What is the best reason to use metrics?

Track performance and improvements

Data classification is used to:

Control access based on data sensitivity

Acceptable use policies (AUP) define:

How users may use company resources

What’s the primary goal of incident response?

Handling and recovering from security events

Chain of custody ensures:

Evidence is admissible in court

Security policies should be:

Enforced and reviewed regularly

What is a DMZ in networking?

A secure area to place public-facing services

What is the purpose of network segmentation?

To divide a network to limit access and reduce risks

What is the benefit of using TLS over SSL?

TLS is more secure and up to date

Following someone through a secure door

What is the purpose of a service level agreement (SLA)?

Establish expected service levels

What is the purpose of a digital certificate

to authenticate a website or user

What is steganography?

hiding data within another file

What is a logic bomb?

Type of Trojan that activates on specific conditions

studbud

Cybersecurity Fundamentals

90 termsStudBud Administration5 plays

Test your knowledge on essential cybersecurity concepts and principles with these engaging questions.

Flashcards90 cardsFPractice quizPHost liveL

Questions 90

Answers

1
which of the following provides authentication, integrity, and non-repudiation?
digital signatures
encryption
hashing
MAC address filtering
2
Which of the following is a technical security control?
firewall configuration
security policy
security awareness training
security guard
3
Which vulnerability scanner identifies missing patches?
Nessus
Metasploit
Snort
Wireshark
4
What is the best reason to use metrics?
Track performance and improvements
Automate patches
Make pretty charts
Replace backups
5
Which law governs healthcare data protection in the U.S.?
HIPAA
SOX
FERPA
GDPR
6
Data classification is used to:
Delete old data
Control access based on data sensitivity
Speed up networks
Encrypt traffic
7
Acceptable use policies (AUP) define:
How users may use company resources
Incident response timelines
Password complexity
Performance bonuses
8
What does the 'C' in CIA stand for?
Control
Configuration
Compliance
Confidentiality
9
Which architecture is based on isolation through virtualization?
Zero Trust
Cloud-native
Microsegmentation
Containerization
10
What’s the primary goal of incident response?
Notifying media
Handling and recovering from security events
Backing up data
Firing staff
11
Which log type records authentication attempts?
System log
Application log
Access log
Firewall log
12
Which technology can be used to detect rogue devices on a network?
SIEM
IDS
Endpoint protection
Firewall
13
Security awareness training is part of:
Preventive control
Incident response
Governance
User education
14
A system placed between an internal network and the internet is called:
Load balancer
Router
Firewall
Bastion host
15
Which of the following is a governance framework?
Netstat
COBIT
Nmap
Wireshark
16
Chain of custody ensures:
The attacker is identified
Evidence is admissible in court
Backup is complete
All evidence is encrypted
17
Which phase of incident response involves identifying what happened?
Detection
Eradication
Recovery
Containment
18
What tyoe of control is an IDS (Intrusion Detection System)?
Corrective
Compensating
Preventative
Detective
19
A VLAN helps with:
Encrypting files
Detecting intrusions
Reducing power usage
Segmenting broadcast domains
20
How is spoofing typically used?
To flood a system
To disguise identity
To disable systems
To steal physical access
21
Security policies should be:
General
Outdated
Avoided
Enforced and reviewed regularly
22
Which method provides the best proof an email was read?
Read receipt
Digital signature
Time stamp
Delivery confirmation
23
a honeypot is used to:
scan for malware
control access to networks
detect and analyze attacks
protect confidential data
24
What does the principle of redundancy help prevent?
Data loss from a breach
Backup corruption
Unauthorized access
Single points of failure
25
What is a DMZ in networking?
A malware zone
Backup zone
A secure area to place public-facing services
VLAN
26
Which of these ensures the system is restored to a known state?
Snapshot
Rollback
Imaging
Hardening
27
Which of the following is a recovery control?
Backup
Antivirus
Encryption
Firewall
28
Credential stuffing attacks rely on:
Reused passwords
Strong passwords
Two-factor authentication
Unique credentials per site
29
What is the purpose of network segmentation?
To divide a network to limit access and reduce risks
To eliminate latency
To manage logs
To encrypt data
30
The primary purpose of a security program is to:
Ensure compliance
Protect assets and reduce risk
Impress stakeholders
Prevent downtime
31
Why is log aggregation useful?
Prevents viruses
Decreases disk space
Combines and correlates logs
Slows down attack detection
32
Which protocol operates on port 443?
HTTPS
FTP
SSH
HTTP
33
What is the benefit of using TLS over SSL?
TLS is more secure and up to date
It’s obsolete
TLS is faster
It’s less secure
34
What is tailgating?
Following someone through a secure door
Spamming users
Overhearing passwords
Bypassing encryption
35
What is the purpose of a service level agreement (SLA)?
Define security controls
Establish expected service levels
Manage incidents
Set pricing
36
Which attack involves flooding a network or server with traffic?
Phishing
MITM
Spoofing
DDoS
37
An example of risk mitigation is:
Skipping updates
Buying insurance
Ignoring alerts
Using backups
38
What does SSO (Single Sign-On) enable?
One login for multiple systems
Multiple logins
2FA setup
Bypassing security
39
During which phase is malware removed?
Recovery
Containment
Identification
Eradication
40
Which protocol can be used to secure email?
IMAP
POP3
SMTP
S/MIME
41
Least privilege is an example of what type of principle?
zero trust
access control
