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Principles 1 Exam 2 Comprehensive (Lydia) Flashcards | StudBud
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Principles 1 Exam 2 Comprehensive (Lydia)
Principles 1 Exam 2 Comprehensive (Lydia)
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1
Why do NSAIDs compromise renal perfusion?
inhibit prostaglandin-mediated afferent arteriole constriction
inhibit prostaglandin-mediated efferent arteriole constriction
inhibit prostaglandin-mediated efferent arteriole vasodilation
inhibit prostaglandin-mediated afferent arteriole vasodilation
2
Which of the following is the best choice for pain management in the liver patient?
morphine
fentanyl
hydromorphone
meperidine
3
What is the leading cause of postpartum hemorrhage?
uterine inversion
use of tocolytic agents prior to delivery
uterine atony
retained placenta
4
What does HELLP syndrome stand for?
help everything lacks late presentation
hemodialysis elevated liver enzymes low platelets
hypertension elevated lactate enzymes low platelets
hemolysis elevated liver enzymes low platelets
5
True/False: uterine blood flow is primary impacted by maternal heart rate
True
False
6
Which of the following is not a sign of an IV injection with a test dose for an epidural?
decreased HR
circumoral numbness
none of the above
lightheadedness
7
True/False: ACE inhibitors inhibit efferent artery constriction, which compromises GFR
True
False
8
Your patient has these labs: Urinary sodium 8, specific gravity 1.12, fractional sodium excretion 0.5. What problem?
acute tubular necrosis
postrenal failure
prerenal failure
physiologic oliguria
9
Which of the following drugs will not harm the kidney?
pancuronium
aspirin
Ketorolac
sufentanil
10
True/False: aortocaval compression is caused by being in the prone position
False
True
11
Which of the following is recommended for liver patients? SATA
avoid hypocapnia
use albumin to replace fluids
therapeutic hypothermia
avoid neuraxial if platelets <80k
12
Which of the following drugs will impede kidney autoregulation?
terbutraline
metoprolol
nifedipine
chlorhexidine
13
True/False: A high clearance drug will NOT be affected by hepatic blood flow
False
True
14
During the preanhepatic phase, what is your biggest concern?
acidosis
RV failure
hyperkalemia
dramatic blood loss
15
True/False: avoid butorphanol in the opioid-dependent patient
False
True
16
What is the EBV for a pregnant woman?
80 mL/kg
90 mL/kg
65 mL/kg
70 mL/kg
17
During the anhepatic phase, what is your priority? SATA
prep for reperfusion
avoid volume overload, as it can make the bleeding worse
treat hyperkalemia aggressively
monitoring for signs of graft dysfunction
18
True/False: What is in the medulla is most prone to ischemia
True
False
19
During the first stage of labor, how does pain travel? Select 2
pudenal nerve
S2-S4 spinal segments
T10-L1 spinal segments
A delta and C fibers
20
Your elective surgery patient presents with an ALT of 75 and an AST of 68. They have no other symptoms. What now?
cancel the case
proceed with the surgery
check coags and echo
complete a liver workup
21
Which of the following cause an decreased risk of PDPH incidence?
none of the above
air
young
women
22
Your laboring patient is 6 cm dilated. What phase is she in?
Stage 2
active phase
latent phase
Stage 1
23
True/False: a hallmark sign of a PDPH is a severe postural headache
False
True
24
True/False: A patient that has a spinal transection will be sensitive to nondepolarizers
True
False
25
Which of the following are absolute contraindications for ESWL? SATA
pacemaker
Harrington rods
pregnancy
untreated bleeding disorder
26
Which of the following drugs may have a renoprotective effect in renal transplanlt?
mannitol
acetylcysteine
ANP
fenaldopam
27
True/False: Nitric oxide and prostaglandins in the deep juxtamedullary zone cause vasoconstriction
True
False
28
Which of the following is associated with an intrarenal cause of oliguria?
hypovolemia
radiocontrast dye
surgical ligation
hypotension
29
True/False: Radiocontrast causes an increase in oxygen supply but decrease in demand to medulla
True
False
30
Which of the following is not a function of the kidney?
none of the above
acid/base balance
excretion of urine
secretion of angiotensin
31
Which of the following will not lead to increase RBF?
ANP
aldosterone
prostaglandins
kinins
32
True/false: placental abruption presents as painful vaginal bleeding
True
False
33
Deficiency of what has been implicated in the pathogenesis of HTN?
ANP
nitric oxide
epinephrine
prostaglandins
34
True/False: uterine rupture presents as intermittent abdominal pain
False
True
35
Which of the following is true about liver blood flow? Select 2
the hepatic artery compensates via adenosine
the hepatic vein compensates via norepinephrine
the hepatic artery supplies 50% of the blood flow
the hepatic vein supplies 75% of the blood
36
True/False: in liver failure, the responsiveness to beta stimulation will be decreased
False
True
37
True/False: hypoventilation will cause hypokalemia in chronic renal failure patients
True
False
38
True/False: Hypernatremia is the biggest risk with TURP syndrome
False
True
39
Which of the following hormones does the liver produce? SATA
erythropoeitin
thrombopoietin
insulin-like growth factor
angiotensinogen
estrogen
angiotensin
40
Your patient is laid flat after an epidural and is lightheaded. What is the next step?
assess the blood pressure
left uterine displacement
right uterine displacement
pull the epidural
41
Which of the following will increase during pregnancy? Select 2
minute ventilation
airway resistance
peripheral resistance
plasma volume
42
During reperfusion, the patient becomes very unstable. You notice sine waves appearing. What do you do? SATA
look into liver dialysis options
give calcium and bicarb
tell the surgeon that the new liver doesn't pass the vibe check
drop out of CRNA school and face the weight of crushing student loans
tell the surgeon to reclamp the portal vein
be prepared for potential cardiac arrest
43
Which of the following are transmitted via the fecal oral route? SATA
hep e
hep a
hep b
hep d
44
Your patient has preeclampsia and is having uterine atony. What drug do you need to be careful with?
nitroglycerin
methergine
oxytocin
carboprost
45
Which of the following are interventions with a patient on Bleomycin? SATA
generously administer IV fluids
Keep FiO2 <0.5
sat goal >89%
try to avoid blood transfusions
46
What factor has the shortest half life?
II
VII
VIII
IV
47
What is a medication treatment of varices?
alpha 2 blockers
alpha agonists
beta blockers
beta agonists
48
What do the hepatic cells contain to help store iron?
erythropoeitin
ferritin
apoferritin
beferritin
49
The P50 for hemoglobin in the pregnant woman shifts from 26.7 to:
27
24
30
28
50
Which of the following clotting factors does the liver make that are dependent on vitamin K? SATA
X
XI
III
XII
II
VII
51
Which of the following is true about a paracervical plexus block? Select 2
used in 1st stage of labor
associated with abscesses
associated with fetal bradycardia
used in 2nd stage of labor
52
An OB patient comes in with painless vaginal bleeding. What is most likely happening?
uterine rupture
placental abruption
SROM
placenta previa
53
What medication will you likely need an increased dosage of in a liver patient?
phenylephrine
propofol
versed
etomidate
