
Cultural humility
Unawareness of HIV diagnosis
Immediate viral suppression
27
T/F: Having HIV is a valid reason to not get the meningococcal vaccine for college.
True
False
28
Which of the following is a risk factor for HIV transmission?
Regular exercise
Vegetarian diet
Unprotected intercourse
Blood donation
29
Unique side effects of ART may include which of the following? (SATA)
Peripheral neuropathies and pancreatitis
Malaise/fatigue
Hypersensitivity with Abacavir
CNS toxicity (aggravation of mental health complications, vivid dreams)
Metabolic complications
GI upset
30
Which statins are contraindicated for co-use with protease inhibitors? (SATA)
Atorvastatin
Simvastatin
Lovastatin
Rosuvasatin
31
Where is HIV-2 rare, unless there is direct travel to?
Europe
West Africa
Asia
South America
32
What is the first stage in the pathophysiology of HIV?
Binding and entry
Budding
Reverse transcription
Integration
33
Screening for diabetes mellitus & dyslipidemia should be started within __ mo of starting ART, then ____ moving forward.
3 months; then annually
6 months; then every 2 years
10 months; then q10 months
2 months; then q6 months
34
When should PEP be initiated?
Within 1 week of expsoure
Patient only have 12 hours to initiate treatment
ASAP, but within 72 hours of exposure
Within 1 month of expsure
35
What labs or tests should be considered if the APN suspects an HIV infection? (SATA)
HIV Viral Load (or HIV RNA) or CD4 T-cell count/percentage (200/14)
X-ray
MRI or CT scan
Urinalysis
CBC with differential
CMP
36
Who should receive PrEP?
Pts who have used multiple courses of PEP
Persons without HIV who inject drugs
Pts who've been prescribed nonoccupational PEP&have continued risk behavior
Sexually active transgender persons without HIV
Sexually active heterosexual men and women without HIV
Sexually active gay and bisexual men without HIV
37
T/F: Active HIV infection always creates viral proteins.
True
False
38
What are the modes of HIV transmission? (SATA)
Heterosexual contact
Injection drug use
Perinatal transmission
Male to male sexual contact
39
What is the main difference between HIV and AIDS?
HIV weakens the immune system, while AIDS attacks the immune system
AIDS comes from HIV-2, not HIV-1
HIV reduces white blood cells, while AIDS reduces red blood cells
AIDS attacks the immune system and reduces white blood cells