network segmentation
defense in depth
42
A security audit is used to:
Disable threats
Validate compliance
Boost morale
Generate revenue
43
Threat intelligence that is timely, relevant, and actionable is considered:
Contextual
Tactical
Strategic
Operational
44
What is the purpose of a digital certificate
to authenticate a website or user
to configure a firewall
to encrypt filed
to control network traffic
45
A common goal of attackers exploiting IoT devices is:
Data analytics
Botnet creation
Load balancing
Employee monitoring
46
Which wireless security protocol is considered the most secure?
WPA3
WPA2
WPA
WEP
47
What is steganography?
a malware type
encryption using public keys
hiding data within another file
a form of social engineering
48
What is a logic bomb?
Web app attack
Type of Trojan that activates on specific conditions
Spyware
Encryption software
49
Which regulation focuses on privacy in the European Union?
SOX
GDPR
PCI
FERPA
50
which framework is commonly used by federal agencies?
NIST
COBIT
GDPR
ISO/IEC 27001
51
what does a vulnerability scanner do?
blocks traffic
detects weakness in systems
creates malware
backs up data
52
A man-in-the-middle attack compromises:
Both confidentiality and integrity
Confidentiality
Availability
Integrity
53
Which tool is used for protocol analysis?
Metasploit
John the Ripper
Nessus
Wireshark
54
What is a zero-day vulnerability?
A virus signature
A flaw already patched
A vulnerability known and exploited before a fix is released
A type of worm
55
Why is defense-in-depth important?
Eliminates the need for monitoring
Ensures system performance
Provides multiple overlapping security controls
Focuses on one layer of security
56
What is the main benefit of a baseline configuration?
Log analysis
Encryption key storage
Improved battery life
Simplified system restoration
57
What does SIEM stand for?
Security Information and Event Management
Security Intelligence for Email Monitoring
System Information and Email Management
System Integrity Evaluation Monitor
58
A company uses biometrics and a login. What is this an example of?
single-factor authentication
two-factor authentication
multicast authentication
security awareness
59
What is the goal of penetration testing?
Backup systems
Stress test servers
Monitor traffic
Simulate real-world attacks
60
What’s the role of a data owner?
Define access and classify data
Monitor logs
Manage encryption
Use data daily
61
Which is an example of passive reconnaissance?
DDoS
SQL Injection
Wireshark network sniffing
Phishing email
62
Which cloud model offers the most control to the user?
SaaS
DaaS
PaaS
IaaS
63
which of these is a physical security control?
encryption
firewall
antivirus
security camera
64
Which attack is designed to make a system or service unabvailable?
man-in-the-middle
denial-of-service
SQL injection
phishing
65
Zero trust security means:
Antivirus is unnecessary
All traffic is allowed internally
No one is trusted by default
Users are trusted after first login
66
What is the purpose of a risk assessment?
to enforce policies
to identify and evaluate risks
to track employee behavior
To eliminate all risk
67
What type of firewall filters traffic based on application-level data?
Circuit-level gateway
Stateful inspection
Packet filtering
Proxy firewall
68
What is the primary function of a VPN?
Filter spam
Encrypt internal databases
Allow remote secure connections
Manage logs
69
What is the primary use of syslog?
Logging events in UNIX/Linux
Managing users
Authentication
File transfer
70
Which principle ensures that data has not been tampered with?
Availability
Accessibility
Confidentiality
Integrity
71
Which of the following is a social engineering attack?
SQL Injection
ARP Poisoning
Phishing
Brute force
72
Which is NOT a type of cloud deployment model?
Localized
Community
Private
Public
73
Who is responsible for risk management?
Only HR
The janitor
Only IT
Senior management
74
Which of the following is an example of privilege escalation?
User gaining admin rights
Changing your password
Phishing email
Using 2FA
75
Which is an example of a preventive control?
Firewall
SIEM
Log analysis
IDS
76
Which tool is used for log centralization and correlation?
Firewall
SIEM
NAT
Proxy
77
Which malware type demands payment to restore access to files?
spyware
ransomware
adware
trojan
78
What’s a snapshot used for?
Logging user activity
Viewing network traffic
Encrypting drives
Restoring system state
79
Threat modeling helps organizations:
Choose anti-virus
Identify and prioritize threats
Configure firewalls
Respond to incidents
80
Which standard is used for payment card data security?
NIST
ISO 27001
PCI DSS
HIPAA
81
Which is NOT a step in the forensic process?
Eradication
Collection
Analysis
Preservation
82
Which attack tricks users into providing sensitive information?
Phishing
SQL injection
Ransomware
Brute force
83
What is the purpose of containment in incident response?
Alert media
Patch the system
Erase logs
Limit damage and isolate the threat
84
Which control detects changes to files?
SIEM
Antivirus
HIDS
Firewall
85
What is sandboxing used for?
Testing malware in a safe environment
Monitoring uptime
Encrypting files
Increasing network speed
86
What does risk transference involve?
Accepting risk
Shifting risk to third parties
Eliminating risk
Ignoring risk
87
In cloud computing, the shared responsibility model means:
Only users manage security
Audits are not required
The provider handles all security
Security responsibilities are split
88
Which type of threat actor is most likely driven by political or social objectives?
Hacktivist
Script Kiddie
Competitor
Insider
89
Which of the following is an example of a vulnerability?
Unpatched system
Encryption
Firewall
Phishing email
90
Which term describes the ability to continue operations after a disaster?
Confidentiality
Integrity
Availability
Business continuity

Cybersecurity Fundamentals Flashcards | StudBud