Why are preterm infants prone to cold stress?

B. They have a large surface area and little fat

What are characteristics of infants with dysmaturity syndrome?

B. Thin body, cracked skin, and meconium staining

What is a key feature of sepsis?

B. A dysregulated response to infection that leads to organ dysfunction

How can nurses support breastfeeding in preterm infants?

B. Teach clients how to use a breast pump and store milk

What is a common concern for an older pregnant client?

D. Anxiety about antepartum testing and parenting ability

What is a possible cause of pulmonary embolism?

A. Amniotic fluid debris in the bloodstream

Why do preterm infants struggle with nutrition?

B. They lack coordinated sucking and swallowing

What is a key focus of nursing care during labor?

B. Monitoring for fetal hypoxia, infection, or injury

What is the priority goal in managing ectopic pregnancy?

D. Preventing severe hemorrhage

What is a sign of uterine rupture?

B. Signs of shock and abnormal fetal heart rate patterns

How does pregnancy impact COVID-19 risk?

D. Increases risk of severe disease

What is a cause of delayed uterine involution (subinvolution)?

C. Retained placental fragments or infection

Which statement about intimate partner violence (IPV) is true?

C. It follows a predictable cycle and can cause severe harm

How does symmetric growth restriction differ from asymmetric growth restriction?

A. Symmetric = small all over, asymmetric = thin body, normal head

What should a breastfeeding parent do if returning to work?

A. Learn proper milk expression and storage techniques

What is the best evidence that a client received proper care?

A. Complete and timely documentation

What is an effective way to resolve ethical dilemmas?

B. Using ethical principles and the nursing process

Which sign indicates an infant is ready for nipple feeding?

B. Sucking on a pacifier and presence of a gag reflex

What determines the appropriate level of maternal care?

A. Complexity of care, available resources, and subspecialty care

Which infant should receive a specialized formula?

A. A baby with a known cow’s milk allergy

What postpartum factor increases the risk of a wound infection?

D. Breaks in the skin or mucous membranes during childbirth

What is a priority intervention after uterine inversion?

B. Promote uterine contraction and maintain circulation

What is a key characteristic of DIC?

D. Excessive bleeding and tissue ischemia

How do bottle-fed infants control milk flow?

B. Pushing the tongue against the nipple

What determines the supply of breast milk?

B. Frequency of infant feedings

What is a major risk of magnesium sulfate therapy?

B. Respiratory depression if levels are too high

How can postpartum clients prevent mastitis?

A. Fully empty the breasts at each feeding

How do preterm infants show they are overstimulated?

A. Decreased oxygenation and behavioral changes

What factors increase respiratory problems in preterm infants?

B. Poor cough reflex, narrow airways, and weak muscles

Why can punitive approaches be problematic in healthcare?

B. They prevent clients from seeking prenatal care

How should a client with pulmonary edema be positioned?

B. Upright with uterine displacement

What are potential effects of polysubstance use during pregnancy?

A. Developmental problems that may persist long-term

What is the treatment for deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

B. Anticoagulants, analgesics, and leg elevation

What is one way to improve emergency preparedness in obstetric care?

A. Conducting emergency drills and simulations

What is a key component of interprofessional bedside rounds?

C. Communicating a plan of care with client and family input

What is the priority intervention for a trauma patient in pregnancy?

A. Resuscitation of the pregnant client first, then fetal stabilization

What is an early intervention for cardiac arrest in pregnancy?

B. Manually displace the uterus to improve circulation

Nurses are expected to follow:

A. Nurse practice acts, standards of care, and agency policies

What are late preterm infants (34-36 6/7 weeks) at risk for?

B. Respiratory, feeding, and temperature regulation problems

What is the function of colostrum?

