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Block 5, Appraisal 19 (All Units) Flashcards | StudBud
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Block 5, Appraisal 19 (All Units)
Block 5, Appraisal 19 (All Units)
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1
1A. Name the destructive behavior where the attacker changes entries in records.
Data Diddling
Denial of Service
Unauthorized Access
Data Theft
2
2A. What service has this drawback: if an account is compromised, a hacker can access multiple servers rather than one?
Single-Sign-On (SSO)
webmail
Two-Person Integrity (TPI)
Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA)
3
4A. What should be placed in a private zone?
Visitor Wi-Fi
Local Area Network (LAN)
Public-facing server
Limited-Access Server
4
6C. Which of the following is NOT part of baselining a system?
set up a system
publish results to stockholders
measure the baseline
fix the issues
5
2C. Which software development life cycle requires completion of each development phase before moving to the next phase?
Waterfall
Slippery Slope
Agile
Dynamic
6
2D. What is a cryptographic processor stored on a separate card and installed on a system as an add-on device?
Software Encryption
Trusted Platform Module (TPM)
Hardware Security Module (HSM)
Hardware Encryption
7
1C. A worm has the unique characteristic of being able to replicate without needing _________ to activate the virus.
a user
permissions
electricity
an attack vector
8
8C. We aim to defeat our enemy's cryptanalysis efforts with our _________ systems.
war games
espionage
information
cryptographic
9
5C. All involved personnel should ID and ______ all relevant information about a network incident for future analysis.
collect
copy
obscure
distribute
10
2D. To prevent data theft and worms, USB data ports are _________ on Department of Defense computers.
disabled
glued shut
encouraged
mandatory
11
8C. What level of classification, if disclosed, could cause exceptionally grave damage to national security?
Controlled Unclassified Information (CUI)
Confidential (C)
Top Secret (TS)
Secret (S)
12
2D. Why are Universal Serial Bus (USB) devices particularly dangerous to computer systems and networks?
Worms can activate and spread just by plugging one ino a computer
All of the above
They hold large amounts of data
They are easy to conceal
13
2B. What protocol does DIAMETER use to send and secure data during transmission?
User Datagram Protocol (UDP)
802.1X
Network Access Control (NAC)
Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)
14
5B. The goal of a network incident first responder is to _________ the incident.
contain
defend
spread
resolve
15
1B. A targeted social engineering attack on a specific user for his/her specific likes is known as an insider attack.
True
False
16
2A. Which of the following is NOT an authentication factor?
Something you have
something you know
Something you are
Someone you know
17
2D. When using Full Disk Encryption (FDE), what stores the cryptographic keys within the system?
Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)
Trusted Platform Module (TPM)
Hardware Security Module (HSM)
Intrusion Detection System (IDS)
18
2C. What risk is posed by enabling the "Remember Me" feature with internet browsers?
scripting secrecy
cookie corruption
cross-site forgery
cross-site scripting
19
2C. The code is checked for functionality in what stage of the SDLC?
Implementation
Requirements Gathering and Analysis
Design
Testing
20
1C. What are the two common pathways from criminals to users?
Email & Universal Serial Bus (USB)
Email & the World Wide Web
World Wide Web & File Sharing
Teleworking & Email
21
8A. What security program focuses on end-point security, ports, protocols, and service management within the Air Force?
INFOSEC
COMSEC
COMPUSEC
TEMPEST
22
2A. What type of authentication factor is based on user habits like typing patterns?
something you have
something you do
something you know
somewhere you are
23
2A. Combining username & password is considered multi-factor authentication.
False
True
24
5A. A/an _________ is an observable occurance in a system and/or network.
event
criminal action
incident
intrusion
25
1D. A third party contractor gaining _______ unauthorized access to information systems is considered an insider threat.
administrative or user
physical or virtual
administrative
user
26
6C. When creating a baseline, what metric will change the perspective of your data?
time span and starting point
starting point
time span
stock price
27
2A. When Network Access Control connects to a network, what can it scan for on the system?
virus definitions
all of the above
antivirus software
operating systems updates
28
1C. File infector viruses will infect what type of files?
Sound Files
Executable Files
Text Files
Video Files
29
2A. What type of authentication factor requires a biometrics system?
something you have
something you know
somewhere you are
something you are
30
1A. Per the STRIDE model, what term is described by exhausting resources needed to provide service?
Tampering
Denial of Service
Elevation of privilege
Information Disclosure
31
2A. What must be supplied by a user who’s attempting to connect to a network secured with 802.1X?
Multi-Factor Authentication
Valid Credentials
Two-Person Integrity (TPI)
Biometrics
32
5A. What document should define each team member's roles and responsibilities?
Incident Response Plan
Annual Loss Expectancy
Service Level Agreement
Disaster Recovery Plan
33
2B. Any network resources the user consumes during their session is logged. What is this process called?
