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Duplicate of HA Final Exam Quiz Flashcards | StudBud
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Duplicate of HA Final Exam Quiz
Duplicate of HA Final Exam Quiz
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1
Which mode of mechanical ventilation is associated with barotrauma?
Volume-controlled
Pressure-controlled
2
The head strikes an immovable object. What type of injury is this?
Acceleration
Deceleration
Rotational
3
Patients experience increased afterload during shock.
True
False
4
Best practices to prevent VAP (SATA):
CHG oral care Q4H
Daily sedation vacations
Elevate HOB to 30 degrees
Administer Protonix
5
A pt has total irreversible failure of the cardiorespiratory system. What does this define?
Increased CVP
Agonal stage
Impending death
Death
6
A patient with CVA arrives in your ED, you should initiate t-PA immediately.
True
False
7
You notice that the patient is trying to pull out their ETT and are in respiratory distress. Which med will you adjust?
Discontinue heparin drip
Administer Kayexalate
This is beyond your scope of practice, call HCP
Titrate propofol
8
Rescue therapy for life-threatening hypoxemia:
Nitric oxide
Pressors
9
CPP of 50 mmHg means the brain lost autoregulation.
True
False
10
Management of CKD includes (SATA):
Administration of Epogen
Administration of phosphate
Fluid restriction
Protein restriction
11
What is the first medication to be used in symptomatic bradycardia?
Epi
Amiodarone
Levo
Atropine
12
Brain tissue of the temporal lobe herniates through the tentorial notch. Identify this type of herniation.
Uncal
Transtentorial
Cingulate
Infratentorial
13
What is the maximum oxygen flow rate that nasal cannula can deliver?
6L
2L
8L
4L
14
The yellow port of PA catheter is transduced.
False
True
15
You're assessing the pt’s response to interventions & notice their HR is 70 and their O2sat is 98. What does this mean?
The pt’s medications are adversely interacting
You need to call rapid response ASAP
The pt is getting better
Call the HCP and report your findings
16
Treatment for status asthmaticus (SATA):
Sympathomimetic inhalation agent
Corticosteroids
Parasympathomimetic inhalation agent
Inhalation of heliox & oxygen mixture
17
How would hypothermia affect the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve?
Right shift
Left shift
18
Where should the tip of ET tube be located?
At the carina
3-5 cm below the carina
1 cm past the epiglottis
3-5 cm above the carina
19
This noninvasive ventilation modality requires a ventilator and delivers different inspiratory & expiratory pressures:
BIPAP
CPAP
20
Your patient’s chest tube comes out, what do you do (SATA)?
Hold pressure on the opening
Assess for paradoxical movements
Cover the incision with sterile occlusive dressing taped on 3 sides
Call the HCP immediately
21
Signs of the basilar skull fracture (SATA):
CN VII paralysis
Periorbital ecchymosis
Halo sign
Battle’s sign
22
Pt comes in for syncope after playing in the sun all day. How will you position them?
Supine with legs extended
Sit them up in high fowlers
Prone with legs elevated
Flat on the ground with legs elevated
23
Which transplant drug causes renal toxicity?
Tacrolimus
Prednisone
24
Your patient has hypertensive urgency, what do you do (SATA)?
Rapidly reduce BP
Give oral antihypertensiveS
Decrease BP GRADUALLY over 12-24 hours to lower BP target
Give IV antihypertensives
25
Cavitation brain injury is associated with:
Head rotates on its axis
Gunshot wound
Low-velocity blunt trauma
26
A patient with GCS score of 8 should be intubated for MV.
False
True
27
A conditioning treatment necessary to prepare a patient for the HSCT usually includes which procedure? (SATA)
Administration of growth factors
Administration of erythropoietin
Total body irradiation
High-dose chemotherapy
28
How would you position your patient who came to ER with a broken femur and suddenly became dyspneic?
Left lateral
Recovery
High Fowler
Trendelenburg
29
External ventricular drain transducer is placed at (SATA):
Tragus of the ear
Foramen magnum
Foramen ovale
Foramen of Monro
30
A pt has distributive shock. What is the first line treatment?
Obtain blood cultures and wait for the results before giving ABX
Administer potassium via IVPB
Call rapid response STAT
Obtain blood cultures and administer antibiotics STAT
31
Patient has BP 185/65, HR 54, irregular respiratory pattern, UO of 2 L in last hour, & projectile vomiting. Suspect?