A. Provides high protein, vitamins, minerals, and immunoglobulins

studbud

Unit 6

149 termsStudBud Administration

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Questions 149

Answers

1
Why are preterm infants prone to cold stress?
D. They overheat easily
A. They produce excessive heat
C. Their metabolic rate is high
B. They have a large surface area and little fat
2
What are characteristics of infants with dysmaturity syndrome?
B. Thin body, cracked skin, and meconium staining
C. Excess amniotic fluid and rapid growth
A. Thick, hydrated skin
D. Hyperglycemia at birth
3
What is a key feature of sepsis?
D. A mild fever with no complications
B. A dysregulated response to infection that leads to organ dysfunction
C. Increased fetal growth
A. Faster labor progression
4
How can nurses support breastfeeding in preterm infants?
A. Discourage pumping until the baby is full-term
D. Limit the number of feedings per day
B. Teach clients how to use a breast pump and store milk
C. Encourage formula feeding exclusively
5
How many pregnancy-related deaths occur annually in the U.S.?
C. 50
B. 700
A. 200
D. 1,500
6
What is a common concern for an older pregnant client?
A. Higher chance of miscarriage
B. Increased need for cesarean delivery
D. Anxiety about antepartum testing and parenting ability
C. Reduced fetal growth
7
What is a possible cause of pulmonary embolism?
C. Maternal dehydration
A. Amniotic fluid debris in the bloodstream
B. Increased uterine contractions
D. Low red blood cell count
8
Why do preterm infants struggle with nutrition?
C. They absorb nutrients more efficiently than full-term infants
D. They have a faster metabolism
B. They lack coordinated sucking and swallowing
A. They have excess nutrient stores
9
Which disorder is classified as an anxiety disorder related to childbirth?
D. Postpartum anemia
B. Postpartum hypertension
A. Postpartum dehydration
C. Panic disorder
10
What is a key focus of nursing care during labor?
B. Monitoring for fetal hypoxia, infection, or injury
D. Reducing maternal stress only
A. Preventing weight loss
C. Avoiding all medical interventions
11
What is the priority goal in managing ectopic pregnancy?
C. Increasing fetal growth
D. Preventing severe hemorrhage
B. Reducing nausea and vomiting
A. Lowering blood sugar levels
12
What is a sign of uterine rupture?
B. Signs of shock and abnormal fetal heart rate patterns
D. Increased fetal movement
C. Gradual onset of strong contractions
A. Sudden relief of pain
13
How does pregnancy impact COVID-19 risk?
D. Increases risk of severe disease
C. No impact
A. Eliminates the need for vaccines
B. Lowers infection rates
14
What symptom may precede an AFE event?
A. Persistent nausea
D. Increased fetal movement
C. Sense of impending doom
B. High blood sugar levels
15
What is a cause of delayed uterine involution (subinvolution)?
A. Decreased progesterone levels
B. Increased postpartum exercise
D. Early ambulation
C. Retained placental fragments or infection
16
Which statement about intimate partner violence (IPV) is true?
A. It only affects low-income clients
C. It follows a predictable cycle and can cause severe harm
D. It is unrelated to pregnancy
B. It is usually a one-time occurrence
17
How does symmetric growth restriction differ from asymmetric growth restriction?
A. Symmetric = small all over, asymmetric = thin body, normal head
D. Asymmetric infants have increased body fat
C. Symmetric infants always weigh more than 4 kg
B. Asymmetric leads to larger birth weight
18
What should a breastfeeding parent do if returning to work?
B. Wean the infant completely before returning
A. Learn proper milk expression and storage techniques
D. Increase formula use and decrease milk pumping
C. Switch entirely to formula
19
What is the best evidence that a client received proper care?
A. Complete and timely documentation
B. A client’s social media post
D. Verbal reports from staff
C. Nurse's memory of events
20
What is an effective way to resolve ethical dilemmas?
B. Using ethical principles and the nursing process
A. Avoiding involvement in client choices
D. Letting physicians make all ethical decisions
C. Following personal beliefs only
21
Which sign indicates an infant is ready for nipple feeding?
A. A respiratory rate over 60 breaths per minute