Accounting
Authorization
Identification
Authentication
34
5C. What document identifies potential foreign threats to Department of Defense networks?
Plan of Action & Milestones (POA&M)
Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP)
Network Intelligence Report (NIR)
Courses of Action (COA)
35
4A. In what security zone would you put a Wi-Fi network?
extranet
wireless zone
guest
demilitarized zone (DMZ)
36
6D. It's necessary to maintain a/an _________ to revert the system after changes if needed.
baseline
user agreement
access control list
software listing
37
4A. When creating a firewall plan, you will typically create all of the following zones EXCEPT what?
public zone
Demilitarized Zone (DMZ)
communal zone
private LAN / intranet
38
1C. What malware has the defining factor of being able to replicate itself without user interaction?
Logic Bomb
Worm
Boot-Sector
Trojan Horse
39
6A. By having secure network user habits, the cyber _________ of the network is ensured.
cleanliness
hygiene
deterioration
privacy
40
5A. How would the following incident/event be categorized: normal functionality is denied.
CAT 2 - User-Level Intrusion
CAT 3 - Unsuccessful Activity Attempt
CAT 4 - Denial of Service
CAT 1 - Root-Level Intrusion
41
1D. Cybersecurity in the supply chain can be viewed as an information technology problem only.
True
False
42
2A. The use of biometrics is what type of authentication factor?
Something You Know
Something You Are
Somewhere You Are
Something You Have
43
6A. Before you dispose of a computer you should use a wipe utility program to _________ the entire hard drive.
erase
overwrite
reformat
demagnetize
44
1C. Where does a "boot-sector virus" reside?
First sector of a disk or Universal Serial Bus (USB) drive
Second sector of a disk
Web Proxy
Universal Serial Bus (USB) drive
45
6E. In which step would you gather and document equipment, policies, telephone numbers, and other valuable documents?
Constitute a Disaster Recovery Team
Create the Disaster Recovery Plan
Data Collection
Prioritize Processes and Operations
46
8D. Which security program is a continuous process and an inherent part of military culture?
COMPUSEC
INFOSEC
OPSEC
TRANSEC
47
1D. Ensuring a third party is ___________ data is an important prerequisite when considering cloud computing.
Hiding
Destroying
Selling
Securing
48
6C. What is the starting point for all future configuration assessments?
baseline
administrator access
rebooting
factory reset
49
5A. How would the following incident/event be categorized: authorized user breaches AF policy.
CAT 5 - Non-Compliance Activity
CAT 8 - Investigating
CAT 7 - Malicious Logic
CAT 6 - Reconnaissance
50
1A. What are the ways to characterize an attack?
timeframe, amount of victims, and country of origin
value of damage and country and country of origin
intent, point of initiation, and method of delivery
value of damage and personnel effected
51
2A. Dissolvable agents run the NAC check for a current status of the system and remain installed on the system.
False
True
52
6E. In which step would you form a team to assist in the entire disaster recovery operation?
Prioritize Processes and Operations
Data Collection
Constitute a Disaster Recovery Team
Perform Risk Assessment
53
5B. During an incident, what must the incident handling staff do with the data to allow for further incident analysis?
preserve integrity of data
contact the Office of Special Investigation (OSI)
lock hardware in a secure facility
destroy the data
54
1A. Per the STRIDE model, what threat involves claiming you didn't do something or were not responsible for an action?
Spoofing
Repudiation
Elevation of Privilege
Tampering
55
6A. How often should antivirus software be set up to automatically perform security scans?
regularly
every day
never; always do it manually
weekly
56
5A. What incident response team role has technical expertise to assess and identify the scale of the security incident?
Technical Specialist
Legal Advisor
Documentation Specialist
Team Leader
57
2C. During the Agile SDLC process, when can developers backtrack or repeat steps?
Implementation Phase
Design Phase
Anytime
Never
58
8B. _________ vulnerabilities come from unintentionally emitted signals or compromising emanations.
COMPUSEC
COMSEC
INFOSEC
TEMPEST
59
8C. _______ is applying cryptosecurity techniques to each situation so our intercepted signals will be unintelligible.
COMPUSEC
OPSEC
TRANSEC
INFOSEC
60
6E. Which backup method backs up files that were altered since the last backup
and
clears the archive flag after?
Incremental Backup
Normal Backup
Full Backup
Differential Backup
61
2B. What AAA protocol gives less reliable/secure service through User Datagram Protocol (UDP)?
Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS)
DIAMETER
Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)
Single-Sign-On (SSO)
62
1B. Which of the following is NOT a purpose of social engineering?
System Access
Fraud
Team Building
Gather Information
63
5B. If a virus is discovered on a system, who should isolate the computer from the network?
first responder
Incident Response Team, Legal Advisor
Incident Response Team, Technical Specialist
Incident Response Team, Team Lead
64
6C. Baselining will require updating to make it current with a desired configuration.