Increased ICP
Bowel obstruction
Decreased ICP
32
What lab values/ signs will you see with heart failure?
Reduced EF
High BNP
High BUN
MAP > 70
33
Your patient’s result of the Train of Four test is 4/4. What does this mean?
The patient is overly sedated
The patient is dead
The patient is not sufficiently sedated
The patient is adequately sedated
34
Select the abnormal value(s):
EF 35%
CI 3L/min/m2
CO 5L
MAP 59 mmHg
35
Characteristics of epidural hematoma (SATA):
Rapid arterial bleed
“Worst headache of pt’s life”
“Lucid interval”
Slow venous bleed
36
These are ARDS clinical findings (SATA):
Extremely low V/Q or shunt
PaO2/FiO2 ratio of 180
Pulmonary edema with BNP level of 575pg/mL
Refractory to oxygen therapy
37
Patients with Stage 5 CKD are considered to have ESRD requiring HD treatment. Select diagnostic GFR?
29
95
14
67
38
What is the primary indicator for kidney transplant?
ESRD
Chronic HTN
Stage 6 renalitis
Cirrhosis
39
Signs of Cardiac Tamponade (SATA):
Increased CVP
High BP
Muffled heart sounds
Low BP
40
What is the immediate intervention for DIC?
PRBC
Fresh Frozen Plasma
Broad spectrum antibiotics
TPA
41
Where should the tip of CVC be positioned?
In the left atrium
your mom
cavo-atrial junction
In the right atrium
42
Cor pulmonale leads to what type of heart failure?
Left-sided heart failure
Right-sided heart failure
43
Thrombolytic therapy may disrupt the blood-brain barrier.
True
False
44
A person is having MI in the middle of HEB. How would you position the patient while waiting for EMS to arrive?
Supine with legs elevated
Left Lateral
Sitting up leaning on you
45
Stroke volume is regulated by SATA:
Peripheral resistance
Contractility
End-diastolic volume
Cardiac output
46
What is the optimal time to begin thrombolytic therapy?
7-8 hours after event
3-4 hours after event
2-3 hours after event
5-6 hours after event
47
Defibrillation is used as a treatment for (SATA):
Asystole
A fib
V fib
V tach in a pulseless patient
48
Select all that apply to PAWP:
Measurement taken at the end of inspiration
Normal value is 15 mmHg
Measurement taken at the end of expiration
Indirectly measures left-ventricle preload
49
What is the #1 S/S of shock? (Dr. Calvin <3s this)
Sundowning
Decreased urine output
Decreased work of breathing
Increased thirst
50
Normal lab values in a trauma (SATA)?
MAP < 65
Systemic mixed venous O2 sat 65-80%
Gastric pH >7.35
Lactate <2.2 mmol/L
51
Select all that apply to Type I respiratory failure:
treat with increased FiO2
PaCO2 > 45
treat with increased RR
PaO2 < 60
52
Your patient has the SVR of 400. Select the appropriate condition & intervention:
Hypothermia
Shock
Administer Lasix
Administer Levophed
53
SCI at C4 level requires mechanical ventilation.
True
False
54
Which intervention(s) is(are) warranted for PAWP of 2 mmHg?
Diuresis
Administer LR
Administer nitroglycerin
Administer albumin
55
Patient’s potassium is 6.1, what could you expect to see on their EKG?
Prominent U waves
Peaked T wave
Prolonged ST segment
Prolonged PR and QT intervals
56
What are the most important things a nurse should consider when caring for a brain dead pt? SATA
Start talking about hospice care with the family
Do frequent respiratory assessments
Maintain oxygenation and perfusion needs of organs
Maintain organ function after death
57
These are normal findings for a functional chest drainage system (SATA):
Gentle intermittent bubbling in the water seal
Chest tube inserted at 4th/5th intercostal space
Fluid level is not tidaling in the water seal chamber
Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber
58
Your assessment of a pt. shows decreased BP, urinated 15 mL in the past 7 hrs, and are lethargic. What do you do first?
Administer crystalloids
Talk to the family about end of life care
Administer supplemental oxygen
Turn the temp in the room down to 65 degrees in the room