C. No interest in oral stimulation
D. Lack of rooting reflex
B. Sucking on a pacifier and presence of a gag reflex
22
What determines the appropriate level of maternal care?
A. Complexity of care, available resources, and subspecialty care
C. The client’s preference
D. Maternal age only
B. The length of the pregnancy
23
What stage of lactogenesis occurs 2-3 days after birth?
C. Lactogenesis II
D. Lactation suppression
B. Lactogenesis I
A. Lactogenesis III
24
Which infant should receive a specialized formula?
B. A baby gaining weight quickly
D. A baby transitioning from breast milk
C. A baby who is sleeping more than expected
A. A baby with a known cow’s milk allergy
25
Which nonviral infection requires pregnancy screening?
C. Seasonal flu
A. Group B Streptococcus
B. Strep throat
D. Chickenpox
26
What postpartum factor increases the risk of a wound infection?
A. Epidural anesthesia
B. Slow fetal descent during labor
C. High blood sugar levels
D. Breaks in the skin or mucous membranes during childbirth
27
What is a priority intervention after uterine inversion?
D. Perform a fetal ultrasound
C. Encourage maternal ambulation
A. Increase fluid intake
B. Promote uterine contraction and maintain circulation
28
What is a key characteristic of DIC?
A. Increased uterine contractions
B. High fetal movement
C. Low maternal heart rate
D. Excessive bleeding and tissue ischemia
29
How do bottle-fed infants control milk flow?
D. Suckling at the back of the throat
B. Pushing the tongue against the nipple
C. Opening their mouths wider
A. Compressing the areola with their gums
30
What percentage of maternal deaths in the U.S. are preventable?
B. 60%
D. 90%
A. 30%
C. 50%
31
What is the most common cause of spontaneous abortion (miscarriage)?
B. Poor nutrition
D. Chromosomal abnormalities
C. Excessive physical activity
A. Maternal infections
32
What determines the supply of breast milk?
B. Frequency of infant feedings
C. Maternal hydration level
D. The amount of solid food the infant eats
A. The size of the breasts
33
What is a major risk of magnesium sulfate therapy?
C. Excessive uterine contractions
B. Respiratory depression if levels are too high
D. Increased fetal activity
A. Hypertension
34
How can postpartum clients prevent mastitis?
B. Reduce fluid intake
A. Fully empty the breasts at each feeding
C. Use only one breast per feeding
D. Avoid breastfeeding if discomfort occurs
35
How do preterm infants show they are overstimulated?
C. Crying less frequently
A. Decreased oxygenation and behavioral changes
B. Increased weight gain
D. Improved feeding coordination
36
Which symptom is commonly seen in pregnant clients with DKA?
A. Hyperactive reflexes
D. Low fetal heart rate
C. Bradycardia
B. Fruity ketonic breath
37
Which is a type of postpartum mood disorder?
C. Postpartum hypertension
A. Postpartum blues
B. Postpartum obesity
D. Postpartum anemia
38
When is gestational diabetes diagnosed?
B. After delivery
D. First trimester
A. During labor
C. Second or third trimester
39
What factors increase respiratory problems in preterm infants?
D. Thick mucus production and rigid ribs
C. High lung compliance and increased surfactant
B. Poor cough reflex, narrow airways, and weak muscles
A. Strong muscles and wide airways
40
Why can punitive approaches be problematic in healthcare?
B. They prevent clients from seeking prenatal care
D. They reduce healthcare costs
A. They ensure stricter enforcement of medical policies
C. They increase nurse autonomy
41
How should a client with pulmonary edema be positioned?
D. Trendelenburg position
C. On their right side only
B. Upright with uterine displacement
A. Flat on their back
42
What happens when compensatory mechanisms for blood loss fail?
A. Uterine contractions become stronger
D. Blood pressure increases
B. The placenta detaches completely
C. Hypovolemic shock develops
43
What are potential effects of polysubstance use during pregnancy?
C. Stronger maternal immune system
A. Developmental problems that may persist long-term
B. No long-term impact on the fetus
D. Improved placental blood flow
44
What is the treatment for deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
C. Fluid restriction and warm compresses
A. Immediate surgery
D. Ambulation and hydration
B. Anticoagulants, analgesics, and leg elevation