True
False
65
3A. Which NTFS permission gives a user all permission possible?
Read and Execute
Full Control
Read
Modify
66
4A. In what security zone would you put a limited-access server?
demilitarized zone (DMZ)
guest zone
wireless zone
extranet zone
67
5B. What part of post-incident analysis captures lessons learned, initial root cause, and other problems?
postmortem
Network Intelligence Report (NIR)
Cyber Incident Report (CIR)
Cyber Operations Risk Assessment (CORA)
68
2A. Agentless Network Access Control does not require a/an agent _________ to be installed on a client.
biometric
hardware
software
password
69
8C. TRANSEC results from all measures designed to protect intentional transmissions by means other than what?
decryption
cryptanalysis
physical security
coding systems
70
6A. To ensure antivirus definitions are kept up to date, users should allow their software to perform automatic updates.
False
True
71
8A. Having the goals of Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability best describes which security program?
COMPUSEC (Computer Security)
COMSEC (Communications Security)
INFOSEC (Information Security)
TEMPEST
72
3A. Group policy can be centrally configured for the network through _____________.
Microsoft Access
ActiveX Controls
Access Directory
Active Directory
73
2C. In what attack is malicious code injected into a web application via a script?
Macrovirus
Cross Site Scripting (XSS)
Cross Site Forgery
Trojan Horse
74
5A. A/an _________ is an assessed occurance in a system and/or network that jeopardizes the information system.
event
incident
criminal action
intrusion
75
5C. During which phase should personnel continuously review the incident to ensure accuracy?
Determine Reporting Requirements
Determine the Operational Impact
Coordinate
Validate the Incident
76
3A. What provides web filtering?
Proxy server
Full disk encryption
Windows settings
User settings
77
1A. Which network attack is difficult to address because it sends more requests to one machine than it can handle?
Trojan Horse
Virus
Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS)
Ransomware
78
2B. What's defined as presenting information about yourself to a system?
Authentication
Authorization
Identification
Accounting
79
5B. Name the all-source report that focuses on individuals, groups, or organizations ID'd as threats to DoD networks.
Cyber Incident Report (CIR)
Network Intelligence Report (NIR)
Air Force Manual (AFMAN)
Course of Action (COA)
80
2D. Storage Drive encryption can encrypt what kinds of storage drives?
Only hard drives
None of the above
Only Universal Serial Bus (USB) drives
Hard drives and Universal Serial Bus (USB) drive
81
8B. TEMPEST is a security program that identifies compromising _________ in information systems
operations
emanations
communications
laminations
82
8C. Cryptography is the use of coding systems to _________ information.
classify & declassify
encrypt & decrypt
cryptanalyze
encode & decode
83
8D. OPSEC reduces mission vulnerabilities by eliminating or reducing adversary collection of _______.
critical information
personal information
unclassified information
classified information
84
5B. What's the first incident response phase where the AF detects activity with a variety of means and capabilities?
Preliminary Response Actions
Preliminary Analysis & Identification
Detection & Reporting Events
Incident Analysis
85
5A. How would the following incident/event be categorized: event undergoing further review.
CAT 0 - Training Exercises
CAT 9 - Explained Anomaly
CAT 8 - Investigating
CAT 2 - User-Level Intrusion
86
5A. How would the following incident/event be categorized: event that is a false alarm.
CAT 2 - User-Level Intrusion
CAT 4 - Denial of Service
CAT 9 - Explained Anomaly
CAT 8 - Investigating
87
1C. Malicious code is a category including _________ and website scripts that can be uploaded into a vulnerable system.
Adware
Botnets
Worms
Malicious Software (malware)
88
1B. What involves psychological manipulation of people to divulge information or perform actions that benefit attackers?
Malicious Code
Social Engineering
Supply Chains
Network Attack
89
4A. What security zone contains the internet?
public zone
demilitarized zone (DMZ)
private zone
guest zone
90
8C. Which of the following would be considered the LEAST classified compared to the others?
Confidential (C)
Classified
Top Secret (TS)
Secret (S)
91
2D. When Bitlocker is enabled, Windows 7 and newer versions can't boot without a key. What type of encryption is this?
storage drive encryption
hardware security module (HSM)
console encryption (CE)
full disk encryption (FDE)
92
3A. Network administrators implement permissions on files and folders to build what?
New Technology File System (NTFS)
Proxy Server
Special Compartmentalized Information Facility (SCIF)
Access Control List (ACL)
93
5C. When should gathering information take place during root cause analysis?
last step
second step
only if applicable
first step
94
2C. Websites store cookies containing user preferences and _________ information.
Classified
Disciplinary
Logon
Biometric