45
What is one way to improve emergency preparedness in obstetric care?
C. Eliminating rapid response teams
A. Conducting emergency drills and simulations
B. Avoiding high-risk pregnancies
D. Only reacting when an emergency happens
46
What is a key component of interprofessional bedside rounds?
C. Communicating a plan of care with client and family input
B. Avoiding family discussions
A. Delaying treatment decisions
D. Reducing the number of healthcare team members involved
47
What is the priority intervention for a trauma patient in pregnancy?
C. Immediate emergency C-section
D. Delay all medical interventions
B. Fetal monitoring first
A. Resuscitation of the pregnant client first, then fetal stabilization
48
What is an early intervention for cardiac arrest in pregnancy?
D. Perform emergency C-section immediately
B. Manually displace the uterus to improve circulation
C. Delay chest compressions
A. Monitor fetal movement first
49
Nurses are expected to follow:
B. State laws only
C. Hospital management decisions
A. Nurse practice acts, standards of care, and agency policies
D. Only physician orders
50
What are late preterm infants (34-36 6/7 weeks) at risk for?
B. Respiratory, feeding, and temperature regulation problems
A. Faster weight gain
C. Stronger immune function
D. Increased surfactant production
51
What is the function of colostrum?
D. Causes a slower transition to mature milk
A. Provides high protein, vitamins, minerals, and immunoglobulins
C. Helps infants digest formula
B. Increases fetal weight gain
52
What is premature rupture of membranes (PROM) associated with?
A. Infection as both a cause and complication
B. Increased fetal activity
D. Excessive amniotic fluid
C. Lower risk of labor complications
53
Which ethical principles help guide decision-making?
B. Authority, responsibility, liability, and equality
A. Profitability, popularity, fairness, and convenience
D. Confidentiality, independence, law, and respect
C. Nonmaleficence, autonomy, beneficence, and justice
54
What prevents maternal antibodies from attacking fetal RBCs?
A. Blood transfusion
C. Rho(D) immune globulin
D. Iron supplementation
B. Magnesium sulfate
55
What is a primary cause of pulmonary edema in pregnancy?
D. Increased maternal estrogen levels
A. Excessive iron supplementation
B. Fluid accumulation in lung tissues
C. High fetal oxygen demand
56
What is the main risk of prolonged pregnancy?
A. Rapid labor
C. Decreased risk of fetal distress
D. Stronger contractions
B. Reduced placental function
57
What should nursing care focus on for a client placing an infant for adoption?
B. Encouraging the client to reconsider their decision
D. Limiting time spent with the infant
A. Avoiding emotional discussions
C. Emphasizing that adoption is an act of love, not abandonment
58
What does the LATCH score assess?
D. The frequency of feedings
A. The baby’s weight gain
B. The effectiveness of breastfeeding and potential problems
C. The mother’s milk supply
59
What is human trafficking?
C. A form of human migration
A. Recruitment and movement of individuals for exploitation
D. Voluntary employment in a foreign country
B. A system of providing free labor
60
How can nurses defend against malpractice claims?
D. Ignoring agency policies
C. Following informed consent and documentation guidelines
B. Relying only on verbal reports
A. Avoiding difficult patient cases
61
At what blood pressure should antihypertensive therapy be started in pregnancy?
A. Above 140/90 mm Hg
C. Below 120/80 mm Hg
B. Above 160/90-100 mm Hg
D. Only if proteinuria is present
62
What is a common risk factor for ectopic pregnancy?
B. Previous C-section
D. Scarring of the fallopian tubes
C. Low progesterone levels
A. High blood pressure
63
Why should cow’s milk be avoided in the first year?
C. It reduces immune function
D. It contains excess vitamin C
A. It lacks necessary nutrients and is hard to digest
B. It helps infants transition to solid food too quickly
64
What is the key intervention for umbilical cord prolapse?
D. Delay labor as long as possible
C. Increase maternal hydration
A. Encourage pushing
B. Relieve pressure on the umbilical cord and expedite delivery
65
How many kcal/kg do full-term breastfed infants need daily?
A. 60 to 75 kcal/kg
D. 40 to 55 kcal/kg
C. 110 to 130 kcal/kg
B. 85 to 100 kcal/kg
66
What is a non-pharmacologic way to manage pain in preterm infants?
C. Delaying feedings
B. Using containment, pacifiers, sucrose, and skin-to-skin contact
D. Keeping the room brightly lit
A. Avoiding all interventions
67
Which lifestyle factor is commonly associated with illicit drug use in pregnancy?
C. Increased prenatal care
A. Higher fetal weight gain
B. Reduced chance of preterm labor
D. Inadequate nutrition and increased risk of infections
68
What is a primary nursing goal for clients at risk of preterm birth?
A. Administer corticosteroids to mature fetal lungs
B. Encourage labor progression
D. Reduce fluid intake
C. Minimize fetal movement
69
What can cause dysfunctional labor?
C. Poor maternal nutrition
A. Abnormalities in powers, passenger, passage, or psyche
D. Early fetal movement
B. Lack of prenatal care
70
What is an essential skill for nurses caring for high-risk OB clients?
B. Knowing the baby’s due date
D. Enhanced knowledge of critical care management
A. Focusing only on fetal monitoring
C. Avoiding invasive procedures
71
What is the main concern with epilepsy in pregnancy?
D. Teratogenic effects of medications
C. Faster labor progression
A. Increased fetal movements
B. Low blood sugar levels
72
What is a key benefit of breast milk?
A. It contains nutrients in an easily digested form
B. It is identical to formula in composition
D. It does not contain any immunoglobulins
C. It requires supplementation with additional iron
73
What does antiphospholipid syndrome increase the risk of?
C. Thrombosis and pregnancy loss
A. Hyperemesis gravidarum
B. Hypertension only
D. Excessive fetal movement
74
What is an important guideline for formula preparation?
B. Heat it in the microwave for convenience
A. Dilute it according to directions
D. Use only warm tap water
C. Add extra water to reduce calories
75
Which group is most affected by human trafficking?
A. Clients with chronic illnesses
B. Persons and children of childbearing age
C. Retired professionals
D. Elderly individuals
76
Why is iron supplementation often needed in pregnancy?
A. To increase fetal movement
C. Diet alone may not meet iron needs
D. To lower blood pressure
B. To prevent nausea
77
How can HIV transmission to the fetus be reduced?
C. Treating with ART therapy
D. Delaying labor
B. Avoiding prenatal care
A. Reducing maternal food intake
78
How can viral infections affect pregnancy?
C. They only cause postpartum complications
D. They can be transmitted to the fetus
A. They strengthen the fetal immune system
B. They are always mild
79
What is a treatment goal for preeclampsia?
B. Restrict caloric intake
D. Reduce activity and environmental stimuli
A. Stop fetal movement
C. Increase exercise and fluid intake
80
What condition increases the risk of uterine atony?
C. Frequent contractions during labor
A. Decreased placental function
D. Reduced maternal hydration
B. Overstretching of muscle fibers from pregnancy
81
How long does the AAP recommend exclusive breastfeeding?
D. 12 months
A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 9 months
82
How can a neutral thermal environment be maintained for preterm infants?
C. Reducing ambient temperature
B. Using warmed blankets, hats, and avoiding drafts
A. Keeping incubator doors open
D. Placing the infant near a window for sunlight
83
Why are postpartum clients at increased risk for urinary tract infections (UTIs)?
C. Use of perineal cold packs
A. Urinary stasis and trauma to the urinary tract
B. Excessive hydration
D. Increased maternal estrogen levels
84
What condition can ABO incompatibility cause in newborns?
C. Hyperbilirubinemia
B. Preeclampsia
A. Sepsis
D. Hypoglycemia
85
Why should clients with type 2 diabetes be screened early in pregnancy?
C. To lower insulin resistance
D. To reduce nausea
B. To determine fetal gender
A. To detect preexisting diabetes
86
Why do preterm infants struggle with fluid balance?
D. Their metabolism requires little water
A. Their kidneys cannot concentrate or dilute urine well
C. Their urine output is always high
B. They retain too much fluid
87
Why is early identification of preterm labor important?
A. To prepare for an immediate cesarean section
D. To decrease maternal weight gain
B. To delay birth and allow for effective therapy
C. To prevent fetal heart rate accelerations
88
Why is a preterm infant’s skin fragile?
D. It has increased melanin production
C. It is easily damaged by adhesives and chemicals
A. It contains excess fatty tissue
B. It has a thick protective layer
89
What hormone triggers the let-down reflex in breastfeeding?
D. Insulin
A. Estrogen
B. Prolactin
C. Oxytocin
90
Which of the following is NOT a type of surrogacy?
C. Gestational
D. Altruistic
A. Neonatal
B. Traditional
91
Which client is at the highest risk for DKA in pregnancy?
C. A client with low blood pressure
B. A client with mild anemia
D. A client with well-controlled gestational diabetes
A. A client with uncontrolled type 1 diabetes
92
What should clients with sore nipples do?
A. Stop breastfeeding for a few days
C. Use strong soap to clean the nipples
D. Avoid changing breastfeeding positions
B. Apply breast milk and warm-water compresses
93
What is an appropriate nursing intervention for a family experiencing pregnancy loss?
D. Restrict visitation to protect the grieving parents
C. Encourage them to forget about the loss quickly
A. Avoid discussing the loss to prevent distress
B. Arrange unlimited contact with the stillborn infant and provide mementos
94
Why is postpartum depression a major concern?
D. It only affects the client for a few days
C. It improves maternal attachment to the infant
B. It is a disabling disorder that impacts the entire family
A. It has no long-term consequences
95
What is the primary treatment for DIC?
C. IV fluids and blood product replacement
B. Avoiding all medications
A. Encouraging prolonged labor
D. Restricting movement
96
How is culture defined?
C. A set of religious practices
A. The study of ancient traditions
D. Government-mandated social norms
B. Beliefs and values passed through generations
97
What is a major respiratory concern for preterm infants?
B. Excess surfactant production
A. High oxygen saturation levels
C. Lung immaturity and lack of surfactant
D. Overdeveloped respiratory muscles
98
What happens to insulin needs in late pregnancy?
B. They decrease
A. They drop after 20 weeks
C. They remain unchanged
D. They increase due to placental hormones
99
Why do preterm infants struggle with fluid balance?
D. Their metabolism requires little water
B. They retain too much fluid
A. Their kidneys cannot concentrate or dilute urine well
C. Their urine output is always high
100
How might parents react to the birth of an infant with congenital anomalies?
D. Immediate attachment without concerns
B. Indifference to the diagnosis
C. Shock and grief
A. Relief due to early detection
101
Why should bottle propping be avoided?
C. It makes bottle-feeding easier for the parent
D. It strengthens the baby's jaw muscles
B. It increases the risk of otitis media and choking
A. It reduces feeding time
102
When should a massive blood transfusion be initiated?
B. If blood pressure remains stable
A. If four or more units of blood are needed due to hemorrhage
D. After two units of blood loss
C. Only if the client loses consciousness
103
What is the initial management of uterine atony?
A. Immediate blood transfusion
D. Bed rest and elevation of the legs
C. Fluid replacement and uterine contraction measures
B. Applying heat to the abdomen
104
When should discharge preparation for preterm infants begin?
B. Only after the infant reaches full term
A. The day before discharge
D. At the request of the parents
C. Early in the hospital stay to allow gradual learning
105
Which preexisting condition increases maternal risk during pregnancy?
B. Mild asthma
D. Hypothyroidism
A. Seasonal allergies
C. Cardiovascular disease
106
What is severe maternal morbidity (SMM)?
D. A minor postpartum complication
C.Unexpected conditions causing life-threatening pregnancy-related injuries
A. A type of fetal distress
B. A rare genetic disorder
107
How should flat or inverted nipples be managed?
B. Identify them early, but no special treatment is needed
A. Use creams and toughening methods
C. Avoid breastfeeding entirely
D. Use ice packs to reduce swelling
108
What are the two core components of noninvasive maternal assessment?
A. Blood glucose and fetal movement
C. Cardiac output and oxygen transport
B. Maternal heart rate and uterine contractions
D. Fetal weight and amniotic fluid levels
109
What is a key concern in sickle cell disease during pregnancy?
D. Enhancing blood circulation
B. Preventing sickle cell crisis
C. Avoiding excessive weight gain
A. Increasing hemoglobin levels
110
What condition occurs when an Rh-negative client carries an Rh-positive fetus?
C. Rh incompatibility
A. Thalassemia
B. ABO incompatibility
D. Gestational diabetes
111
How does rheumatoid arthritis change in pregnancy?
D. The disease completely resolves
A. Symptoms improve but often return postpartum
C. Medication is unnecessary during pregnancy
B. Symptoms get worse and never improve
112
Why should nurses teach postpartum clients about uterine involution?
C. To encourage prolonged bleeding
B. To ensure they maintain bed rest
A. To avoid uterine contractions
D. To recognize normal vs. abnormal postpartum changes
113
Why is teenage pregnancy a major health issue in the U.S.?
A. It increases risks for both client and fetus
B. It leads to guaranteed financial support
D. It eliminates the need for prenatal care
C. It results in premature birth only
114
What is a primary concern with placenta previa and placental abruption?
B. Uterine contractions stopping
D. Excessive weight gain
A. Hemorrhage and maternal or fetal death
C. Increased risk of fetal malformations
115
What factors influence a parent’s choice of feeding method?
B. Hospital policy only
A. Knowledge, family support, cultural influence, and employment
D. Government regulations
C. The baby’s gender
116
What condition can lead to life-threatening sepsis?
A. Mild anemia
D. Untreated infection
C. Morning sickness
B. Vitamin D deficiency
117
What is a priority intervention for hypovolemic shock?
B. Monitor for excessive fetal movement
D. Increase bed rest duration
A. Promote tissue oxygenation and replace lost fluids
C. Delay fluid administration
118
How can engorged breasts be relieved?
C. Pump milk excessively to empty the breast
B. Avoid feeding on the affected side
D. Apply tight bandages over the breasts
A. Encourage frequent nursing and use warm compresses before feeding
119
Why should perinatal nurses screen for IPV?
C. To ensure clients leave abusive relationships immediately
B. To provide appropriate education and resources
D. To report all cases to law enforcement
A. To avoid discussing personal matters with clients
120
Which is a characteristic of a preterm infant?
B. Immature ears and genitals
D. Large fat stores
C. Increased muscle tone
A. Thick skin with little vernix
121
What sign may indicate worsening preeclampsia?
B. Frequent urination
C. Decreased blood pressure
A. Reduced fetal heart rate
D. Increased hyperreflexia
122
Why is prone positioning used for preterm infants?
C. It reduces the risk of aspiration
B. It helps infants stay warm
A. It decreases breathing effort and improves oxygenation
D. It strengthens the diaphragm
123
How can a nurse help establish breastfeeding?
A. Delay feeding until milk supply is fully developed
D. Encourage pacifier use early on
B. Provide early skin-to-skin contact and assist with positioning
C. Limit the number of feedings to prevent nipple soreness
124
What is a possible complication of uterine inversion?
D. Lower risk of postpartum hemorrhage
A. Mild discomfort
C. Reduced labor contractions
B. Massive blood loss and shock
125
What is a challenge in modern nursing practice?
D. Increasing length of patient hospital stays
C. Unlicensed assistive personnel and shorter hospital stays
A. Excessive staffing levels
B. Reduction in healthcare costs
126
What condition is linked to folic acid deficiency?
B. Thrombosis
D. Neural tube defects
C. Preeclampsia
A. Hyperemesis gravidarum
127
Why is pregnancy high-risk for clients with lupus?
B. High fetal growth rates
C. Increased risk of miscarriage and fetal loss
D. Reduced need for medical monitoring
A. Spontaneous improvement of symptoms
128
Why are preterm infants at a higher risk for infection?
D. They are not exposed to bacteria at birth
C. They have an overactive immune response
B. They have an immature immune system and frequent invasive procedures
A. They receive excess passive antibodies in utero
129
What is the first intervention for an amniotic fluid embolism (AFE)?
A. Increase maternal hydration
D. Encourage maternal ambulation
B. Administer antibiotics immediately
C. Call for the rapid response team and initiate support
130
Which organs are most affected by preeclampsia?
B. Skin and bones
C. Stomach and intestines
A. Lungs and pancreas
D. Liver, kidneys, heart, and brain
131
How can nurses help parents bond with a preterm infant?
Delay discussions about the infant’s condition
Limit parental visits to prevent overstimulation
Provide info about the NICU, encourage visits, & involve parents in care
Discourage excessive handling of the infant
132
Which condition involves extreme nausea, dehydration, and weight loss?
C. Preeclampsia
D. Hyperemesis gravidarum
B. Placental abruption
A. Gestational diabetes
133
Why must nurses provide culturally competent care?
A. To ensure all clients adopt Western medical beliefs
B. To respect and accommodate diverse patient backgrounds
D. To avoid discussing cultural differences
C. To minimize communication with clients
134
Which group has the highest rates of maternal morbidity and mortality?
C. Clients in urban areas
B. Non-Hispanic Black, American Indian, and Alaska Native clients
D. Clients with high education levels
A. Clients with private insurance
135
What is a leading cause of pregnancy-related death in the U.S.?
A. Hyperemesis gravidarum
D. Gestational diabetes
C. Hypertension
B. Cardiovascular conditions
136
What increases the risk of thrombus formation in the postpartum period?
D. Excessive physical activity
A. Low maternal estrogen levels
C. Venous stasis and increased coagulation factors
B. Dehydration from labor
137
Why can soft tissue trauma cause significant postpartum blood loss?
C. It reduces blood clotting factors
A. It prevents uterine contractions
D. Blood loss occurs even if the uterus is firm
B. It slows down postpartum healing
138
Which is a major social issue affecting healthcare?
D. The elimination of government programs
A. The reduction of hospital stays
B. Overuse of medical technology
C. Health care disparity and access to prenatal care
139
What happens to blood flow during hypovolemic shock?
B. It increases to all organs equally
C. It is redistributed to the extremities first
D. It is shunted to vital organs like the heart, brain, liver, and lungs
A. It remains unchanged
140
What complications can occur in large-for-gestational-age infants?
B. Increased flexibility and low muscle tone
D. Decreased oxygen needs
A. Hypoglycemia, birth injuries, and polycythemia
C. Faster postnatal development
141
What is a major concern with umbilical cord prolapse?
B. Compression of the cord leading to fetal distress
C. Fetal head engagement
D. Reduced maternal discomfort
A. Increased uterine contractions
142
How often should newborns be fed?
B. 10-15 times per day
C. 8-12 times per day
D. 2-3 times per day
A. 4-6 times per day
143
Why is infection risk increased postpartum?
C. Increased blood supply to the pelvis and open pathways for bacteria
A. The uterus is completely sterile after birth
D. Reduced hormone levels
B. Breastfeeding eliminates bacterial exposure
144
What characterizes a functional family?
B. Open communication and adaptability
C. No role assignments
D. Rigid decision-making
A. Strict parenting with no flexibility
145
Why is iron risky in thalassemia?
C. It can cause iron overload
A. It increases infection risk
B. It prevents red blood cell production
D. It leads to high blood pressure
146
Which is a common complication of preterm birth?
A. Respiratory distress syndrome and necrotizing enterocolitis
B. Increased fetal movement
C. High birth weight
D. Decreased risk of infection
147
What does breast milk provide to help prevent infection?
A. Extra protein
B. Bifidus factor, leukocytes, lysozymes, lactoferrin, and immunoglobulins
C. High concentrations of vitamin C
D. Increased amniotic fluid retention
148
How can postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) sometimes be prevented?
D. Delaying labor induction
C. Careful examination of predisposing factors
A. Encouraging early ambulation
B. Increasing fetal monitoring
149
How does adolescent pregnancy affect development?
D. It supports early independence
A. It improves academic performance
B. It ensures a stable home environment
C. It may interrupt development and require assistance

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